INI-CET 2022 — Pharmacology
17 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Match the following drugs in Column A with their contraindications in Column B. | Column A | Column B | | :-- | :-- | | 1. Morphine | 1. QT prolongation | | 2. Amiodarone | 2. Thromboembolism | | 3. Vigabatrin | 3. Pregnancy | | 4. Estrogen preparations | 4. Head injury |
Which among the following is the false statement regarding statins?
Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia: 1. D2 antagonism: Reduces positive symptoms 2. 5HT2A antagonism: Reduces negative symptoms 3. 5HT1A agonism: Weight loss 4. Muscarinic antagonism: Reduces extrapyramidal symptoms
A patient who is on treatment for hyperlipidemia develops gallstones. What is the mechanism of action of the causative drug that was given to this patient?
Choose the correct options regarding the route of administration and bioavailability. A- Intravenous =1 B- 0.75< Oral <1 C-0.75 <IM ≤ 1 D- 0.75<SC ≤ 1 IM - Intramuscular SC- Subcutaneous
Which of the following is the most effective oral drug for smoking cessation?
Which of the following drugs is not used for the emergency (immediate) management of hyperkalaemia?
Which among the following drugs is the new FDA approved immune checkpoint inhibitor for endometrial carcinoma?
Identify the correct match, regarding the drug and its adverse effect.
A lady who had undergone mastectomy for breast cancer is being treated with tamoxifen. How long should it be stopped before she can conceive?
INI-CET 2022 - Pharmacology INI-CET Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Match the following drugs in Column A with their contraindications in Column B. | Column A | Column B | | :-- | :-- | | 1. Morphine | 1. QT prolongation | | 2. Amiodarone | 2. Thromboembolism | | 3. Vigabatrin | 3. Pregnancy | | 4. Estrogen preparations | 4. Head injury |
- A. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
- B. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (Correct Answer)
- C. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
- D. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Explanation: ***A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2*** - **Morphine** is contraindicated in **head injury** as it can increase intracranial pressure and mask neurological symptoms. - **Amiodarone** is contraindicated in patients with **QT prolongation** due to its risk of inducing more severe arrhythmias like Torsades de Pointes. - **Vigabatrin** is contraindicated during **pregnancy** due to its potential for teratogenicity and adverse effects on fetal development. - **Estrogen preparations** are contraindicated in patients with a history of **thromboembolism** due to their increased risk of blood clot formation. *A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4* - This option incorrectly matches **Morphine** with QT prolongation and **Estrogen preparations** with head injury, which are not their primary contraindications. - It also incorrectly links **Vigabatrin** with thromboembolism and **Amiodarone** with pregnancy. *A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1* - This choice incorrectly associates **Morphine** with pregnancy and **Vigabatrin** with head injury, which are not the most critical or direct contraindications. - It also misaligns **Amiodarone** with thromboembolism and **Estrogen preparations** with QT prolongation. *A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3* - This option incorrectly matches **Morphine** with thromboembolism and **Amiodarone** with head injury, which are not their most significant contraindications. - It also incorrectly links **Vigabatrin** with QT prolongation and **Estrogen preparations** with pregnancy.
Question 2: Which among the following is the false statement regarding statins?
- A. These drugs should not be stopped even in severe conditions like injury, surgery etc.
- B. Although HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors substantially reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, there is mild increase in lipoprotein a (Lpa) levels.
- C. With the long term use, there is slight increase in the incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
- D. They can be given with verapamil and other enzyme inhibitors (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***They can be given with verapamil and other enzyme inhibitors*** - This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer because **verapamil** (a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor) and other potent CYP3A4 inhibitors like **clarithromycin** or **azole antifungals** can significantly increase statin concentrations, raising the risk of adverse effects like **myopathy** and **rhabdomyolysis**. - **Co-administration** of statins with these inhibitors generally requires careful dose adjustments or avoidance, as they increase the systemic exposure to most statins (especially **simvastatin**, **atorvastatin**, and **lovastatin**). *These drugs should not be stopped even in severe conditions like injury, surgery etc.* - This statement could be considered false in certain contexts, as statins **can be temporarily held** in acute, severe conditions like sepsis, major trauma, or complex surgery, especially if there's a concern for **acute kidney injury** or **rhabdomyolysis** [1]. - However, in most routine surgical situations, statins are typically continued due to their cardiovascular protective effects. *Although HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors substantially reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, there is mild increase in lipoprotein a (Lpa) levels.* - This statement is **TRUE**. Statins are associated with a **modest increase in Lp(a) levels** (approximately 10-20%), which has been consistently demonstrated in clinical studies [2]. - While statins effectively lower **LDL cholesterol**, Lp(a) levels are largely **genetically determined** and may paradoxically increase with statin therapy, though this effect is generally considered clinically insignificant compared to the overall cardiovascular benefits [2]. *With the long term use, there is slight increase in the incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus.* - This statement is **TRUE**. Long-term statin use is associated with a **small but statistically significant increase** in the risk of developing **type 2 diabetes mellitus** (approximately 9-12% increased risk), particularly in individuals with pre-existing risk factors like **metabolic syndrome**. - This risk, however, is generally **outweighed by the cardiovascular benefits** of statin therapy in at-risk patients, making it an acceptable trade-off.
