INI-CET 2023 Practice Questions

Q: What is/are the characterstics of Iron defficiency Anemaia(IDA)?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - **Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)** characteristically presents with a combination of these markers due to a true depletion of the body's iron stores [2]. - A comprehensive evaluation of iron studies, including **TIBC**, **ferritin**, **serum iron**, and **transferrin saturation**, is essential for an accurate diagnosis of IDA [3]. *Increased TIBC* - **Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)** is typically **elevated in IDA** as the body attempts to maximize iron absorption and transport by increasing the production of transferrin [1]. - Transferrin, the primary iron-binding protein, is less saturated with iron, leading to an **increased capacity to bind more iron**. *Low serum ferritin* - **Serum ferritin** is a direct measure of **iron storage** in the body and is considered the most sensitive and specific marker for iron deficiency. - In IDA, **ferritin levels are markedly decreased**, indicating depleted iron reserves. *Low serum iron* - **Serum iron** measures the amount of iron circulating in the blood, primarily bound to transferrin [4]. - In IDA, the **absolute amount of circulating iron is reduced** due to insufficient iron supply [1]. *Low transferrin saturation* - **Transferrin saturation** represents the percentage of transferrin binding sites occupied by iron. - In IDA, due to **low serum iron** and **high transferrin (indicated by increased TIBC)**, the transferrin saturation is significantly reduced.

Q: What is the correct statement about thymoma?

Thymoma is the most common neoplasia of the thymus.. ***Thymoma is the most common neoplasia of the thymus.*** [1] - **Thymoma** is the most common primary tumor of the thymus, accounting for approximately **40-50% of anterior mediastinal masses** in adults. - It is a slow-growing tumor originating from the **epithelial cells** of the thymus [1]. *Chest X-ray is the investigation of choice for the diagnosis of thymoma.* - While a **chest X-ray** may show a widened mediastinum or an anterior mediastinal mass, it is not the investigation of choice for definitive diagnosis or staging [2]. - **CT scan** of the chest with contrast is the preferred imaging modality for evaluating thymomas, providing better anatomical detail and assessing invasiveness [2]. *Thymoma is typically asymptomatic and rarely causes any symptoms.* - Approximately **30-50% of patients with thymoma are asymptomatic** at diagnosis, with the tumor discovered incidentally on imaging [2]. - However, the remaining **50-70% of patients present with symptoms** related to **mass effect** (e.g., chest pain, dyspnea, cough) or **paraneoplastic syndromes** like myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, or hypogammaglobulinemia [2]. - Therefore, it is incorrect to say thymoma "rarely" causes symptoms. *Thymoma is primarily located in the posterior mediastinum.* - **Thymoma** is characteristically located in the **anterior mediastinum**, which is the most common site for thymic tissue. - Tumors primarily found in the posterior mediastinum are more commonly **neurogenic tumors**. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 571-574. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 572-574.

Q: Which of the following conditions is associated with perineural invasion?

Adenoid cystic carcinoma. ***Adenoid cystic carcinoma*** - **Adenoid cystic carcinoma** is the **most notoriously characterized** by its strong propensity for **perineural invasion**, which contributes to its high recurrence rate and poor prognosis [1]. - This invasion allows the tumor cells to spread along nerve sheaths, extending beyond the visible tumor margins, often for considerable distances. - It is the **classic example** of perineural invasion among salivary gland tumors [1]. *Mucoepidermoid tumor* - While mucoepidermoid tumors can be locally aggressive, **perineural invasion** is not a characteristic feature that defines this tumor type. - They are more commonly associated with cystic degeneration and mucin production. *Pancreatic cancer* - **Pancreatic adenocarcinoma** does show **significant perineural invasion** (present in 70-90% of cases) and is an important feature contributing to its poor prognosis and pain symptoms. - However, in the context of this question, **adenoid cystic carcinoma** is considered the **most characteristic** or **prototypical** example of perineural invasion, particularly among head and neck neoplasms. - Both are associated with perineural invasion, but adenoid cystic carcinoma is the textbook example. *Pleomorphic adenoma* - A **pleomorphic adenoma** is a benign mixed tumor of the salivary glands and usually does not exhibit **perineural invasion** [2]. - Malignant transformation into a carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma can occur, but the benign form primarily grows as an encapsulated mass [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Head and Neck, pp. 753-755. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Head and Neck, pp. 751-753.

Q: Which of the following is considered a minor clinical finding suggestive of congenital heart disease?

