FMGE 2025 — Radiology

Q: A patient presents with a history of dysphagia, which is more pronounced for liquids than solids. Which radiological sign is most likely to be seen?

Rat-tail sign. ***Rat-tail sign*** - Dysphagia that is more pronounced for liquids (**paradoxical dysphagia**) than solids is the hallmark symptom of **Achalasia**, a primary esophageal motility disorder. - The **rat-tail sign** (or **bird-beak sign**) seen on **barium swallow** is due to the non-relaxed, smoothly tapered distal esophagus resulting from **Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) failure** to relax. *Filling defect* - This is a general radiological term indicating any mass lesion protruding into the esophageal lumen, such as a **polyp**, **foreign body**, or a large tumor mass. - It is not specific to motility disorders like Achalasia, which cause smooth, concentric narrowing rather than a discrete filling absence. *Corkscrew esophagus* - This classic radiographic finding is characteristic of **Diffuse Esophageal Spasm (DES)**, where uncoordinated and severe contractions occur intermittently throughout the esophagus. - DES typically causes intermittent dysphagia and significant non-cardiac **chest pain**, and the dysphagia pattern is usually not strictly *liquids more than solids*. *Apple-core lesion* - The **apple-core lesion** (or **napkin-ring sign**) is the classical appearance of an infiltrative, malignant stricture, most commonly seen in cases of advanced **esophageal carcinoma**. - Malignant strictures cause progressive dysphagia, typically starting with difficulty swallowing **solids before liquids**, which contradicts the patient’s presentation. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Identify the fracture:

Depressed fracture. ***Depressed fracture*** - This radiograph clearly shows an inward displacement of a segment of the skull, which is the defining characteristic of a **depressed fracture**. This type of fracture is often described as a "ping-pong" fracture in infants due to the pliability of their skulls. - These fractures are clinically significant as they can be associated with underlying **dural tears**, **cortical contusions**, or **intracranial hemorrhage**, often necessitating surgical evaluation and intervention. *Linear fracture* - A linear fracture would appear as a sharp, lucent line on the radiograph without any displacement or depression of the bone fragments. - This is the most common type of skull fracture, but it does not match the visible **indentation** of the cranial vault seen in the image. *Hinge fracture* - A hinge fracture is a type of **basilar skull fracture** that runs across the floor of the middle cranial fossa, effectively separating the skull base into two halves. - This is a severe injury, not depicted in the image, which shows a fracture of the **parietal bone** in the cranial vault, not the base. *Gutter fracture* - A gutter fracture is a specific subtype of depressed fracture, typically caused by a tangential impact (e.g., a bullet grazing the skull), which carves out a trough or "gutter" in the bone. - While it involves depression, the term is more specific. The fracture shown is better classified by the general term **depressed fracture**, which accurately describes the inward buckling of the bone. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Following a fight between 2 groups, a boy was brought with severe pain in the chest, distended neck veins, dyspnea, and a BP of 80/50 mmHg. X-ray shows the following findings: What is the diagnosis?

Tension Pneumothorax. ***Tension pneumothorax*** - The clinical presentation of severe dyspnea, **distended neck veins**, and **hypotension** (BP 80/50 mmHg) after trauma is a classic triad for tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency. - The chest X-ray confirms this diagnosis by showing a completely collapsed right lung with a significant **contralateral shift of the mediastinum and trachea** to the left, and flattening of the right hemidiaphragm, indicating high intrapleural pressure. *Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax* - This type of pneumothorax occurs without any preceding trauma or underlying lung disease, typically in tall, thin young men due to the rupture of **apical blebs**. - The patient's presentation follows a fight, clearly indicating a **traumatic etiology**, which rules out a spontaneous pneumothorax. *Traumatic Pneumothorax* - While the cause is trauma, this is a less specific diagnosis. The term **Tension pneumothorax** is more accurate given the life-threatening signs of **hemodynamic instability** and **mediastinal shift**. - A simple traumatic pneumothorax does not typically involve the one-way valve mechanism that leads to the progressive accumulation of air and the resulting **obstructive shock** seen in this patient. *Bilateral Pneumothorax* - This diagnosis is incorrect as the chest X-ray clearly demonstrates a **unilateral** condition affecting only the right side. - The left lung, although compressed by the shifted mediastinum, remains inflated with visible lung markings extending to the chest wall. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Identify the procedure shown in the image

