FMGE 2025 — Surgery

Q: A 3-year-old child presented with multiple burn injuries involving the entire head, neck & one upper limb. What is the percentage of burn?

25-30%. ***Correct Answer: 25-30%*** Using the **Modified Rule of Nines for Pediatric Burns** (for children aged 1-4 years): **Calculation:** - **Head & Neck:** ~18% (children have proportionally larger heads compared to adults) - **One Upper Limb:** ~9% - **Total TBSA (Total Body Surface Area):** 18% + 9% = **27%** This falls within the range of **25-30%**, making this the correct answer. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** *Incorrect: 5-10%* - This significantly underestimates the burn area. Head and neck alone account for ~18% in young children. *Incorrect: 18-20%* - This would represent only the head and neck, failing to account for the upper limb involvement. *Incorrect: 40-44%* - This overestimates the burn area. Even if both upper limbs were involved (18%), the total would be ~36%, not 40-44%. **Clinical Pearl:** In pediatric burns, remember that children have different body surface area proportions than adults - the head is proportionally larger (18% vs 9% in adults), while the lower limbs are proportionally smaller. Always use age-appropriate burn assessment charts. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient presents with a transverse fracture at the skull base, described as splitting it and creating a 'hinge' with a 'nodding face sign.' This fracture extends from one petrous ridge across the sella turcica to the other petrous ridge. Which type of fracture is this?

Motorcyclist Fracture (Hinge Fracture). ***Motorcyclist Fracture (Hinge Fracture)*** - This is a descriptive term for a high-energy **transverse skull base fracture** that typically runs through the middle cranial fossa, traversing the skull base from one **petrous ridge** across the **sella turcica** to the opposite petrous ridge. - The fracture creates a 'hinge' mechanism that physically separates the facial skeleton from the calvarium, resulting in instability often described clinically as the **'nodding face sign'**. *Depressed Fracture* - A depressed fracture is characterized by bone fragments driven inwards, below the level of the surrounding skull, often leading to potential injury to the underlying **dura mater** and brain parenchyma. - These fractures result from blunt force trauma focused on a small area, and their primary feature is **inward displacement**, not the transverse splitting and hinge mechanism described. *Comminuted Fracture* - A comminuted fracture involves the bone being broken into **multiple pieces** (three or more separate fragments) at the fracture site. - While hinge fractures are often complex, the defining feature of this clinical presentation is the **transverse path** across the sella and the resulting hinge-like instability, which is a structural description differentiating it from a general comminution. *Ring Fracture* - A ring fracture occurs around the **foramen magnum** and is caused by significant axial loading (e.g., severe fall onto the feet or buttocks). - This fracture causes instability at the **craniocervical junction** and is localized to the posterior cranial fossa, not the extensive transverse fracture across the middle cranial fossa described. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A fracture caused by falls landing on feet/buttocks (force transmitted through the spine), heavy blows to the top of the skull/vertex, twisting of the head on the spine, or blows to the occiput or chin. Which type of fracture is this?

Fissured Fracture (Linear Fracture). ***Fissured Fracture (Linear Fracture)*** - This type of fracture, also known as a **linear fracture**, results from forces that cause a simple, nondisplaced crack in the skull vault. - The mechanisms described—such as forces transmitted through the spine (falls on feet/buttocks) or blows to the vertex, chin, or occiput—are classic causes of **linear skull fractures** because the force is typically dispersed over a wide area, rather than focused enough to cause depression. *Depressed Fracture* - These fractures occur due to high-velocity **localized impact**, where the outer table of the skull is driven inward below the level of the inner table, posing a high risk of **dural tear** and underlying brain injury. - The mechanisms listed in the question involve generalized force transmission or twisting, which are inconsistent with the **inward comminution** required for a depressed fracture. *Gutter Fracture* - This term is specifically associated with **penetrating missile injuries**, like low-velocity bullet wounds, where bone fragments are typically driven inward, creating a characteristic groove or channel. - The mechanisms listed in the prompt are **blunt force** injuries or transmission of force, not penetrating trauma that creates a 'gutter.' *Diastatic Fracture (Sutural Fracture)* - This fracture involves the **separation of cranial sutures** due to a fracture line extending into them, primarily observed in infants and young children before the sutures are fully fused. - The forces described result in a break *through* the bone of the vault (a fissure) rather than primarily causing the **separation of existing, fused sutures** in an adult skull. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 4-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department with complaints of melena and acute intermittent pain in the right iliac region. On surgical exploration, a diverticulum containing gastric mucosa was found. What is the diagnosis? ![img-71.jpeg](img-71.jpeg)

