INI-CET 2022 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following regarding the vaccine vial monitor (VVM) is true? 1. It is used for monitoring heat exposure of the vaccine by healthcare workers in primary healthcare. 2. It shows cumulative exposure of the vaccine to the heat. 3. It can be used to assess the potential efficacy of the vaccine 4. Calculation of the expiry date can be done using VVM. 5. The expiry date of the vaccine can be relaxed if VVM is an acceptable range. 6. If the square and the circle are the same in color, then the vaccine can be safely used.

1,2. ***Correct: Statements 1, 2*** **Statement 1 - TRUE**: The VVM is primarily designed for **healthcare workers** to monitor vaccine heat exposure at all levels, including primary healthcare settings. This is a key WHO tool for cold chain monitoring. **Statement 2 - TRUE**: VVMs provide a **cumulative record** of time and temperature exposure, reflecting the total heat stress a vaccine has experienced throughout its journey from manufacturer to administration. *Statement 3 - FALSE* - While VVMs assess heat exposure that affects vaccine stability, they do **not directly measure vaccine efficacy** or provide quantitative measures of immune response potential. - Heat damage indicated by VVM indirectly suggests reduced potency, but the VVM itself cannot assess efficacy. *Statement 4 - FALSE* - VVMs are **not used to calculate expiry dates**. Manufacturing expiry dates are determined through stability studies under controlled conditions by the manufacturer. *Statement 5 - FALSE* - The **expiry date cannot be relaxed or extended** based on VVM status. The manufacturer's stated expiry date must always be respected regardless of how favorable the VVM reading is. *Statement 6 - FALSE* - This is the **opposite** of how VVM works. If the **inner square is the same color or darker than the outer circle**, the vaccine has been exposed to excessive heat and **should NOT be used**. - The vaccine is safe when the inner square is lighter than the outer circle.

Q: Abdominal TB can occur through all of the following EXCEPT

Direct contact with infected animal. ***Direct contact with infected animal*** - While animal products like **unpasteurized milk** can transmit *Mycobacterium bovis* to humans, direct contact with an infected animal is not a primary mode of transmission for **abdominal TB**. - **Abdominal TB** is usually caused by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* which is primarily a human pathogen, not typically transmitted through direct contact with animals. *Direct spread from mesenteric lymph nodes* - **Mesenteric lymph nodes** are often involved in abdominal TB, and the infection can directly spread from these nodes to adjacent abdominal organs. - This is a common mechanism for localized propagation within the abdominal cavity. *Feco - oral route* - The **ingestion of contaminated food or milk** (from infected cattle) containing *Mycobacterium bovis* or swallowing of **infected sputum** (from pulmonary TB) containing *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* are common ways the bacteria can reach the gastrointestinal tract. - This leads to primary intestinal infection or reactivation of previously ingested bacteria. *Hematogenous spread* - **Hematogenous dissemination** from a primary pulmonary or other mycobacterial focus is a significant mode of transmission for abdominal TB. - Bacteria can travel through the bloodstream and seed distant abdominal organs, including the **peritoneum**, **intestines**, or **mesenteric lymph nodes**.

Q: On Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) staining oocysts of size 8-10 µm are visible. Identify the organism.

Cyclospora. ***Cyclospora*** - *Cyclospora cayetanensis* oocysts are **spherical** and measure **8-10 µm** in diameter, exactly matching the size described in the question. - They are **partially acid-fast** on ZN staining and may show **internal structures** or appear **wrinkled**, making them visible under microscopic examination. *Microsporidium* - *Microsporidium* are extremely small (**1-4 µm**) **intracellular obligate parasites**, much smaller than the 8-10 µm oocysts described. - They require **special staining methods** and are not typically visible with standard ZN staining due to their minute size. *Cryptosporidium* - *Cryptosporidium parvum* oocysts are **spherical** and measure **4-6 µm** in diameter, which is smaller than the 8-10 µm described. - While they are **acid-fast** on ZN staining, their smaller size distinguishes them from the oocysts in question. *Isospora belli* - *Isospora belli* oocysts are **elongated or oval** and measure **20-30 µm** in length, making them significantly larger than the 8-10 µm oocysts described. - Although they are **acid-fast** and visible on ZN staining, their larger size and oval morphology do not match the question parameters.

