INI-CET 2022 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is a true statement about screening tests for genetic diseases?

It defines risk of transmission of disease to the child. ***Correct: It defines risk of transmission of disease to the child*** - Genetic screening aims to identify individuals or couples at risk of passing on **heritable genetic conditions** to their offspring. - This information helps in **family planning** and provides prenatal diagnostic options if the risk is high. - This is the **primary purpose** of genetic screening programs. *Incorrect: Screening test has better accuracy than diagnostic test* - **Screening tests** are designed to be broad and detect potential risks, often with lower specificity and sensitivity than diagnostic tests. - **Diagnostic tests** are typically more accurate and definitive, confirming the presence or absence of a disease after a positive screening result. *Incorrect: It is always invasive* - Many genetic screening tests, such as **non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPS)** from maternal blood or carrier screening via saliva, are non-invasive or minimally invasive. - While some diagnostic tests like **amniocentesis** or **chorionic villus sampling** are invasive, screening itself is not universally so. *Incorrect: Screening requires genetic mapping* - **Genetic mapping** refers to determining the relative positions of genes on a chromosome, which is a research tool for understanding genome organization. - Genetic screening primarily involves testing for specific mutations or chromosomal abnormalities, not creating a comprehensive genetic map of an individual.

Q: What test is not used for testing olfaction?

Arnold stick test. ***Arnold stick test*** - The **Arnold stick test** is primarily used for evaluating **hearing**, specifically for assessing **eardrum mobility** and the integrity of the **ossicular chain**. - It involves a small speculum connected to a rubber bulb, and the movement of the eardrum is observed with a microscope, making it unrelated to olfaction. *UPSIT* - The **University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT)** is a widely used and well-validated test for **olfactory function**. - It consists of 40 scratch-and-sniff odorants, and the patient identifies each odor from a set of four choices. *CC-SIT* - The **Cross-Cultural Smell Identification Test (CC-SIT)** is a shorter, 12-item version derived from the UPSIT, designed for **cross-cultural applicability** in testing olfaction. - It also uses a scratch-and-sniff method to assess the ability to identify various odors. *Smell diskettes* - **Smell diskettes**, or smell identification tests using diskettes, are various types of **odor identification kits** where different odors are impregnated onto small disks. - These are common tools used to assess **olfaction** by requiring patients to identify specific smells.

Q: The given image depicts:

Both succenturiate lobe and velamentous insertion. ***Both succenturiate lobe and velamentous insertion*** - The image clearly depicts two distinct placental lobes (**succenturiate lobes**), with a smaller accessory lobe separate from the main placental body. - The **umbilical vessels** are also seen running through the fetal membranes before reaching the placental tissue, which is characteristic of **velamentous insertion**. *Normal placenta* - A normal placenta consists of a **single, unified organ** directly attached to the decidua, with the umbilical cord inserting centrally or eccentrically into this main mass. - The **umbilical cord** in a normal placenta would insert directly into the placental tissue, not into the membranes. *Succenturiate lobe* - A succenturiate lobe (or accessory lobe) refers to one or more small lobes of the placenta located at a distance from the main placental body. - While a succenturiate lobe is present, the image also shows the umbilical vessels traversing the membranes, indicating an additional anomaly known as **velamentous insertion**, making this option incomplete. *Velamentous insertion of the cord* - Velamentous insertion is characterized by the **umbilical blood vessels** separating before reaching the placental disc, traveling through the fetal membranes. - While velamentous insertion is evident, the presence of a **separate accessory lobe** makes this option incomplete as it doesn't account for both depicted abnormalities.

Q: Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for breast conservative surgery?

Small tumor size (<3cm). ***Small tumor size (<3cm)*** ✓ - A small tumor size is **NOT a contraindication** for breast-conserving surgery; it is actually a **favorable condition** and an indication for breast conservation. - Small tumors allow for complete tumor removal with good cosmetic outcomes and adequate margins. - This is the **correct answer** as it is the only option that is NOT a relative contraindication. *Multicentric disease* - **Multicentric disease** refers to the presence of multiple tumor foci in **different quadrants** of the breast, making complete surgical removal challenging with breast-conserving surgery. - This is a **relative contraindication** as it increases the risk of **positive margins** and local recurrence, making mastectomy often a more appropriate option. *Previous radiation to breast* - Prior radiation therapy to the breast is a **contraindication** (often considered absolute) for subsequent breast radiation, which is an essential component of breast-conserving therapy. - Re-irradiation carries a high risk of severe **skin and tissue toxicity**, making further breast conservation unfeasible. *Large tumor size* - A large tumor size is a **relative contraindication** as it can make it difficult to achieve **clear surgical margins** while maintaining an acceptable cosmetic result. - However, **neoadjuvant chemotherapy** may downstage large tumors to make them suitable for breast-conserving surgery. - Without tumor reduction, it often requires **mastectomy**.

Q: Which of the following is not a perineal approach for the condition shown in the image?