Meckel's diverticulum. ***Meckel's diverticulum*** - This is a remnant of the **vitelline duct** and is the most common congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract, classically presenting with painless rectal bleeding in a young child. - The symptoms of **melena** and right iliac fossa pain are due to ulceration caused by acid secretion from ectopic **gastric mucosa**, which is found in about 50% of symptomatic cases. *Appendicular lump* - An appendicular lump is an inflammatory mass formed by the inflamed appendix and adjacent structures, typically presenting with fever, pain, and a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. - It does not contain ectopic gastric mucosa and would not be the primary cause of melena; the image shows a distinct diverticulum, not an inflammatory phlegmon. *Carcinoid* - A carcinoid is a **neuroendocrine tumor** that can occur in the GI tract, but it appears as a solid, yellowish tumor, which is different from the structure shown in the image. - While it can cause bleeding or obstruction, the classic history of bleeding from ectopic gastric mucosa is not associated with carcinoid tumors. *Obstructed bowel loops* - This is a clinical finding rather than a specific diagnosis. While a Meckel's diverticulum can cause bowel obstruction (e.g., through **intussusception** or volvulus), the image and history point to the diverticulum as the primary pathology. - The image shows a specific anatomical structure (the diverticulum), not the general appearance of dilated, obstructed bowel loops proximal to a blockage. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 26 year old female was brought to ER post fire incidence. Her face and lower limbs were spared. Based on the burn distribution shown, calculate the percentage of body surface area affected.

40-50%. ***40-50%*** - The **Rule of Nines** is used to estimate the Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) of burns in adults. According to this rule, the anterior trunk is 18%, each upper limb is 9%, and the posterior trunk is 18%. - In this patient, burns cover the entire anterior trunk (18%), both upper limbs (9% + 9% = 18%), and likely the upper posterior trunk (approx. 9%), totaling around **45%**, which falls in this range. This calculation is critical for fluid resuscitation. *5-10%* - This percentage represents a much smaller burn area, equivalent to approximately one full arm (9%) or the head (9%). - The visual evidence clearly shows extensive burns involving the entire torso and both arms, far exceeding this estimation. *20-30%* - This TBSA would typically represent burns covering the entire anterior trunk (18%) plus one arm (9%), totaling 27%. - This estimate is incorrect as it fails to account for the burns on the second upper limb and the likely involvement of the back. *10-15%* - A burn of this size would involve an area such as the anterior chest (9%) or one leg from the knee down. - This option significantly underestimates the burn severity, as the anterior trunk alone accounts for 18% of the TBSA. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

45 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

Questions

A 3-year-old child presented with multiple burn injuries involving the entire head, neck & one upper limb. What is the percentage of burn?

A patient presents with a transverse fracture at the skull base, described as splitting it and creating a 'hinge' with a 'nodding face sign.' This fracture extends from one petrous ridge across the sella turcica to the other petrous ridge. Which type of fracture is this?

A fracture caused by falls landing on feet/buttocks (force transmitted through the spine), heavy blows to the top of the skull/vertex, twisting of the head on the spine, or blows to the occiput or chin. Which type of fracture is this?

A 4-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department with complaints of melena and acute intermittent pain in the right iliac region. On surgical exploration, a diverticulum containing gastric mucosa was found. What is the diagnosis? ![img-71.jpeg](img-71.jpeg)

A 26 year old female was brought to ER post fire incidence. Her face and lower limbs were spared. Based on the burn distribution shown, calculate the percentage of body surface area affected.