Q: All of the following can be used in first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy (MTP), except

Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate. ***Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate*** - **Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate** is a method primarily used for **second-trimester** pregnancy terminations. - Its mechanism involves causing inflammation and contraction of the uterus, which is less effective and carries higher risks in the first trimester. *Manual vacuum aspiration* - **Manual vacuum aspiration (MVA)** is a common and effective surgical method for **first-trimester MTP**. - It involves using a syringe and cannula to remove the uterine contents directly. *Dilatation and curettage* - **Dilatation and curettage (D&C)** is another standard surgical procedure used for **first-trimester MTP**. - It involves dilating the cervix and using a curette to scrape the uterine lining and remove the pregnancy tissue. *Mifepristone + misoprostol* - The combination of **mifepristone and misoprostol** is the most common and effective medical method for **first-trimester MTP**. - **Mifepristone** blocks progesterone, while **misoprostol** causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening, expelling the pregnancy.

Q: A woman with eclampsia is started on magnesium sulfate. What is the first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity?

Loss of knee jerk. ***Loss of knee jerk*** - **Diminished or absent deep tendon reflexes**, particularly the knee jerk, is the **earliest clinical sign** of magnesium sulfate toxicity. - This occurs at serum magnesium levels between **7-10 mEq/L** (8.5-12 mg/dL) due to magnesium's depressant effect on the nervous system and neuromuscular transmission. *Respiratory depression* - **Respiratory depression** is a more severe and later sign of magnesium toxicity, occurring at higher serum levels (typically >12 mEq/L). - It indicates significant central nervous system depression and potential for respiratory arrest, usually after reflexes are already lost. *Hypotension* - While magnesium sulfate can cause **vasodilation** and a subsequent drop in blood pressure, it is generally **not the first sign of toxicity** and often occurs concurrently with other mild to moderate signs. - Hypotension may be part of the therapeutic effect to reduce blood pressure in eclampsia, rather than an initial indicator of toxicity. *Reduced muscle tone* - **Reduced muscle tone** or **flaccidity** is also a consequence of magnesium's neuromuscular blocking effect but typically manifests **after the loss of deep tendon reflexes**. - It signifies more profound neuromuscular impairment, closer to the progression towards respiratory depression.

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of keratoconus?

Haab's striae. ***Haab's striae*** - **Haab's striae** are characteristic of congenital glaucoma, presenting as horizontal breaks in Descemet's membrane due to increased intraocular pressure and corneal stretching. - In contrast, keratoconus involves **vertical breaks in Descemet's membrane** (due to corneal thinning and protrusion), known as Vautin's striae or Vogt's striae, not Haab's striae. *Irregular astigmatism* - **Irregular astigmatism** is a hallmark of keratoconus, resulting from the asymmetric and non-uniform thinning and protrusion of the cornea. - This irregular corneal shape leads to a significant reduction in visual acuity that cannot be fully corrected with spherical or regular cylindrical lenses. *Scissoring reflex* - The **scissoring reflex** (or scissoring phenomena) is an objective finding observed during retinoscopy in patients with keratoconus, indicating significant irregular astigmatism. - It refers to the opposing movements of the retinoscopic reflex, resembling the opening and closing of scissors, as the light across the pupil is neutralized. *Munson's sign* - **Munson's sign** is a classic clinical finding in advanced keratoconus, where the lower eyelid protrudes in a V-shape when the patient looks downwards. - This protrusion is caused by the conical shape of the cornea pushing against the eyelid.