Intravenous Pyelogram. ***Intravenous Pyelogram*** - In this procedure, a contrast agent is injected **intravenously** and is then excreted by the kidneys, allowing for visualization of the entire urinary tract, including the renal calyces, pelvis, ureters, and bladder. - The image demonstrates the **nephrogram phase** (contrast in the kidney parenchyma) and the **excretory phase** (contrast in the collecting systems and ureters) simultaneously on both sides, which is characteristic of an IVP. *Retrograde pyelogram* - This procedure involves the injection of contrast material directly into the ureter via a **cystoscope** passed into the bladder, resulting in retrograde (bottom-to-top) filling of the collecting system. - A **ureteral catheter** would typically be visible on the image, and usually, only one side is opacified at a time, which is not the case here. *Combined Retrograde Pyelogram and Ureteroscopy* - This is an invasive procedure where a **ureteroscope** (a thin, flexible camera) is passed up the ureter to directly visualize and treat pathologies like stones or tumors. - The presence of the **ureteroscope** or other instruments would be evident on the radiograph, which are absent in this image. *Antegrade pyelography* - This technique involves inserting a needle or catheter through the skin of the back directly into the renal collecting system (**percutaneous access**) to inject contrast. - A **percutaneous nephrostomy tube** or needle would be visible on the image, which is not seen here. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Identify the type of diaphragmatic hernia shown in the X-ray.

Bochdalek hernia. ***Bochdalek hernia*** - This is the most common type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), accounting for over 80% of cases, and is characterized by a defect in the **posterolateral** aspect of the diaphragm. - The X-ray shows classic findings: multiple **gas-filled bowel loops** in the left hemithorax, causing **mediastinal shift** to the right and compression of the left lung, which is consistent with a left-sided Bochdalek hernia. *Morgagni hernia* - This is a rare, **anteromedial** diaphragmatic defect that occurs through the **foramen of Morgagni**, typically on the right side. - It is less common than Bochdalek hernia and often discovered incidentally in older children or adults, presenting with less severe respiratory symptoms. *Hiatal hernia* - This involves the protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through the **esophageal hiatus** into the chest. - It is a midline defect and typically presents with **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**, not the extensive herniation of multiple abdominal organs seen in this neonatal X-ray. *Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia* - This is an **acquired** condition resulting from severe blunt or penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen, not a congenital defect. - While it can appear similar on imaging, the clinical context of a newborn (as suggested by the image) makes a congenital cause like Bochdalek hernia the most likely diagnosis. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

23 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

Questions

A patient presents with a history of dysphagia, which is more pronounced for liquids than solids. Which radiological sign is most likely to be seen?

Identify the fracture:

Following a fight between 2 groups, a boy was brought with severe pain in the chest, distended neck veins, dyspnea, and a BP of 80/50 mmHg. X-ray shows the following findings: What is the diagnosis?

Identify the procedure shown in the image

Identify the type of diaphragmatic hernia shown in the X-ray.

Which of the following is a primary use of this imaging modality? ![img-42.jpeg](img-42.jpeg)

What is the investigation shown in the image?

A chest X-ray is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 65-year-old patient presents with abdominal distension and constipation. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the abdominal X-ray shown?

Q10

Based on the provided X-ray image, identify the most likely diagnosis.

FMGE 2025 - Radiology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A patient presents with a history of dysphagia, which is more pronounced for liquids than solids. Which radiological sign is most likely to be seen?

A. Rat-tail sign (Correct Answer)
B. Corkscrew esophagus
C. Apple-core lesion
D. Filling defect

Explanation: ***Rat-tail sign*** - Dysphagia that is more pronounced for liquids (**paradoxical dysphagia**) than solids is the hallmark symptom of **Achalasia**, a primary esophageal motility disorder. - The **rat-tail sign** (or **bird-beak sign**) seen on **barium swallow** is due to the non-relaxed, smoothly tapered distal esophagus resulting from **Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) failure** to relax. *Filling defect* - This is a general radiological term indicating any mass lesion protruding into the esophageal lumen, such as a **polyp**, **foreign body**, or a large tumor mass. - It is not specific to motility disorders like Achalasia, which cause smooth, concentric narrowing rather than a discrete filling absence. *Corkscrew esophagus* - This classic radiographic finding is characteristic of **Diffuse Esophageal Spasm (DES)**, where uncoordinated and severe contractions occur intermittently throughout the esophagus. - DES typically causes intermittent dysphagia and significant non-cardiac **chest pain**, and the dysphagia pattern is usually not strictly *liquids more than solids*. *Apple-core lesion* - The **apple-core lesion** (or **napkin-ring sign**) is the classical appearance of an infiltrative, malignant stricture, most commonly seen in cases of advanced **esophageal carcinoma**. - Malignant strictures cause progressive dysphagia, typically starting with difficulty swallowing **solids before liquids**, which contradicts the patient’s presentation.