A patient with grade 2 hemorrhoids underwent surgery, identify the instrument.

A 45-year-old man is found unconscious after a fall from a ladder. In the emergency department, his eyes do not open even in response to pain; he is making incomprehensible sounds, and he exhibits abnormal flexion in response to painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

Which of the following is the classical triad of acute cholangitis?

A 22-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a strong urge to urinate but is unable to do so. He has a history of perineal trauma. On examination, blood is noted at the external urethral meatus. Which structure is most likely injured?

Q10

Spread of prostate cancer to lumbar vertebra is via?

FMGE 2025 - Surgery FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A 3-year-old child presented with multiple burn injuries involving the entire head, neck & one upper limb. What is the percentage of burn?

A. 5-10%
B. 25-30% (Correct Answer)
C. 40-44%
D. 18-20%

Explanation: ***Correct Answer: 25-30%*** Using the **Modified Rule of Nines for Pediatric Burns** (for children aged 1-4 years): **Calculation:** - **Head & Neck:** ~18% (children have proportionally larger heads compared to adults) - **One Upper Limb:** ~9% - **Total TBSA (Total Body Surface Area):** 18% + 9% = **27%** This falls within the range of **25-30%**, making this the correct answer. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** *Incorrect: 5-10%* - This significantly underestimates the burn area. Head and neck alone account for ~18% in young children. *Incorrect: 18-20%* - This would represent only the head and neck, failing to account for the upper limb involvement. *Incorrect: 40-44%* - This overestimates the burn area. Even if both upper limbs were involved (18%), the total would be ~36%, not 40-44%. **Clinical Pearl:** In pediatric burns, remember that children have different body surface area proportions than adults - the head is proportionally larger (18% vs 9% in adults), while the lower limbs are proportionally smaller. Always use age-appropriate burn assessment charts.

Question 2: A patient presents with a transverse fracture at the skull base, described as splitting it and creating a 'hinge' with a 'nodding face sign.' This fracture extends from one petrous ridge across the sella turcica to the other petrous ridge. Which type of fracture is this?

A. Motorcyclist Fracture (Hinge Fracture) (Correct Answer)
B. Comminuted Fracture
C. Depressed Fracture
D. Ring Fracture

Explanation: ***Motorcyclist Fracture (Hinge Fracture)*** - This is a descriptive term for a high-energy **transverse skull base fracture** that typically runs through the middle cranial fossa, traversing the skull base from one **petrous ridge** across the **sella turcica** to the opposite petrous ridge. - The fracture creates a 'hinge' mechanism that physically separates the facial skeleton from the calvarium, resulting in instability often described clinically as the **'nodding face sign'**. *Depressed Fracture* - A depressed fracture is characterized by bone fragments driven inwards, below the level of the surrounding skull, often leading to potential injury to the underlying **dura mater** and brain parenchyma. - These fractures result from blunt force trauma focused on a small area, and their primary feature is **inward displacement**, not the transverse splitting and hinge mechanism described. *Comminuted Fracture* - A comminuted fracture involves the bone being broken into **multiple pieces** (three or more separate fragments) at the fracture site. - While hinge fractures are often complex, the defining feature of this clinical presentation is the **transverse path** across the sella and the resulting hinge-like instability, which is a structural description differentiating it from a general comminution. *Ring Fracture* - A ring fracture occurs around the **foramen magnum** and is caused by significant axial loading (e.g., severe fall onto the feet or buttocks). - This fracture causes instability at the **craniocervical junction** and is localized to the posterior cranial fossa, not the extensive transverse fracture across the middle cranial fossa described.

Question 3: A fracture caused by falls landing on feet/buttocks (force transmitted through the spine), heavy blows to the top of the skull/vertex, twisting of the head on the spine, or blows to the occiput or chin. Which type of fracture is this?