Q: Match the following drugs with the targets of their actions: Drugs: A. Trastuzumab B. Infliximab C. Sirolimus D. Imatinib Targets: 1. BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase 2. mTOR 3. TNF alpha 4. HER2/neu

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1. ***Correct Answer: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1*** - **Trastuzumab** (Herceptin) is a **monoclonal antibody** that targets the **HER2/neu receptor (4)** [1], [2], commonly overexpressed in certain breast cancers and gastric cancers. - **Infliximab** is another **monoclonal antibody** that specifically targets and neutralizes **TNF-alpha (3)**, an inflammatory cytokine, making it useful in treating autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn's disease. - **Sirolimus** is an **immunosuppressant** drug that inhibits the mammalian target of rapamycin (**mTOR (2)**), a protein kinase involved in cell growth and proliferation, used in transplant medicine and as an anticancer agent. - **Imatinib** is a **tyrosine kinase inhibitor** that primarily targets the **BCR-ABL fusion protein (1)** [1], [2], which is characteristic of chronic myeloid leukemia. *Incorrect: A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4* - This option incorrectly matches Trastuzumab with mTOR and Sirolimus with BCR-ABL, which are not their primary targets. - Trastuzumab targets HER2/neu [1], [2], and Sirolimus targets mTOR. *Incorrect: A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1* - This option incorrectly matches Trastuzumab with TNF-alpha and Infliximab with HER2/neu. - Infliximab targets TNF-alpha, and Trastuzumab targets HER2/neu [1], [2]. *Incorrect: A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2* - This option incorrectly matches Sirolimus with BCR-ABL and Imatinib with mTOR. - Sirolimus inhibits mTOR, and Imatinib inhibits BCR-ABL [1], [2].

Q: Which of the following represents a normal response to an OGTT?

Graph D. ***Graph D*** - Graph D shows a **fasting glucose level** below 100 mg/dL, a peak below the renal threshold around 1 hour, and a return to baseline or below within 2-2.5 hours. This pattern is characteristic of normal glucose regulation. - A healthy individual can efficiently clear the glucose load from circulation, preventing sustained hyperglycemia. *Graph A* - Graph A shows significantly **elevated fasting glucose levels** (above 200 mg/dL) and a sustained, very high blood glucose response, peaking above 350 mg/dL and remaining well above the renal threshold. - This pattern is indicative of **diabetes mellitus**, where insulin production or sensitivity is severely impaired. *Graph B* - Graph B displays a high fasting glucose level (above 125 mg/dL) and a blood glucose curve that peaks very high (above 250 mg/dL), staying significantly above the renal threshold even at 2.5 hours. - This profile is suggestive of **impaired glucose tolerance** or **diabetes mellitus**, as the body struggles to effectively lower blood glucose after the glucose load. *Graph C* - Graph C shows a normal fasting glucose level but an **extremely rapid and high peak** much earlier than usual, followed by a precipitous drop below normal fasting levels after 1.5 hours, indicating **reactive hypoglycemia**. - This rapid rise and fall, with a nadir below fasting levels, is not a normal response and may be seen in conditions like **dumping syndrome** or early-stage diabetes with a delayed insulin response.

Q: A patient presents to the casualty following blunt trauma to the chest. A chest X-ray was done. Among the following radiographs, in which case would you further evaluate the patient before putting a chest tube? 1. Diaphragmatic hernia 2. Hemothorax 3. Pneumothorax 4. Flail chest