Abnormal 2nd heart sound. ***Abnormal 2nd heart sound*** - An abnormal (loud, soft, split, or single) **second heart sound (S2)** is a minor clinical finding that can suggest congenital heart disease (CHD). - This reflects abnormalities in the **pulmonary** or **aortic valve closure**, common in various CHDs. *Low BP* - **Low blood pressure** is a general sign of circulatory compromise and is not a specific or minor clinical finding for congenital heart disease itself. - It might indicate severe heart failure or shock, which are major, late-stage complications of CHD, rather than an early suggestive sign. *Systolic murmur grade-3* - A **systolic murmur of grade 3 or higher** is generally considered a **major clinical finding** and often indicates significant structural heart disease. - Minor findings are typically less intense or specific signs that still warrant further investigation. *Diastolic murmur* - The presence of **any diastolic murmur** is considered a **major clinical finding** that is highly suggestive of significant heart disease, as it often implies structural valve abnormalities or abnormal blood flow during diastole. - This is not a "minor" finding as it virtually always indicates pathology.

Q: A kid went to a temple with his grandmother and was constantly crying. On examination he had excruciating pain, hypertension, increased heart rate, sweating profusely, priapism and cold clammy skin. What should be the treatment given to the patient?

Phentolamine. ***Phentolamine*** - The symptoms described (hypertension, tachycardia, sweating, priapism, cold clammy skin) are indicative of an **alpha-adrenergic crisis** or **pheochromocytoma crisis**, which results from excessive release of catecholamines (e.g., norepinephrine) [1]. - **Phentolamine** is a **non-selective alpha-adrenergic antagonist** that effectively blocks the effects of excessive catecholamines, thereby reducing blood pressure and heart rate and relieving other alpha-mediated symptoms like priapism [1]. *Atropine* - **Atropine** is an **anticholinergic drug** used to treat **bradycardia** or **organophosphate poisoning**. - It would worsen the patient's condition by potentially increasing heart rate further and would not address the underlying alpha-adrenergic overstimulation. *Pralidoxime* - **Pralidoxime** is an **acetylcholinesterase reactivator** used specifically for **organophosphate poisoning**. - It works by restoring the function of acetylcholinesterase, which is inhibited by organophosphates, and is not indicated for an adrenergic crisis. *Naloxone* - **Naloxone** is an **opioid receptor antagonist** used to reverse the effects of **opioid overdose**. - This patient's symptoms are not consistent with opioid toxicity, and naloxone would have no therapeutic benefit.

Q: Absence or mutation of SRY gene results in ?

Gonadal dysgenesis. ***Gonadal dysgenesis*** - The **SRY gene** (Sex-determining region Y gene) is critical for initiating **male sexual differentiation**; its presence leads to testicular development. - Absence or mutation of the SRY gene prevents proper testicular development, leading to **gonadal dysgenesis**, where the gonads are either absent or rudimentary, often resulting in a **female phenotype** despite a XY genotype. *Hydrocele testis* - This condition involves an accumulation of fluid around the testis, which is typically due to a **patent tunica vaginalis** or fluid imbalance. - It does not directly result from a genetic mutation in the SRY gene affecting initial **gonadal development**. *Undescended testis* - This condition (cryptorchidism) refers to the failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum. - While it can have genetic components, it is not a direct consequence of an SRY gene absence or mutation, which primarily affects the **formation of the gonad itself**. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **gonadal dysgenesis** is a direct and well-established consequence of SRY gene absence or mutation. - The SRY gene's primary role is to trigger the development of the testis, and its dysfunction leads to profound abnormalities in **gonadal formation**.

Q: After laparoscopic cholecystectomy what should be the urine output of the patient if the renal function of the patient is normal?

0.5-1 ml/kg/hr. ***0.5-1 ml/kg/hr*** - The standard acceptable urine output for a postoperative patient with normal renal function is **0.5-1 ml/kg/hr** (some sources extend this to 0.5-1.5 ml/kg/hr). - A minimum of **0.5 ml/kg/hr** is considered adequate renal perfusion and function, while outputs up to 1-1.5 ml/kg/hr indicate excellent hydration and renal function. - This weight-adjusted measure is the gold standard for assessing postoperative urine output and renal function. *0.5 ml/min* - This is an absolute rate (not weight-adjusted) and is inadequate as a general measure. - For a 70 kg patient, this would be only 0.43 ml/kg/hr, which is below the minimum acceptable threshold. *0.1 CC/hr* - This rate is **severely low** and indicates **oliguria** or **anuria**. - This suggests **acute kidney injury**, severe dehydration, or inadequate renal perfusion requiring immediate intervention. *1 ml/kg/hr* - While this value falls within the acceptable range, it represents only a single point rather than the **standard range of 0.5-1 ml/kg/hr**. - The range option is more comprehensive and represents the full spectrum of normal postoperative urine output.