A. Diastatic Fracture (Sutural Fracture)
B. Fissured Fracture (Linear Fracture) (Correct Answer)
C. Depressed Fracture
D. Gutter Fracture

Explanation: ***Fissured Fracture (Linear Fracture)*** - This type of fracture, also known as a **linear fracture**, results from forces that cause a simple, nondisplaced crack in the skull vault. - The mechanisms described—such as forces transmitted through the spine (falls on feet/buttocks) or blows to the vertex, chin, or occiput—are classic causes of **linear skull fractures** because the force is typically dispersed over a wide area, rather than focused enough to cause depression. *Depressed Fracture* - These fractures occur due to high-velocity **localized impact**, where the outer table of the skull is driven inward below the level of the inner table, posing a high risk of **dural tear** and underlying brain injury. - The mechanisms listed in the question involve generalized force transmission or twisting, which are inconsistent with the **inward comminution** required for a depressed fracture. *Gutter Fracture* - This term is specifically associated with **penetrating missile injuries**, like low-velocity bullet wounds, where bone fragments are typically driven inward, creating a characteristic groove or channel. - The mechanisms listed in the prompt are **blunt force** injuries or transmission of force, not penetrating trauma that creates a 'gutter.' *Diastatic Fracture (Sutural Fracture)* - This fracture involves the **separation of cranial sutures** due to a fracture line extending into them, primarily observed in infants and young children before the sutures are fully fused. - The forces described result in a break *through* the bone of the vault (a fissure) rather than primarily causing the **separation of existing, fused sutures** in an adult skull.

Question 4: A 4-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department with complaints of melena and acute intermittent pain in the right iliac region. On surgical exploration, a diverticulum containing gastric mucosa was found. What is the diagnosis? ![img-71.jpeg](img-71.jpeg)

A. Appendicular lump
B. Obstructed bowel loops
C. Meckel's diverticulum (Correct Answer)
D. Carcinoid

Explanation: ***Meckel's diverticulum*** - This is a remnant of the **vitelline duct** and is the most common congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract, classically presenting with painless rectal bleeding in a young child. - The symptoms of **melena** and right iliac fossa pain are due to ulceration caused by acid secretion from ectopic **gastric mucosa**, which is found in about 50% of symptomatic cases. *Appendicular lump* - An appendicular lump is an inflammatory mass formed by the inflamed appendix and adjacent structures, typically presenting with fever, pain, and a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. - It does not contain ectopic gastric mucosa and would not be the primary cause of melena; the image shows a distinct diverticulum, not an inflammatory phlegmon. *Carcinoid* - A carcinoid is a **neuroendocrine tumor** that can occur in the GI tract, but it appears as a solid, yellowish tumor, which is different from the structure shown in the image. - While it can cause bleeding or obstruction, the classic history of bleeding from ectopic gastric mucosa is not associated with carcinoid tumors. *Obstructed bowel loops* - This is a clinical finding rather than a specific diagnosis. While a Meckel's diverticulum can cause bowel obstruction (e.g., through **intussusception** or volvulus), the image and history point to the diverticulum as the primary pathology. - The image shows a specific anatomical structure (the diverticulum), not the general appearance of dilated, obstructed bowel loops proximal to a blockage.

Question 5: A 26 year old female was brought to ER post fire incidence. Her face and lower limbs were spared. Based on the burn distribution shown, calculate the percentage of body surface area affected.