Diaphragmatic hernia. ***Correct Option: Diaphragmatic hernia*** - A **diaphragmatic hernia** (showing elevated hemidiaphragm with loops of bowel in the hemithorax) requires **further evaluation before chest tube placement** - **CT scan with contrast** or **nasogastric tube with X-ray** should be performed to delineate the anatomy and confirm herniated abdominal contents - **Chest tube placement is contraindicated** or requires extreme caution as it could perforate herniated abdominal organs (stomach, bowel, liver, spleen) - This condition requires **surgical repair**, not chest drainage - The key principle: **Always evaluate thoroughly before intervention when diaphragmatic injury is suspected** *Incorrect Option: Pneumothorax* - A **pneumothorax** (characterized by absence of lung markings in the periphery and visceral pleural line) has a straightforward indication for chest tube - **Chest tube is the definitive management** for significant or symptomatic pneumothorax to re-expand the lung - No additional evaluation needed before chest tube placement in hemodynamically stable patients with confirmed pneumothorax *Incorrect Option: Hemothorax* - A **hemothorax** (showing opacification in the lower lung field with blunting of costophrenic angle and fluid level) has a clear indication for chest tube - **Chest tube is indicated** to drain blood, relieve lung compression, and monitor for ongoing bleeding - Immediate chest tube placement is appropriate once diagnosed *Incorrect Option: Flail chest* - A **flail chest** (multiple rib fractures in two or more places creating unstable chest wall segment) primarily requires **pain management and ventilatory support** - A chest tube is **not indicated for flail chest itself** unless there is an associated pneumothorax or hemothorax - If flail chest is isolated, you would not place a chest tube at all, making this option incorrect for the question asked

Question 1

Which of the following indicators can help determine whether the health system is effective at identifying leprosy cases early in the community?

Accepted Answer

Proportion of newly diagnosed patients with grade 2 disability

Answer

Annual new case detection rate per lac

Answer

Treatment initiation rate

Answer

Treatment completion rate

Question 2

Which of the following regarding the vaccine vial monitor (VVM) is true?

1. It is used for monitoring heat exposure of the vaccine by healthcare workers in primary healthcare.
2. It shows cumulative exposure of the vaccine to the heat.
3. It can be used to assess the potential efficacy of the vaccine
4. Calculation of the expiry date can be done using VVM.
5. The expiry date of the vaccine can be relaxed if VVM is an acceptable range.
6. If the square and the circle are the same in color, then the vaccine can be safely used.

Accepted Answer

1,2

Answer

1,2,3,4,5

Answer

3,4

Answer

5,6

Question 3

Abdominal TB can occur through all of the following EXCEPT

Accepted Answer

Direct contact with infected animal

Answer

Direct spread from mesenteric lymph nodes

Answer

Feco - oral route

Answer

Hematogenous spread

Question 4

On Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) staining oocysts of size 8-10 µm are visible. Identify the organism.

Accepted Answer

Cyclospora

Answer

Microsporidium

Answer

Cryptosporidium

Answer

Isospora belli

Question 5

All of the following can be used in first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy (MTP), except

Accepted Answer

Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate

Answer

Manual vacuum aspiration

Answer

Dilatation and curettage

Answer

Mifepristone + misoprostol

Question 6

A woman with eclampsia is started on magnesium sulfate. What is the first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity?

Accepted Answer

Loss of knee jerk

Answer

Respiratory depression

Answer

Hypotension

Answer

Reduced muscle tone

Question 7

Which of the following is not a feature of keratoconus?

Accepted Answer

Haab's striae

Answer

Irregular astigmatism

Answer

Scissoring reflex

Answer

Munson's sign

Question 8

Match the following drugs with the targets of their actions:

Drugs:
A. Trastuzumab
B. Infliximab  
C. Sirolimus
D. Imatinib

Targets:
1. BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
2. mTOR
3. TNF alpha
4. HER2/neu

Accepted Answer

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Answer

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Answer

A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Answer

A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Question 9

Which of the following represents a normal response to an OGTT?

Accepted Answer

Graph D

Answer

Graph A

Answer

Graph B

Answer

Graph C

Question 10

A patient presents to the casualty following blunt trauma to the chest. A chest X-ray was done. Among the following radiographs, in which case would you further evaluate the patient before putting a chest tube?

1. Diaphragmatic hernia
2. Hemothorax
3. Pneumothorax
4. Flail chest

Accepted Answer

Diaphragmatic hernia

Answer

Flail chest

Answer

Pneumothorax

Answer

Hemothorax

INI-CET 2022

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Ophthalmology

Pharmacology

Physiology

Surgery