Anesthesiology
1 questionsMaximum Airway Irritation caused by:-
NEET-PG 2019 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Maximum Airway Irritation caused by:-
- A. Halothane
- B. Enflurane
- C. Desflurane (Correct Answer)
- D. Sevoflurane
- E. Isoflurane
Explanation: ***Desflurane*** - **Desflurane** has a pungent odor and is known to cause significant **airway irritation**, leading to coughing, breath-holding, laryngospasm, and secretions, especially during induction. - Its high volatility and low blood-gas solubility contribute to its rapid onset and offset, but also increase its propensity for airway irritation. *Halothane* - **Halothane** has a sweet, non-pungent odor and is generally well-tolerated during induction, causing minimal airway irritation. - Although it causes myocardial depression and is associated with hepatotoxicity, airway irritation is not a primary concern. *Enflurane* - **Enflurane** has a mild, sweet odor and causes less airway irritation than **desflurane**, but more than halothane or sevoflurane. - It can cause central nervous system excitation at high concentrations, but airway irritation is not its most prominent side effect. *Sevoflurane* - **Sevoflurane** has a pleasant, non-pungent odor and is known for its minimal airway irritation, making it an excellent choice for inhalational inductions, particularly in pediatric patients. - It is often preferred over other volatile anesthetics when airway reactivity is a concern. *Isoflurane* - **Isoflurane** has a pungent odor and can cause moderate airway irritation, but generally less than desflurane. - It is associated with a higher incidence of coughing and breath-holding during induction compared to sevoflurane.
Biochemistry
2 questionsWhich amino acid is involved in the synthesis of creatinine, NO, and urea?
Which of the following is not a dietary fiber?
NEET-PG 2019 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Which amino acid is involved in the synthesis of creatinine, NO, and urea?
- A. Arginine (Correct Answer)
- B. Glycine
- C. Aspartate
- D. Citrulline
Explanation: ***Arginine*** - **Arginine** is a precursor for **Nitric Oxide (NO)** synthesis via **nitric oxide synthase**. - It is also a substrate for **creatinine** synthesis (along with glycine and methionine) and plays a key role in the **urea cycle**. *Glycine* - **Glycine** is a precursor for **creatinine** synthesis, but not directly involved in NO or urea production as the primary amino acid. - It is also a component of glutathione and purine synthesis. *Aspartate* - **Aspartate** is a key intermediate in the **urea cycle**, contributing one nitrogen atom to urea. - It is not directly a precursor for NO or creatinine. *Citrulline* - **Citrulline** is an intermediate in the **urea cycle** and is converted to arginine. - It is not directly involved in the synthesis of creatinine or as the primary precursor for NO.
Question 222: Which of the following is not a dietary fiber?
- A. Cellulose
- B. Starch (Correct Answer)
- C. Pectin
- D. Inulin
Explanation: ***Starch*** - **Starch** is a **complex carbohydrate** that serves as a major energy source for humans and can be digested into glucose. - Unlike dietary fiber, starch is broken down by enzymes (like **amylase**) in the digestive tract, absorbed, and used for energy. *Cellulose* - **Cellulose** is a **polysaccharide** found in the cell walls of plants and is a major component of dietary fiber. - Humans lack the enzymes to digest cellulose, so it passes through the digestive system largely intact, adding **bulk to stool**. *Pectin* - **Pectin** is a **soluble dietary fiber** found in fruits, particularly apples and citrus. - It forms a gel-like substance when mixed with water and is known for its ability to lower cholesterol and regulate blood sugar. *Inulin* - **Inulin** is a **soluble dietary fiber** and a type of fructan, found in many plants like chicory root, onions, and garlic. - It acts as a **prebiotic**, promoting the growth of beneficial gut bacteria in the colon.
Community Medicine
1 questionsMost peripheral unit for planning of family planning and other services under RCH program is
NEET-PG 2019 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Most peripheral unit for planning of family planning and other services under RCH program is
- A. PHC
- B. District
- C. Sub-centre (Correct Answer)
- D. Block/ Taluka
Explanation: ***Sub-centre*** - The **Sub-centre** is the most peripheral and first contact point between the primary healthcare system and the community. - It serves a population of 3,000-5,000 people and is responsible for delivering basic health services, including **family planning** and **RCH (Reproductive and Child Health) services**, directly to the community. *PHC* - A **Primary Health Centre (PHC)** is a more central facility, serving a larger population (20,000-30,000) and acting as a referral unit for 6 sub-centres. - While PHCs provide comprehensive primary care, the **planning and direct delivery** at the grassroots level occur at the Sub-centre. *District* - The **District level** involves overarching planning, supervision, and resource allocation for health services within the entire district. - It is not the most peripheral unit for direct service delivery or planning with the community. *Block/Taluka* - The **Block/Taluka level** often corresponds to a Community Health Centre (CHC) or block-level administrative health office. - These facilities supervise PHCs and manage health programs for a larger administrative block, but are not the immediate point of contact for service planning with the community.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is autosomal dominant in inheritance?