Question 3: Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia: 1. D2 antagonism: Reduces positive symptoms 2. 5HT2A antagonism: Reduces negative symptoms 3. 5HT1A agonism: Weight loss 4. Muscarinic antagonism: Reduces extrapyramidal symptoms
- A. 1,4
- B. 1,2,4
- C. 1,2,3,4
- D. 1,2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1,2*** - **D2 antagonism** is the primary mechanism by which antipsychotics reduce **positive symptoms** of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. - **5HT2A antagonism** is a key mechanism of atypical antipsychotics contributing to the reduction of **negative symptoms** (e.g., apathy, anhedonia, flat affect) and cognitive deficits, while also reducing the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms. *1,2,3,4* - This option is incorrect because **5HT1A agonism** is not associated with **weight loss**. While 5HT1A partial agonism (as seen with aripiprazole and brexpiprazole) may improve negative symptoms, anxiety, and cognitive function, it does not directly cause weight loss. - Additionally, **muscarinic antagonism** does not reduce extrapyramidal symptoms as a primary mechanism. Rather, anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) drugs like benztropine are used to **treat** EPS after it occurs. The reduction of EPS in atypical antipsychotics primarily comes from 5HT2A antagonism and lower D2 binding affinity. *1,2,4* - This option is incorrect because **muscarinic antagonism** is not a mechanism that reduces EPS. Anticholinergic agents are used therapeutically to counteract EPS caused by dopamine blockade, but anticholinergic effects themselves do not prevent or reduce EPS. - The reduction of EPS with atypical antipsychotics is mainly due to **5HT2A antagonism** balancing dopaminergic blockade, selective limbic over striatal binding, and fast D2 dissociation kinetics. *1,4* - This option is incorrect because it omits **5HT2A antagonism**, which is crucial for reducing **negative symptoms** in schizophrenia. - It also incorrectly includes muscarinic antagonism as a mechanism that reduces EPS, when in reality anticholinergics are used to treat EPS rather than prevent it.
Question 4: A patient who is on treatment for hyperlipidemia develops gallstones. What is the mechanism of action of the causative drug that was given to this patient?
- A. Binds to deoxycholic acid
- B. Decreases VLDL
- C. Activates PPAR alpha (Correct Answer)
- D. Inhibits HMG CoA reductase
Explanation: ***Activates PPAR alpha*** * Activation of **PPAR alpha (Peroxisome Proliferator-Activated Receptor alpha)** by fibrates can lead to increased cholesterol secretion into bile [1]. * This increased biliary cholesterol saturation predisposes patients to **cholesterol gallstone** formation. *Decreases VLDL* * While fibrates do decrease **VLDL (Very Low-Density Lipoprotein)** production, this specific action is not the primary mechanism by which they cause gallstones [1]. * The reduction in VLDL is beneficial for triglyceride lowering, but the gallstone risk relates to cholesterol metabolism. *Binds to deoxycholic acid* * This mechanism is characteristic of **bile acid sequestrants** like cholestyramine, which bind to bile acids in the gut to prevent their reabsorption. * Bile acid sequestrants are not typically associated with an increased risk of gallstones; in fact, they can sometimes be used to reduce gallstones in specific contexts. *Inhibits HMG CoA reductase* * This is the mechanism of action for **statins**, which are highly effective in lowering LDL cholesterol by inhibiting the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis [2]. * Statins are not generally associated with an increased risk of gallstones; some studies even suggest a potential protective effect [3].