Q: What is the baseline platelet count required for surgery?

50,000/µL (50 × 10^9/L). ***50,000/µL (50 × 10^9/L)*** - A platelet count of **50,000/µL** is considered the **minimum threshold** for safe surgical procedures. - This level is generally sufficient to achieve **adequate primary hemostasis** and minimize the risk of significant perioperative bleeding. *20,000/µL (20 × 10^9/L)* - A platelet count of **20,000/µL** is generally **too low** for most surgical interventions, as it significantly increases the risk of serious bleeding. - This level is often associated with a risk of **spontaneous bleeding**, particularly in mucous membranes. *40,000/µL (40 × 10^9/L)* - While closer to the safe threshold, a platelet count of **40,000/µL** might still be considered **suboptimal** for major surgeries, especially those with a high risk of blood loss. - Some surgeons and anesthesiologists may prefer a slightly higher count to ensure a wider **safety margin**. *30,000/µL (30 × 10^9/L)* - A platelet count of **30,000/µL** is generally **insufficient** for most surgical procedures and would likely necessitate **platelet transfusion** preoperatively. - Patients at this level are at an **increased risk of bleeding** during and after surgery.

Question 1

What is the correct sequence of the auditory pathway?

Accepted Answer

Cochlea → Spiral Ganglion → Cochlear Nerve → Superior Olivary N

Answer

Spiral Ganglion → Cochlea → Cochlear Nerve → Superior Olivary N

Answer

Spiral Ganglion → Cochlear Nerve → Cochlea → Superior Olivary N

Answer

Cochlear Nerve → Spiral Ganglion → Cochlea → Superior Olivary N

Question 2

What is/are the characterstics of Iron defficiency Anemaia(IDA)?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Increased TIBC

Answer

Low serum ferritin

Answer

Low serum iron

Answer

Low transferrin saturation

Question 3

Patient presented with following features:

- ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in the face
- Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in the body
- Horner's syndrome
- Dysphagia and hoarseness
- Ataxia and vertigo

Which artery is involved in syndrome based on above clinical features?

Accepted Answer

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Answer

Basilar artery.

Answer

Superior cerebellar artery

Answer

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

Question 4

What is the correct statement about thymoma?

Accepted Answer

Thymoma is the most common neoplasia of the thymus.

Answer

Chest X-ray is the investigation of choice for the diagnosis of thymoma.

Answer

Thymoma is primarily located in the posterior mediastinum.

Answer

Thymoma is usually asymptomatic and only occasionally causes symptoms.

Question 5

Which of the following conditions is associated with perineural invasion?

Accepted Answer

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Answer

Mucoepidermoid tumor

Answer

Pancreatic cancer

Answer

Pleomorphic adenoma

Question 6

Which of the following is considered a minor clinical finding suggestive of congenital heart disease?

Accepted Answer

Abnormal 2nd heart sound

Answer

Low BP

Answer

Systolic murmur grade-3

Answer

Diastolic murmur

Question 7

A kid went to a temple with his grandmother and was constantly crying. On examination he had excruciating pain, hypertension, increased heart rate, sweating profusely, priapism and cold clammy skin. What should be the treatment given to the patient?

Accepted Answer

Phentolamine

Answer

Atropine

Answer

Pralidoxime

Answer

Naloxone

Question 8

Absence or mutation of SRY gene results in ?

Accepted Answer

Gonadal dysgenesis

Answer

Hydrocele testis

Answer

Undescended testis

Answer

None of the options

Question 9

After laparoscopic cholecystectomy what should be the urine output of the patient if the renal function of the patient is normal?

Accepted Answer

0.5-1 ml/kg/hr

Answer

0.5 ml/min

Answer

0.1 CC/hr

Answer

1 ml/kg/hr

Question 10

What is the baseline platelet count required for surgery?

Accepted Answer

50,000/µL (50 × 10^9/L)

Answer

40,000/µL (40 × 10^9/L)

Answer

20,000/µL (20 × 10^9/L)

Answer

30,000/µL (30 × 10^9/L)

INI-CET 2023

Anatomy

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Physiology

Surgery