NEET-PG 2019 — Obstetrics and Gynecology

Q: Green frothy vaginal discharge is produced by –

Trichomonas vaginalis. ***Trichomonas vaginalis*** - **Trichomoniasis**, caused by *Trichomonas vaginalis*, classically presents with a **yellowish-green, frothy, malodorous vaginal discharge**. - It is a **sexually transmitted infection** that can also cause vaginal itching, burning, and dyspareunia. *Herpes simplex* - Herpes simplex virus typically causes **painful genital ulcers** or sores, not a frothy discharge. - The discharge, if present, is usually clear or serous and associated with the open lesions. *Candida albicans* - *Candida albicans* (yeast infection) commonly produces a **thick, white, "cottage cheese-like" discharge** that is often associated with intense itching. - It does not typically cause a frothy, green discharge. *Normal vaginal flora* - Normal vaginal flora maintains a healthy vaginal environment and produces a **clear to whitish, non-irritating discharge** with no strong odor. - It does not cause a green, frothy discharge, which indicates an infection. [Practice more Obstetrics and Gynecology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A baby born at 34 weeks gestation weighs 3kg. Which of the following conditions is this child most likely to develop in the immediate postnatal period?

Anemia. ***Anemia*** - Macrosomic babies (3kg at 34 weeks is **large for gestational age**) initially develop **polycythemia** due to chronic intrauterine hypoxia and increased erythropoiesis, but this is followed by rapid **hemolysis** and breakdown of excess red blood cells after birth, leading to anemia in the immediate postnatal period. - Among the given options, **anemia** is the most appropriate answer as it represents a recognized complication of LGA babies through the **polycythemia-hemolysis cycle**, even though **hypoglycemia** is statistically the most common immediate complication. *APH* - **Antepartum hemorrhage (APH)** is a maternal obstetric complication involving bleeding before delivery, not a condition that the baby itself develops or shows. - While APH can affect fetal growth and well-being, it is not a **neonatal condition** that the child would present with after birth. *Diabetes* - Although **maternal diabetes** is the most common cause of fetal macrosomia, the newborn does not develop diabetes itself in the immediate postnatal period. - Instead, these babies are at risk for **hypoglycemia**, **respiratory distress**, and **hyperbilirubinemia** due to fetal hyperinsulinemia, but not diabetes as a presenting condition. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **anemia** is indeed a valid condition that macrosomic babies can develop through the described polycythemia-hemolysis mechanism. - While other complications like **hypoglycemia** and **birth trauma** are more common, anemia remains a recognized sequela among LGA babies in the immediate postnatal period. [Practice more Obstetrics and Gynecology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: What is the presenting diameter of a fully flexed head?

Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter. ***Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter*** - This diameter measures from the **nape of the neck** (**suboccipital region**) to the **anterior fontanelle** (**bregma**), which is the smallest presenting diameter of the fetal head when it is in **full flexion**. - A fully flexed head presents the smallest and most favorable diameter for vaginal birth, allowing for optimal passage through the birth canal. *Suboccipito-frontal diameter* - This diameter is measured from the **nape of the neck to the center of the forehead**, indicating a less flexed head than the suboccipito-bregmatic diameter. - While it represents some flexion, it is not the ideal presenting diameter for a fully flexed head and is larger than the suboccipito-bregmatic diameter. *Occipito-frontal diameter* - This diameter is measured from the **occipital protuberance to the forehead**, representing a **deflexed** or **partially flexed** head. - This presentation is less favorable for vaginal delivery as it is a larger diameter than either the suboccipito-bregmatic or suboccipito-frontal diameters. *Biparietal diameter* - This diameter measures the **widest transverse diameter of the fetal head**, between the two parietal eminences. - While clinically important for assessing head size and growth, it is **not a presenting longitudinal diameter** that describes the leading part of the fetal head during engagement and descent. [Practice more Obstetrics and Gynecology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Day 20 of menstrual cycle falls under which phase?