Question 5: Choose the correct options regarding the route of administration and bioavailability. A- Intravenous =1 B- 0.75< Oral <1 C-0.75 <IM ≤ 1 D- 0.75<SC ≤ 1 IM - Intramuscular SC- Subcutaneous
- A. A and D
- B. A and C
- C. A, C, D (Correct Answer)
- D. A, B, D
Explanation: ***A, C, D*** - Intravenous (IV) administration has **100% bioavailability** because the drug enters the systemic circulation directly, bypassing any absorption barriers. - Intramuscular (IM) and subcutaneous (SC) routes generally have **high bioavailability**, often between 75% and 100%, as drugs are absorbed directly into the bloodstream without first-pass metabolism. *A and D* - While options A and D are correct, this choice is incomplete as option C is also a correct statement regarding bioavailability. - IM administration typically results in high systemic bioavailability, similar to SC, making its exclusion here incorrect. *A and C* - While options A and C are correct, this choice is incomplete as option D is also a correct statement regarding bioavailability. - Subcutaneous administration also generally results in high bioavailability, as absorption tends to be complete. *A, B, D* - While options A and D are correct, option B is typically incorrect for oral bioavailability. - Oral bioavailability of many drugs is often less than 0.75 (75%) due to factors like **first-pass metabolism** and incomplete absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.
Question 6: Which of the following is the most effective oral drug for smoking cessation?
- A. Varenicline (Correct Answer)
- B. Bupropion
- C. Nortriptyline
- D. Nicotine gum
Explanation: ***Varenicline*** - **Varenicline** is a partial agonist at **α4β2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors**, reducing the reward from smoking and alleviating withdrawal symptoms. - Clinical trials consistently demonstrate its superior efficacy compared to **bupropion** and **nicotine replacement therapy** in achieving long-term abstinence. - It is the **most effective FDA-approved oral medication** for smoking cessation with quit rates approximately 2-3 times higher than placebo. *Bupropion* - **Bupropion** is an antidepressant that acts as a **norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor**, which can reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms. - While effective, its efficacy is generally considered to be lower than that of **varenicline** for smoking cessation. - It is considered a **first-line alternative** for patients who cannot tolerate varenicline. *Nicotine gum* - **Nicotine gum** is an oral form of nicotine replacement therapy that delivers nicotine without the harmful chemicals of tobacco, helping to manage withdrawal symptoms. - It is effective but less successful than **varenicline** when used as monotherapy, though combination NRT approaches can improve outcomes. - Available in 2 mg and 4 mg strengths, with dosing based on smoking history. *Nortriptyline* - **Nortriptyline** is a tricyclic antidepressant that has shown some efficacy in reducing nicotine withdrawal symptoms, but its use is limited by its side effect profile. - It is considered a **second-line agent** for smoking cessation due to its lower efficacy and greater potential for adverse effects (anticholinergic, cardiac) compared to first-line options like **varenicline** and **bupropion**.
Question 7: Which of the following drugs is not used for the emergency (immediate) management of hyperkalaemia?
- A. 10% calcium gluconate over 10 min
- B. Insulin-dextrose
- C. Injection MgSO4 (Correct Answer)
- D. Salbutamol nebulisation
Explanation: ***Injection MgSO4*** - Magnesium sulfate is not a direct treatment for hyperkalaemia; its primary use is for conditions like **eclampsia**, **asthma exacerbations**, or **torsades de pointes**. - It does not directly affect potassium levels or cardiac membrane stability in the context of hyperkalaemia. *10% calcium gluconate over 10 min* - **Calcium gluconate** is used for immediate cardioprotection in hyperkalaemia by stabilizing the **cardiac membrane**, thereby reducing the risk of arrhythmias. - It does not lower serum potassium levels but mitigates the dangerous cardiac effects. *Insulin-dextrose* - This combination is an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia as **insulin** drives potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space. - **Dextrose** is administered concurrently to prevent hypoglycaemia induced by insulin. *Salbutamol nebulisation* - **Beta-2 agonists** like salbutamol promote the uptake of potassium into cells, thus lowering serum potassium levels. - While effective, its action is generally less rapid and potent than insulin-dextrose or calcium gluconate in severe cases.