Question 2: Identify the fracture:

A. Gutter fracture
B. Linear fracture
C. Depressed fracture (Correct Answer)
D. Hinge fracture

Explanation: ***Depressed fracture*** - This radiograph clearly shows an inward displacement of a segment of the skull, which is the defining characteristic of a **depressed fracture**. This type of fracture is often described as a "ping-pong" fracture in infants due to the pliability of their skulls. - These fractures are clinically significant as they can be associated with underlying **dural tears**, **cortical contusions**, or **intracranial hemorrhage**, often necessitating surgical evaluation and intervention. *Linear fracture* - A linear fracture would appear as a sharp, lucent line on the radiograph without any displacement or depression of the bone fragments. - This is the most common type of skull fracture, but it does not match the visible **indentation** of the cranial vault seen in the image. *Hinge fracture* - A hinge fracture is a type of **basilar skull fracture** that runs across the floor of the middle cranial fossa, effectively separating the skull base into two halves. - This is a severe injury, not depicted in the image, which shows a fracture of the **parietal bone** in the cranial vault, not the base. *Gutter fracture* - A gutter fracture is a specific subtype of depressed fracture, typically caused by a tangential impact (e.g., a bullet grazing the skull), which carves out a trough or "gutter" in the bone. - While it involves depression, the term is more specific. The fracture shown is better classified by the general term **depressed fracture**, which accurately describes the inward buckling of the bone.

Question 3: Following a fight between 2 groups, a boy was brought with severe pain in the chest, distended neck veins, dyspnea, and a BP of 80/50 mmHg. X-ray shows the following findings: What is the diagnosis?

A. Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax
B. Bilateral Pneumothorax
C. Tension Pneumothorax (Correct Answer)
D. Traumatic Pneumothorax

Explanation: ***Tension pneumothorax*** - The clinical presentation of severe dyspnea, **distended neck veins**, and **hypotension** (BP 80/50 mmHg) after trauma is a classic triad for tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency. - The chest X-ray confirms this diagnosis by showing a completely collapsed right lung with a significant **contralateral shift of the mediastinum and trachea** to the left, and flattening of the right hemidiaphragm, indicating high intrapleural pressure. *Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax* - This type of pneumothorax occurs without any preceding trauma or underlying lung disease, typically in tall, thin young men due to the rupture of **apical blebs**. - The patient's presentation follows a fight, clearly indicating a **traumatic etiology**, which rules out a spontaneous pneumothorax. *Traumatic Pneumothorax* - While the cause is trauma, this is a less specific diagnosis. The term **Tension pneumothorax** is more accurate given the life-threatening signs of **hemodynamic instability** and **mediastinal shift**. - A simple traumatic pneumothorax does not typically involve the one-way valve mechanism that leads to the progressive accumulation of air and the resulting **obstructive shock** seen in this patient. *Bilateral Pneumothorax* - This diagnosis is incorrect as the chest X-ray clearly demonstrates a **unilateral** condition affecting only the right side. - The left lung, although compressed by the shifted mediastinum, remains inflated with visible lung markings extending to the chest wall.

Question 4: Identify the procedure shown in the image

A. Combined Retrograde Pyelogram and Ureteroscopy
B. Antegrade pyelography
C. Retrograde pyelogram
D. Intravenous Pyelogram (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Intravenous Pyelogram*** - In this procedure, a contrast agent is injected **intravenously** and is then excreted by the kidneys, allowing for visualization of the entire urinary tract, including the renal calyces, pelvis, ureters, and bladder. - The image demonstrates the **nephrogram phase** (contrast in the kidney parenchyma) and the **excretory phase** (contrast in the collecting systems and ureters) simultaneously on both sides, which is characteristic of an IVP. *Retrograde pyelogram* - This procedure involves the injection of contrast material directly into the ureter via a **cystoscope** passed into the bladder, resulting in retrograde (bottom-to-top) filling of the collecting system. - A **ureteral catheter** would typically be visible on the image, and usually, only one side is opacified at a time, which is not the case here. *Combined Retrograde Pyelogram and Ureteroscopy* - This is an invasive procedure where a **ureteroscope** (a thin, flexible camera) is passed up the ureter to directly visualize and treat pathologies like stones or tumors. - The presence of the **ureteroscope** or other instruments would be evident on the radiograph, which are absent in this image. *Antegrade pyelography* - This technique involves inserting a needle or catheter through the skin of the back directly into the renal collecting system (**percutaneous access**) to inject contrast. - A **percutaneous nephrostomy tube** or needle would be visible on the image, which is not seen here.

Question 5: Identify the type of diaphragmatic hernia shown in the X-ray.