Luteal phase. ***Luteal phase*** - The **luteal phase** typically starts after ovulation, around day 14, and lasts until menstruation begins, usually day 28 of a 28-day cycle. Therefore, **day 20 falls squarely within this phase**. - During this phase, the **corpus luteum** forms and produces **progesterone**, preparing the uterus for potential pregnancy. *Menstrual phase* - The **menstrual phase** is the period of shedding of the uterine lining, typically occurring from **day 1 to day 5** of the menstrual cycle. - Day 20 is well past this phase, during which bleeding and low hormone levels are characteristic. *Follicular phase* - The **follicular phase** starts on day 1 of menstruation and lasts until ovulation, usually around **day 13-14** in a 28-day cycle. - During this phase, follicles mature under the influence of **FSH** and **estrogen** levels rise. Day 20 is beyond this period. *Ovulation phase* - The **ovulation phase** is a short period, typically around **day 14** of a 28-day cycle, when the mature egg is released from the ovary. - This phase is brief and marks the transition from the follicular to the luteal phase, so day 20 is considerably after ovulation. [Practice more Obstetrics and Gynecology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Chromosome number of partial hydatidiform mole is-

69 chromosomes. ***69 chromosomes*** - A **partial hydatidiform mole** typically results from **dispermy** (fertilization of one ovum by two sperm), leading to a **triploid karyotype** (69 chromosomes). - This triploidy usually consists of **69, XXY** or **69, XXX**, with the paternal contribution being twice the maternal. *46 XX* - This is a normal diploid female karyotype and is the typical chromosome number for a **complete hydatidiform mole** if the maternal chromosomes are lost and the paternal chromosomes duplicate. - In a complete mole, there is **no fetal tissue**, unlike in a partial mole. *45 XO* - This karyotype, known as **Turner syndrome**, is characterized by the absence of one sex chromosome. - It does not represent a hydatidiform mole but is a chromosomal abnormality associated with developmental disorders. *47 chromosomes (XXY)* - This karyotype is characteristic of **Klinefelter syndrome**, a sex chromosome aneuploidy in males (47,XXY). - While it involves an extra sex chromosome, it is not associated with partial hydatidiform moles, which are triploid with 69 chromosomes. [Practice more Obstetrics and Gynecology PYQs on OnCourse]

16 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

Questions

Green frothy vaginal discharge is produced by –

A baby born at 34 weeks gestation weighs 3kg. Which of the following conditions is this child most likely to develop in the immediate postnatal period?

What is the presenting diameter of a fully flexed head?

Day 20 of menstrual cycle falls under which phase?

Chromosome number of partial hydatidiform mole is-

Nuchal translucency in USG can be detected at_____weeks of gestation.

A 60-year-old woman comes with 3rd degree uterine prolapse. What will be the management?

The major contributor to amniotic fluid after 20 weeks of gestation is:

A patient with recurrent abortion is diagnosed to have antiphospholipid syndrome. What will be the treatment?

Q10

Which of the following treatments is used for vulvar atrophy and itching?

NEET-PG 2019 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Green frothy vaginal discharge is produced by –

A. Herpes simplex
B. Candida albicans
C. Trichomonas vaginalis (Correct Answer)
D. Normal vaginal flora

Explanation: ***Trichomonas vaginalis*** - **Trichomoniasis**, caused by *Trichomonas vaginalis*, classically presents with a **yellowish-green, frothy, malodorous vaginal discharge**. - It is a **sexually transmitted infection** that can also cause vaginal itching, burning, and dyspareunia. *Herpes simplex* - Herpes simplex virus typically causes **painful genital ulcers** or sores, not a frothy discharge. - The discharge, if present, is usually clear or serous and associated with the open lesions. *Candida albicans* - *Candida albicans* (yeast infection) commonly produces a **thick, white, "cottage cheese-like" discharge** that is often associated with intense itching. - It does not typically cause a frothy, green discharge. *Normal vaginal flora* - Normal vaginal flora maintains a healthy vaginal environment and produces a **clear to whitish, non-irritating discharge** with no strong odor. - It does not cause a green, frothy discharge, which indicates an infection.

Question 2: A baby born at 34 weeks gestation weighs 3kg. Which of the following conditions is this child most likely to develop in the immediate postnatal period?