Question 8: Which among the following drugs is the new FDA approved immune checkpoint inhibitor for endometrial carcinoma?
- A. Ipilimumab
- B. Pembrolizumab (Correct Answer)
- C. Trastuzumab
- D. Nivolumab
Explanation: **Pembrolizumab** * **Pembrolizumab** (Keytruda), a **PD-1 inhibitor**, received accelerated FDA approval for patients with **advanced endometrial carcinoma** that is mismatch repair deficient (dMMR) or microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H), and has progressed following prior systemic therapy or is not a candidate for curative surgery or radiation. * This approval was based on data from the KEYNOTE-158 study, demonstrating **durable responses** in these specific subsets of endometrial cancer, highlighting its role in precision oncology. *Ipilimumab* * **Ipilimumab** (Yervoy) is a **CTLA-4 inhibitor** primarily approved for the treatment of **melanoma** and renal cell carcinoma, often in combination with nivolumab. * While it is an immune checkpoint inhibitor, its primary indications and specific FDA approvals do not include **endometrial carcinoma**. *Trastuzumab* * **Trastuzumab** (Herceptin) is a **monoclonal antibody** that targets the **HER2 protein**, commonly used in the treatment of **HER2-positive breast cancer** and certain types of gastric cancer. * It is not an immune checkpoint inhibitor and its mechanism of action is distinct from blocking immune checkpoints like PD-1 or CTLA-4. *Nivolumab* * **Nivolumab** (Opdivo) is a **PD-1 inhibitor** with broad FDA approvals for various cancers, including melanoma, non-small cell lung cancer, renal cell carcinoma, classical Hodgkin lymphoma, and others. * While a potent immune checkpoint inhibitor, **pembrolizumab** received the specific accelerated approval for advanced endometrial carcinoma in the context described, making it the most direct answer for the "new FDA approved" status in this specific indication.
Question 9: Identify the correct match, regarding the drug and its adverse effect.
- A. Aliskiren - hypokalemia
- B. Hydralazine - heart failure
- C. Atenolol - hemolytic anemia
- D. Verapamil - constipation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Verapamil - Constipation*** - **Verapamil**, a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, frequently causes constipation due to its effect on smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to **decreased intestinal motility**. - This adverse effect is common and often dose-dependent, making it a significant consideration in patient management. *Aliskiren - hypokalemia* - **Aliskiren**, a **direct renin inhibitor**, can cause **hyperkalemia** by reducing angiotensin II levels, which normally stimulate aldosterone secretion. - It does not typically cause hypokalemia; rather, potassium-sparing effects are often observed. *Hydralazine - heart failure* - **Hydralazine** is a **vasodilator** used to treat hypertension and **heart failure** with reduced ejection fraction by reducing afterload. - It does not cause heart failure; instead, it is often prescribed to improve cardiac function in patients with heart failure. *Atenolol - hemolytic anemia* - **Atenolol** is a **beta-blocker** primarily used for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. - **Hemolytic anemia** is a rare adverse effect associated with certain drugs, but it is not a known or common side effect of atenolol.
Question 10: A lady who had undergone mastectomy for breast cancer is being treated with tamoxifen. How long should it be stopped before she can conceive?
- A. No need to stop
- B. 3 months (Correct Answer)
- C. Can be stopped and conceived soon after stopping
- D. 1 month
Explanation: ***3 months*** - Tamoxifen has a long half-life, and it can remain in the body for up to several weeks after the last dose. A washout period of **at least 3 months** is recommended to minimize exposure of a developing fetus to the drug. - Exposure to tamoxifen during pregnancy is associated with potential risks such as **birth defects** and impaired fetal development due to its anti-estrogenic effects disrupting hormonal balance. *No need to stop* - This is incorrect because tamoxifen is **teratogenic**, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. - Continuing tamoxifen during pregnancy would expose the fetus to serious risks, necessitating a planned discontinuation before conception. *Can be stopped and conceived soon after stopping* - This is incorrect because tamoxifen has a relatively **long half-life**, meaning it takes time for the drug to be completely eliminated from the body. - A washout period is necessary to ensure the drug levels are low enough to prevent fetal exposure and potential harm. *1 month* - A 1-month washout period is generally considered **insufficient** given tamoxifen's pharmacokinetic profile. - This shorter period does not adequately account for the drug's long half-life, increasing the risk of fetal exposure and potential complications.