NEET-PG 2019 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Which of the following is autosomal dominant in inheritance?
- A. Achondroplasia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hemochromatosis
- C. Sickle cell disease
- D. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
Explanation: ***Achondroplasia*** - This condition is inherited in an **autosomal dominant** pattern, meaning only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the disorder. - It is caused by a mutation in the **FGFR3 gene**, leading to abnormal bone growth and short-limbed dwarfism [1]. *Hemochromatosis* - This condition is primarily inherited in an **autosomal recessive** pattern, meaning two copies of the mutated gene (HFE gene) are required for the disease to manifest. - It leads to excessive iron absorption and organ damage. *Sickle cell disease* - This is an **autosomal recessive** disordertoo. - It results from a mutation in the **HBB gene**, affecting hemoglobin and causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. *Wiskott Aldrich syndrome* - This is an **X-linked recessive** disorder, meaning it primarily affects males. - It involves mutations in the **WAS gene**, leading to immunodeficiency, eczema, and thrombocytopenia.
Microbiology
1 questionsFlask shaped ulcers in colon are caused by:-
NEET-PG 2019 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Flask shaped ulcers in colon are caused by:-
- A. Entamoeba histolytica (Correct Answer)
- B. Giardia lamblia
- C. Enterobius vermicularis
- D. H. Pylori
Explanation: ***Entamoeba histolytica*** - *Entamoeba histolytica* is a protozoan parasite that invades the **colonic mucosa**, leading to characteristic **flask-shaped ulcers**. - These ulcers are formed as the trophozoites penetrate the epithelium and spread laterally through the submucosa, creating a narrow neck at the mucosal surface and a wider base below. *Giardia lamblia* - *Giardia lamblia* causes **giardiasis**, primarily affecting the **small intestine** and leading to malabsorption and diarrhea. - It typically does not cause invasive disease or ulcer formation in the colon, instead, it attaches to the intestinal villi. *Enterobius vermicularis* - *Enterobius vermicularis* is an intestinal nematode (pinworm) that causes **enterobiasis**, commonly manifesting as **perianal itching**, especially at night. - It is a non-invasive parasite and does not cause ulcers in the colon. *H. Pylori* - *H. pylori* is a bacterium primarily associated with infections of the **stomach** and **duodenum**, causing gastritis, peptic ulcers, and increasing the risk of gastric cancer. - It does not colonize the colon or cause flask-shaped ulcers.
Pathology
2 questionsWhich of the following features distinguishes Crohn's disease from Ulcerative colitis?
Hemolysis is predominantly intravascular in which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2019 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Which of the following features distinguishes Crohn's disease from Ulcerative colitis?
- A. Lymphocyte infiltrate
- B. Mucosal edema
- C. Pseudopolyps
- D. Transmural involvement (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Transmural involvement*** - **Crohn's disease** is characterized by **transmural inflammation**, meaning the inflammation extends through all layers of the bowel wall [1]. This deep inflammation can lead to complications like **fistulas**, **strictures**, and **abscesses** [1], [3]. - In contrast, **Ulcerative colitis** typically involves inflammation limited to the **mucosa and submucosa** [4]. *Lymphocyte infiltrate* - Both Crohn's disease and Ulcerative colitis involve a **lymphocyte infiltrate** as part of the chronic inflammatory process [2]. This feature is not specific enough to differentiate between the two conditions. - The presence of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and other inflammatory cells is common in any chronic inflammatory bowel condition. *Mucosal edema* - **Mucosal edema** can be found in both Crohn's disease and Ulcerative colitis due to the inflammatory process. It is a general sign of inflammation rather than a specific differentiating feature. *Pseudopolyps* - **Pseudopolyps** are characteristic of **Ulcerative colitis**, forming as islands of regenerating mucosa in areas of severe inflammation and ulceration [4]. - While they can occasionally be seen in chronic Crohn's disease, they are much more common and prominent in Ulcerative colitis, representing a reparative process rather than primary disease activity. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 365-366. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 366-367. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 806-807. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, p. 809.
Question 222: Hemolysis is predominantly intravascular in which of the following conditions?