A. APH
B. Diabetes
C. Anemia (Correct Answer)
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Anemia*** - Macrosomic babies (3kg at 34 weeks is **large for gestational age**) initially develop **polycythemia** due to chronic intrauterine hypoxia and increased erythropoiesis, but this is followed by rapid **hemolysis** and breakdown of excess red blood cells after birth, leading to anemia in the immediate postnatal period. - Among the given options, **anemia** is the most appropriate answer as it represents a recognized complication of LGA babies through the **polycythemia-hemolysis cycle**, even though **hypoglycemia** is statistically the most common immediate complication. *APH* - **Antepartum hemorrhage (APH)** is a maternal obstetric complication involving bleeding before delivery, not a condition that the baby itself develops or shows. - While APH can affect fetal growth and well-being, it is not a **neonatal condition** that the child would present with after birth. *Diabetes* - Although **maternal diabetes** is the most common cause of fetal macrosomia, the newborn does not develop diabetes itself in the immediate postnatal period. - Instead, these babies are at risk for **hypoglycemia**, **respiratory distress**, and **hyperbilirubinemia** due to fetal hyperinsulinemia, but not diabetes as a presenting condition. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **anemia** is indeed a valid condition that macrosomic babies can develop through the described polycythemia-hemolysis mechanism. - While other complications like **hypoglycemia** and **birth trauma** are more common, anemia remains a recognized sequela among LGA babies in the immediate postnatal period.

Question 3: What is the presenting diameter of a fully flexed head?

A. Suboccipito-frontal diameter
B. Occipito-frontal diameter
C. Biparietal diameter
D. Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter*** - This diameter measures from the **nape of the neck** (**suboccipital region**) to the **anterior fontanelle** (**bregma**), which is the smallest presenting diameter of the fetal head when it is in **full flexion**. - A fully flexed head presents the smallest and most favorable diameter for vaginal birth, allowing for optimal passage through the birth canal. *Suboccipito-frontal diameter* - This diameter is measured from the **nape of the neck to the center of the forehead**, indicating a less flexed head than the suboccipito-bregmatic diameter. - While it represents some flexion, it is not the ideal presenting diameter for a fully flexed head and is larger than the suboccipito-bregmatic diameter. *Occipito-frontal diameter* - This diameter is measured from the **occipital protuberance to the forehead**, representing a **deflexed** or **partially flexed** head. - This presentation is less favorable for vaginal delivery as it is a larger diameter than either the suboccipito-bregmatic or suboccipito-frontal diameters. *Biparietal diameter* - This diameter measures the **widest transverse diameter of the fetal head**, between the two parietal eminences. - While clinically important for assessing head size and growth, it is **not a presenting longitudinal diameter** that describes the leading part of the fetal head during engagement and descent.

Question 4: Day 20 of menstrual cycle falls under which phase?

A. Menstrual phase
B. Follicular phase
C. Ovulation phase
D. Luteal phase (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Luteal phase*** - The **luteal phase** typically starts after ovulation, around day 14, and lasts until menstruation begins, usually day 28 of a 28-day cycle. Therefore, **day 20 falls squarely within this phase**. - During this phase, the **corpus luteum** forms and produces **progesterone**, preparing the uterus for potential pregnancy. *Menstrual phase* - The **menstrual phase** is the period of shedding of the uterine lining, typically occurring from **day 1 to day 5** of the menstrual cycle. - Day 20 is well past this phase, during which bleeding and low hormone levels are characteristic. *Follicular phase* - The **follicular phase** starts on day 1 of menstruation and lasts until ovulation, usually around **day 13-14** in a 28-day cycle. - During this phase, follicles mature under the influence of **FSH** and **estrogen** levels rise. Day 20 is beyond this period. *Ovulation phase* - The **ovulation phase** is a short period, typically around **day 14** of a 28-day cycle, when the mature egg is released from the ovary. - This phase is brief and marks the transition from the follicular to the luteal phase, so day 20 is considerably after ovulation.