A. 20-30%
B. 40-50% (Correct Answer)
C. 5-10%
D. 10-15%

Explanation: ***40-50%*** - The **Rule of Nines** is used to estimate the Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) of burns in adults. According to this rule, the anterior trunk is 18%, each upper limb is 9%, and the posterior trunk is 18%. - In this patient, burns cover the entire anterior trunk (18%), both upper limbs (9% + 9% = 18%), and likely the upper posterior trunk (approx. 9%), totaling around **45%**, which falls in this range. This calculation is critical for fluid resuscitation. *5-10%* - This percentage represents a much smaller burn area, equivalent to approximately one full arm (9%) or the head (9%). - The visual evidence clearly shows extensive burns involving the entire torso and both arms, far exceeding this estimation. *20-30%* - This TBSA would typically represent burns covering the entire anterior trunk (18%) plus one arm (9%), totaling 27%. - This estimate is incorrect as it fails to account for the burns on the second upper limb and the likely involvement of the back. *10-15%* - A burn of this size would involve an area such as the anterior chest (9%) or one leg from the knee down. - This option significantly underestimates the burn severity, as the anterior trunk alone accounts for 18% of the TBSA.

Question 6: A patient with grade 2 hemorrhoids underwent surgery, identify the instrument.

A. Stapler kit
B. CO2 laser
C. Haemorrhoids resection kit
D. Haemorrhoids band kit (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Haemorrhoids band kit*** - The image shows a **band ligator** applying a small elastic band to the base of an internal hemorrhoid, which is the procedure known as **rubber band ligation**. - This technique is a common office-based procedure for **grade I, II, and selected grade III** internal hemorrhoids, causing them to necrose and slough off by cutting off their blood supply. *Haemorrhoids resection kit* - This kit contains instruments for a formal **hemorrhoidectomy**, a surgical procedure that involves excising the hemorrhoidal tissue, typically reserved for severe **grade III and IV hemorrhoids**. - A resection is a more invasive procedure involving cutting and suturing, which is different from the banding method shown. *Stapler kit* - A stapler kit is used for a **stapled hemorrhoidopexy** (PPH procedure), which involves a circular stapler to resect a ring of mucosa above the hemorrhoids and lift them back into a normal position. - The instrument and the principle of action (resection and fixation) are distinct from the ligation shown in the image. *CO2 laser* - **Laser hemorrhoidoplasty** uses a laser probe to deliver energy to shrink the hemorrhoidal plexus; it does not involve the application of a mechanical band. - The instrument is a thin laser fiber, which looks different from the ligator depicted in the illustration.

Question 7: A 45-year-old man is found unconscious after a fall from a ladder. In the emergency department, his eyes do not open even in response to pain; he is making incomprehensible sounds, and he exhibits abnormal flexion in response to painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

A. 7
B. 6 (Correct Answer)
C. 8
D. 5

Explanation: ***Correct Answer: 6*** - The GCS score is calculated by summing Eye (E), Verbal (V), and Motor (M) responses - E=1 (no eye opening to pain) + V=2 (incomprehensible sounds) + M=3 (abnormal flexion/decorticate posturing) = **6** - A GCS ≤8 indicates **severe head injury** requiring definitive airway management *Incorrect: 5* - A score of 5 would require an even lower motor response: M=2 (abnormal extension/decerebrate posturing) or M=1 (no motor response) - The patient demonstrates M=3 (abnormal flexion), making the total score 6, not 5 *Incorrect: 7* - A score of 7 would require a higher verbal or motor component - For example: E=1 + V=3 (inappropriate words) + M=3 = 7, or E=1 + V=2 + M=4 (withdrawal from pain) = 7 - The patient's V=2 (incomprehensible sounds) and E=1 prevent reaching a total of 7 *Incorrect: 8* - A GCS of 8 requires significantly better responses, such as M=4 (withdraws from pain) or V=3 (inappropriate words) combined with M=4 - The patient's M=3 (abnormal flexion) and V=2 (incomprehensible sounds) are too low to reach 8

Question 8: Which of the following is the classical triad of acute cholangitis?