Ripstein's procedure. ***Ripstein's procedure*** - The Ripstein procedure is an **abdominal approach** used for performing a rectopexy to treat rectal prolapse, which is clearly visible in the image. - It involves **fixing the rectum to the sacrum** through an abdominal incision using a synthetic mesh sling. - This is the **only non-perineal approach** among the options listed. *Delorme's procedure* - This is a **perineal approach** for rectal prolapse. - Involves **mucosal stripping** and plication of the rectal muscle wall through the anus. - Suitable for patients unfit for abdominal surgery or with short segment prolapse. *Altemeier's procedure* - This is a **perineal rectosigmoidectomy** (perineal approach). - Involves **resection of the prolapsed rectum and sigmoid colon** through the perineum. - Often combined with levatoroplasty for better results. *Thiersch's procedure* - This is a **perineal encirclement procedure**. - Involves placing a **wire, suture, or synthetic material** around the anus to narrow the anal opening. - Simple perineal approach but has high recurrence rates; rarely used as definitive treatment.

Q: The following procedure is performed for the management of?

Distal cholangiocarcinoma. ***Distal cholangiocarcinoma*** - The image shows a **Pylorus-preserving Whipple procedure (PPPD)**, which involves resection of the pancreatic head, duodenum, gallbladder, and part of the common bile duct, followed by reconstruction. - This procedure is primarily performed for malignancies of the **pancreatic head**, **distal bile duct (cholangiocarcinoma)**, and **ampulla of Vater**, as they often cause obstructive jaundice and are resectable. *Gallbladder carcinoma* - While gallbladder carcinoma can involve the bile ducts, this specific reconstruction (PPPD) is more commonly associated with tumors of the pancreatic head or distal bile duct rather than the gallbladder itself, which might be managed with a **cholecystectomy** and possibly **liver resection**. - The type of resection and reconstruction varies significantly based on the extent and location of gallbladder cancer. *Chronic calcific pancreatitis* - Surgical management for chronic pancreatitis, especially with calcifications, typically involves drainage procedures (e.g., **Puestow procedure** due to dilated pancreatic duct or **Frey procedure**) or resection of the pancreatic head (e.g., **Beger procedure**). - While some resections of the pancreatic head are performed for chronic pancreatitis, the depicted procedure is specifically designed for malignancies of the pancreatic head region, not primarily for the sequelae of chronic calcific pancreatitis unless associated with a mass suspicious for malignancy. *Advanced gastric carcinoma* - Advanced gastric carcinoma is typically managed by **gastrectomy** (partial or total) with lymphadenectomy, not a Whipple procedure. - The image clearly shows an **intact pylorus** and the stomach mostly preserved, which is inconsistent with advanced gastric carcinoma requiring major gastric resection.

Question 1

Which of the following is a true statement about screening tests for genetic diseases?

Accepted Answer

It defines risk of transmission of disease to the child

Answer

Screening test has better accuracy than diagnostic test

Answer

It is always invasive

Answer

Screening requires genetic mapping

Question 2

Which of the following is the true statement regarding measures to prevent typhoid transmission in the community?

Accepted Answer

Hygiene practice and clean sanitation control are more important than the typhoid vaccine.

Answer

Typhoid vaccine administration is the best method of preventing transmission.

Answer

Person-to-person transmission is the primary mode of spread.

Answer

Drug resistance in typhoid is not as big a problem as in TB.

Question 3

A multivariate analysis was conducted to examine the relationship between risk of developing blindness and age. The results are shown in the table below. Which of the following is true?

Accepted Answer

>80 y age group has the strongest association with blindness risk

Answer

60-69 y age group shows statistically significant association with blindness

Answer

<50 y age group serves as the reference category

Answer

50-59 y age group has the highest odds ratio for blindness risk

Question 4

What test is not used for testing olfaction?

Accepted Answer

Arnold stick test

Answer

UPSIT

Answer

CC-SIT

Answer

Smell diskettes

Question 5

A 37-year-old unmarried nulliparous woman, having regular intercourse, is on oral contraceptive pills. Her mother was diagnosed with carcinoma breast at 60 years of age, and her elder sister was diagnosed with carcinoma ovary at 40 years of age. What is the next line of management?

Accepted Answer

Genetic counseling and screening for BRCA

Answer

Prophylactic surgery

Answer

Stop taking oral contraceptive pills

Answer

Routine mammography

Question 6

The given image depicts:

Accepted Answer

Both succenturiate lobe and velamentous insertion

Answer

Normal placenta

Answer

Succenturiate lobe

Answer

Velamentous insertion of the cord

Question 7

Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for breast conservative surgery?

Accepted Answer

Small tumor size (<3cm)

Answer

Multicentric disease

Answer

Previous radiation to breast

Answer

Large tumor size

Question 8

Which of the following is not a perineal approach for the condition shown in the image?

Accepted Answer

Ripstein's procedure

Answer

Delorme's procedure

Answer

Altemeier's procedure

Answer

Thiersch's procedure

Question 9

A 50-year-old alcoholic patient presents with a history of waxing and waning jaundice for the past 2 months. His CT examination reveals dilatation of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct. What is the most probable diagnosis in the patient?

Accepted Answer

Periampullary carcinoma

Answer

Common bile duct stone

Answer

Head of the pancreas carcinoma

Answer

Cholangiocarcinoma

Question 10

The following procedure is performed for the management of?

Accepted Answer

Distal cholangiocarcinoma

Answer

Gallbladder carcinoma

Answer

Chronic calcific pancreatitis

Answer

Advanced gastric carcinoma

INI-CET 2022

Community Medicine

ENT

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Surgery