Question 5: Chromosome number of partial hydatidiform mole is-

A. 46 XX
B. 45 XO
C. 69 chromosomes (Correct Answer)
D. 47 chromosomes (XXY)

Explanation: ***69 chromosomes*** - A **partial hydatidiform mole** typically results from **dispermy** (fertilization of one ovum by two sperm), leading to a **triploid karyotype** (69 chromosomes). - This triploidy usually consists of **69, XXY** or **69, XXX**, with the paternal contribution being twice the maternal. *46 XX* - This is a normal diploid female karyotype and is the typical chromosome number for a **complete hydatidiform mole** if the maternal chromosomes are lost and the paternal chromosomes duplicate. - In a complete mole, there is **no fetal tissue**, unlike in a partial mole. *45 XO* - This karyotype, known as **Turner syndrome**, is characterized by the absence of one sex chromosome. - It does not represent a hydatidiform mole but is a chromosomal abnormality associated with developmental disorders. *47 chromosomes (XXY)* - This karyotype is characteristic of **Klinefelter syndrome**, a sex chromosome aneuploidy in males (47,XXY). - While it involves an extra sex chromosome, it is not associated with partial hydatidiform moles, which are triploid with 69 chromosomes.

Question 6: Nuchal translucency in USG can be detected at_____weeks of gestation.

A. 11-13 weeks (Correct Answer)
B. 18-20 weeks
C. 8-10 weeks
D. 20-22 weeks

Explanation: ***11-13 weeks*** - Nuchal translucency (NT) is a **first-trimester ultrasound marker** used for screening for chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome**. - The optimal window for accurate measurement is between **11 weeks 0 days and 13 weeks 6 days** of gestation, or when the crown-rump length (CRL) is between 45 mm and 84 mm. *18-20 weeks* - This period is typically dedicated to the **anomaly scan** or **mid-pregnancy scan**, which focuses on detecting structural abnormalities in the fetus. - While other markers like **nuchal fold thickness** can be assessed later, the diagnostic value of Nuchal Translucency is decreased by this time. *8-10 weeks* - At this early stage, the fetus is generally **too small** for accurate and consistent measurement of the nuchal translucency. - The nuchal translucency itself might not be fully developed or easily distinguishable for precise measurement. *20-22 weeks* - By this gestational age, the **nuchal translucency has usually resolved** or is no longer a reliable marker for chromosomal screening. - This period is well beyond the recommended window for NT measurement, making it unsuitable for this specific screening test.

Question 7: A 60-year-old woman comes with 3rd degree uterine prolapse. What will be the management?

A. Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair (Correct Answer)
B. Pelvic floor repair
C. Sacrospinous fixation
D. Pessary

Explanation: ***Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair*** - A **3rd degree uterine prolapse** means the cervix and uterus protrude beyond the introitus, requiring surgical intervention in most cases. - **Vaginal hysterectomy** addresses the prolapsed uterus, and **pelvic floor repair** (e.g., anterior/posterior colporrhaphy) simultaneously reinforces weakened pelvic support structures to prevent recurrence. - This is the **most definitive surgical management** for complete uterine prolapse in a postmenopausal woman. *Pelvic floor repair* - While important for addressing fascial defects, **pelvic floor repair alone** is insufficient for 3rd-degree uterine prolapse where the uterus itself is significantly descended. - This option would leave the **prolapsed uterus** unaddressed, making long-term surgical success unlikely. *Sacrospinous fixation* - **Sacrospinous fixation** is a procedure primarily used for **vaginal vault prolapse** (post-hysterectomy) or as part of apical suspension, by attaching the vaginal apex to the sacrospinous ligament. - While it can be used for **uterine-sparing procedures** (sacrospinous hysteropexy), it is not the primary or sole management when the standard approach is vaginal hysterectomy with repair. *Pessary* - A **pessary** is a non-surgical option appropriate for patients who are **not surgical candidates** (significant comorbidities, elderly frail patients) or those who **decline surgery**. - While it can provide symptomatic relief even for 3rd-degree prolapse, it requires regular follow-up and is generally considered a **conservative/temporizing measure** rather than definitive management when surgery is feasible.