A. Pain, $\uparrow$ WBC, $\uparrow$ Bilirubin
B. Pain, jaundice, fever (Correct Answer)
C. Fever, jaundice, $\uparrow$ WBC
D. Pain, jaundice, shock

Explanation: ***Correct: Pain, jaundice, fever*** - This is **Charcot's triad**, the classical presentation of acute cholangitis - Represents the three cardinal clinical features: **RUQ abdominal pain**, **jaundice** (from biliary obstruction), and **fever with rigors** (from ascending infection) - Acute cholangitis is a bacterial infection of the bile ducts, typically occurring due to biliary obstruction (most commonly from choledocholithiasis) - When hypotension and altered mental status are added to Charcot's triad, it becomes **Reynolds pentad** (indicating severe/suppurative cholangitis) *Incorrect: Pain, ↑ WBC, ↑ Bilirubin* - While these findings may be present in acute cholangitis, this is not the classical **clinical triad** - Laboratory findings are supportive but not part of the classical triad definition *Incorrect: Fever, jaundice, ↑ WBC* - Missing the key clinical feature of **RUQ pain** - Includes laboratory finding (↑ WBC) rather than clinical presentation *Incorrect: Pain, jaundice, shock* - This combination represents part of **Reynolds pentad** but is missing fever - Reynolds pentad = Charcot's triad + hypotension + altered mental status - Not the classical triad being asked in the question

Question 9: A 22-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a strong urge to urinate but is unable to do so. He has a history of perineal trauma. On examination, blood is noted at the external urethral meatus. Which structure is most likely injured?

A. Intraperitoneal Bladder rupture
B. Bulbar urethra (Correct Answer)
C. Posterior urethral valve
D. Membranous urethra

Explanation: ***Bulbar urethra***- Perineal trauma, such as a **straddle injury**, typically compresses the **bulbar urethra** (part of the anterior urethra) against the inferior aspect of the pubic symphysis, leading to rupture or contusion.- The classic presentation of **blood at the external urethral meatus** combined with **urinary retention (inability to void)** following perineal trauma is pathognomonic for a suspected anterior urethral injury, most commonly involving the bulbar segment.*Posterior urethral valve*- This condition is a **congenital anomaly** causing obstruction almost exclusively in male **infants** and neonates, resulting in chronic hydronephrosis.- It is not a traumatic injury and therefore cannot explain the sudden onset of urinary retention in a 22-year-old male following **perineal trauma**.*Intraperitoneal Bladder rupture*- This type of rupture usually occurs due to blunt trauma to the **suprapubic region** when the bladder is full, leading to urine leakage into the abdominal cavity.- Although it causes inability to urinate and hematuria, the history of isolated **perineal trauma** and prominent **blood at the meatus** makes a primary urethral injury significantly more likely.*Membranous urethra*- The **membranous urethra** is part of the posterior urethra and its injury is highly associated with severe blunt trauma causing **pelvic fractures**.- Perineal or straddle injuries typically affect the **anterior urethra** (bulbar segment) because the posterior urethra is protected by the surrounding bony pelvis and supportive ligaments.

Question 10: Spread of prostate cancer to lumbar vertebra is via?

A. Local spread
B. Arterial spread
C. Lymphatic spread
D. Venous spread (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Venous spread***- The most common route for prostate cancer metastasis to the vertebrae is via the **Batson's vertebral venous plexus**, a valveless network.- This plexus allows cancer cells to flow retrograde directly from the deep pelvic veins draining the prostate to the vertebral column, especially the **lumbar vertebrae**.*Arterial spread*- Arterial spread is a route for systemic metastasis but is less significant than the venous route involving **Batson's plexus** for the specific predilection of vertebral spread.- Given the direct connection of the prostate venous drainage to the vertebral system, venous dissemination is the main hematogenous pathway to the axial skeleton.*Local spread*- Local spread refers to the contiguous extension of the tumor to adjacent structures like the seminal vesicles or bladder neck, and it does not explain **distant metastasis** to the bone.- This type of spread dictates local staging but is not the mechanism for tumor cell deposition in the marrow of the spine.*Lymphatic spread*- Lymphatic spread is typically the initial route for spread to **regional lymph nodes** (e.g., pelvic and obturator nodes).- **Bone metastasis**, particularly to the spine, classically bypasses major lymph node groups and utilizes the direct venous connection provided by the Batson's system.