- A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (Correct Answer)
- B. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- C. Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- D. Spherocytosis
Explanation: ***Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria*** - **PNH** is characterized by a defect in the **PIG-A gene**, leading to a deficiency of **GPI-anchored proteins** like CD55 and CD59 on red blood cells [1]. - This deficiency makes the red blood cells susceptible to complement-mediated lysis, predominantly occurring **intravascularly** [1]. *Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia* - This condition involves **IgG autoantibodies** binding to red blood cells, which are then primarily removed by **macrophages in the spleen** and liver (extravascular hemolysis) [2]. - The presence of **spherocytes** and a positive direct **antiglobulin test (DAT)** are characteristic [2]. *Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia* - Involves **IgM autoantibodies** that bind to red blood cells at colder temperatures, often causing agglutination in the peripheral circulation. - While some complement activation and lysis can occur intravascularly, the primary mechanism involves **macrophages in the liver** clearing antibody-coated red cells (extravascular), or red cell destruction in the cooler acral areas. *Spherocytosis* - This is a condition of abnormal red blood cell shape due to defects in **cytoskeletal proteins** (e.g., spectrin, ankyrin), making them less deformable. - These rigid spherocytes are primarily trapped and destroyed by the **phagocytic cells in the spleen**, indicating an **extravascular hemolytic process** [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 650-651. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 602-603.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements is not true about tamoxifen?
NEET-PG 2019 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: Which of the following statements is not true about tamoxifen?
- A. It can cause endometrial carcinoma.
- B. Tamoxifen is useful in post-menopausal and aromatase inhibitors in premenopausal patients. (Correct Answer)
- C. It is used for visceral metastasis.
- D. Dose is 20 mg for 5 years.
Explanation: ***Tamoxifen is useful in post-menopausal and aromatase inhibitors in premenopausal patients.*** - This statement is **incorrect** because **tamoxifen** is typically used in both pre- and post-menopausal women with **hormone receptor-positive breast cancer**, acting as a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)** [1]. - **Aromatase inhibitors** are primarily used in **post-menopausal women** because they block the peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogens, a process which is the primary source of estrogen in post-menopausal women, unlike pre-menopausal women where ovaries produce significant estrogen. *It can cause endometrial carcinoma.* - This statement is **true** because tamoxifen acts as an **estrogen agonist** in the uterus, which can lead to **endometrial hyperplasia** and increase the risk of **endometrial carcinoma** [1]. - This side effect is a significant consideration, especially with **long-term use** and in **post-menopausal women** [1]. *It is used for visceral metastasis.* - This statement is **true** as tamoxifen is an effective endocrine therapy for **hormone-sensitive breast cancer**, including those with **visceral metastases** [1]. - Its systemic action helps control disease progression in various organs affected by metastatic spread. *Dose is 20 mg for 5 years.* - This statement is **true** as the standard dose of tamoxifen for the adjuvant treatment of **hormone receptor-positive breast cancer** is indeed **20 mg daily for 5 years** [1]. - In some cases, treatment may be extended up to 10 years for additional benefit, but 5 years is the commonly recommended initial duration [1].
Surgery
1 questionsA patient presents with a gradually progressive, painless mass persisting for 10 years. The mass is firm to nodular and shows variable consistency within different areas of the swelling. What is the most probable diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2019 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A patient presents with a gradually progressive, painless mass persisting for 10 years. The mass is firm to nodular and shows variable consistency within different areas of the swelling. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Dermoid cyst
- B. Malignancy
- C. Sebaceous cyst
- D. Pleomorphic adenoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pleomorphic adenoma*** - A **gradually progressive**, **painless mass** that has been present for 10 years, with a **firm to nodular** consistency and variability at different sites, is highly characteristic of a pleomorphic adenoma. - This benign tumor of salivary glands is known for its **slow growth** and **variable histological composition**, leading to its characteristic consistency. *Dermoid cyst* - Dermoid cysts are typically **present from birth** or early childhood and tend to be **soft and doughy** in consistency, rather than firm or nodular with variable consistency. - While painless, their growth pattern and texture differ from the described mass. *Malignancy* - A mass that has been present for **10 years** and is still described as **gradually progressive** but painless is less likely to be a malignancy, as most malignant tumors tend to grow more rapidly and often present with pain or other symptoms over such a long period. - Malignancies usually demonstrate a more infiltrative and aggressive growth pattern. *Sebaceous cyst* - A sebaceous cyst (epidermoid cyst) typically presents as a **smooth, movable, dome-shaped lump** and contains a cheesy, malodorous material, which is not consistent with a firm to nodular mass with varying consistency. - While they can be long-standing and painless, their characteristic feel and contents are different.