Question 8: The major contributor to amniotic fluid after 20 weeks of gestation is:

A. Fetal urine (Correct Answer)
B. Fetal skin
C. Ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma
D. Fluid from fetal lungs

Explanation: ***Fetal urine*** - After **20 weeks of gestation**, the **fetal kidneys** are fully functional, and fetal urination becomes the primary source of amniotic fluid. - This contribution is crucial for the **volume of amniotic fluid** and plays a vital role in **fetal lung development** by allowing the fetus to "breathe" the fluid. *Ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma* - While an ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma contributes to the early amniotic fluid volume, its significance diminishes as the **fetal kidneys mature** past 20 weeks. - This source primarily provides water and dissolved solutes, but not a substantial volume. *Fluid from fetal lungs* - Fluid produced by the fetal lungs also contributes to amniotic fluid, but its volume is considerably smaller than that from **fetal urine**, especially after 20 weeks. - It mainly includes pulmonary surfactants and other specific proteins important for lung maturation. *Fetal skin* - Before **keratinization** of the fetal skin (around 20-22 weeks), the skin is permeable and allows for transepidermal fluid transport, contributing to amniotic fluid. - However, once **keratinization** is complete, the skin becomes impermeable, and its contribution to amniotic fluid becomes negligible.

Question 9: A patient with recurrent abortion is diagnosed to have antiphospholipid syndrome. What will be the treatment?

A. Aspirin alone
B. Aspirin, Low molecular weight Heparin, and Prednisolone
C. No treatment required
D. Aspirin and Low molecular weight Heparin (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Aspirin and Low molecular weight Heparin*** - The combination of **low-dose aspirin (75-100 mg daily)** and **low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)** is the **standard of care** for pregnant women with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) to prevent recurrent pregnancy loss. - **Aspirin** inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces thrombosis, while **LMWH** provides anticoagulation to prevent placental thrombosis and improve pregnancy outcomes. - This combination has been shown to **increase live birth rates** from approximately 40% (untreated) to **70-80%** in women with APS. *Aspirin alone* - While aspirin is part of the treatment regimen, **aspirin monotherapy is insufficient** for preventing recurrent pregnancy loss in patients with established APS. - Randomized controlled trials have demonstrated that adding heparin to aspirin **significantly improves live birth rates** compared to aspirin alone. *Aspirin, Low molecular weight Heparin, and Prednisolone* - **Corticosteroids (prednisolone)** are **not recommended** as routine treatment for recurrent pregnancy loss in APS patients due to potential maternal complications (gestational diabetes, hypertension, infection) and fetal risks. - Corticosteroids might be considered only in specific cases with coexisting autoimmune conditions (e.g., SLE), but they are **not first-line therapy** for APS-related pregnancy loss. *No treatment required* - **Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)** is a significant cause of recurrent pregnancy loss due to placental thrombosis and impaired placental function. - **Untreated APS** carries a **high risk** (>70%) of pregnancy loss, along with increased risks of fetal growth restriction, preeclampsia, and preterm delivery, making treatment **essential** for a successful pregnancy outcome.

Question 10: Which of the following treatments is used for vulvar atrophy and itching?

A. Estrogen ointment (Correct Answer)
B. Antihistamines
C. Tamoxifen
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Estrogen ointment*** * **Estrogen ointment** is the primary treatment for vulvar atrophy and itching because it directly addresses the underlying cause of these symptoms, which is the decline in estrogen levels after **menopause**. * By restoring estrogen to the vulvar tissues, it helps to **thicken the epithelium**, improve blood flow, and increase lubrication, thereby alleviating dryness, itching, and discomfort. *Antihistamines* * **Antihistamines** are used to treat allergic reactions and reduce itching associated with conditions like hives or insect bites, but they do not address the hormonal deficiency causing vulvar atrophy. * While they might temporarily relieve some itching, they do not treat the underlying **tissue thinning** and dryness characteristic of vulvar atrophy. *Tamoxifen* * **Tamoxifen** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) primarily used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, as it blocks estrogen's effects in breast tissue. * However, in vulvovaginal tissues, **tamoxifen can actually worsen atrophy and dryness** due to its anti-estrogenic effects, making it an inappropriate treatment for vulvar atrophy. *None of the options* * This option is incorrect because **estrogen ointment** is a well-established and effective treatment specifically designed to address vulvar atrophy and associated itching, by restoring estrogen levels to the affected tissues.