A. Morgagni hernia
B. Bochdalek hernia (Correct Answer)
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia

Explanation: ***Bochdalek hernia*** - This is the most common type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), accounting for over 80% of cases, and is characterized by a defect in the **posterolateral** aspect of the diaphragm. - The X-ray shows classic findings: multiple **gas-filled bowel loops** in the left hemithorax, causing **mediastinal shift** to the right and compression of the left lung, which is consistent with a left-sided Bochdalek hernia. *Morgagni hernia* - This is a rare, **anteromedial** diaphragmatic defect that occurs through the **foramen of Morgagni**, typically on the right side. - It is less common than Bochdalek hernia and often discovered incidentally in older children or adults, presenting with less severe respiratory symptoms. *Hiatal hernia* - This involves the protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through the **esophageal hiatus** into the chest. - It is a midline defect and typically presents with **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**, not the extensive herniation of multiple abdominal organs seen in this neonatal X-ray. *Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia* - This is an **acquired** condition resulting from severe blunt or penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen, not a congenital defect. - While it can appear similar on imaging, the clinical context of a newborn (as suggested by the image) makes a congenital cause like Bochdalek hernia the most likely diagnosis.

Question 6: Which of the following is a primary use of this imaging modality? ![img-42.jpeg](img-42.jpeg)

A. Staging of esophageal cancer (Correct Answer)
B. Evaluation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C. Identifying the cause of dysphagia
D. Assessing cardiac and aortic pathology

Explanation: ***Staging of esophageal cancer*** - The image displays an **Endoscopic Ultrasound (EUS)**, which is the most accurate modality for the locoregional staging of esophageal cancer. - EUS provides detailed imaging of the esophageal wall layers, allowing for precise assessment of the **depth of tumor invasion (T stage)** and involvement of **regional lymph nodes (N stage)**, which is critical for treatment planning. *Evaluation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)* - The diagnosis of GERD is primarily based on clinical symptoms and may be confirmed with **upper endoscopy** to look for esophagitis or **ambulatory pH monitoring**. - EUS is not used for evaluating reflux itself, as it doesn't measure acid exposure or lower esophageal sphincter function. *Identifying the cause of dysphagia* - The initial investigation for dysphagia typically involves a **barium esophagram** or a standard **upper endoscopy** to visualize the esophageal lumen directly. - EUS is a secondary test used to further characterize a mass or stricture already identified by other means, rather than as a primary tool for dysphagia workup. *Assessing cardiac and aortic pathology* - While EUS can visualize adjacent mediastinal structures, including the heart and aorta, it is not the primary imaging modality for their assessment. - **Echocardiography** is the standard for cardiac evaluation, and **CT or MR angiography** is superior for assessing aortic pathology.

Question 7: What is the investigation shown in the image?

A. Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) (Correct Answer)
B. Retrograde Pyelogram
C. Computed Tomography (CT) Urography
D. Magnetic Resonance Urography

Explanation: ***Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP)*** - This investigation involves the intravenous injection of a **water-soluble iodinated contrast agent**, which is then excreted by the kidneys, allowing visualization of the entire urinary tract. - The image shows a plain radiograph where the **renal pelves**, **calyces**, both **ureters**, and the **bladder** are simultaneously opacified, which is characteristic of contrast being filtered and passed down the urinary system. *Retrograde Pyelogram* - In this procedure, contrast is injected directly into the **ureteric orifices** via a catheter placed during **cystoscopy**, filling the system from the bottom up. - It typically provides a denser opacification than an IVP and is often performed unilaterally. It does not assess renal function as the contrast is not filtered by the kidneys. *Computed Tomography (CT) Urography* - CT Urography uses intravenous contrast but acquires images using **computed tomography**, producing detailed, cross-sectional, and 3D reformatted images of the urinary tract. - The image provided is a two-dimensional **projectional radiograph** (a standard X-ray), not a CT scan which would show axial, coronal, or sagittal slices. *Magnetic Resonance Urography* - This technique uses **magnetic fields and radio waves** to generate images, avoiding ionizing radiation. It is excellent for visualizing soft tissues. - The image shown is clearly an X-ray, identifiable by the high contrast visualization of dense structures like bone, which differs significantly from the appearance of an MR image.

Question 8: A chest X-ray is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pulmonary oedema (Correct Answer)
B. Hydrothorax
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Explanation: ***Pulmonary oedema*** - The chest X-ray shows classic features of pulmonary oedema, including **bilateral diffuse opacities**, particularly in the perihilar region (a "bat's wing" appearance), and **cephalization** of the pulmonary vessels. - These findings indicate the accumulation of fluid within the lung's interstitial and alveolar spaces, commonly due to increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure, often from **left-sided heart failure**. *Hydrothorax* - Hydrothorax refers to the accumulation of serous fluid (transudate) specifically within the **pleural space**, not the lung parenchyma itself. - Radiographically, this would present as **blunting of the costophrenic angle** and a **meniscus sign**, which are not the primary features seen in this image. *Pleural effusion* - This is a general term for fluid in the pleural space. The dominant pathology in the provided X-ray is within the **lung parenchyma**, not the pleural cavity. - While a small reactive effusion can accompany pulmonary oedema, the main findings are the diffuse **alveolar infiltrates**, not a large fluid collection obscuring the lung base. *Pulmonary fibrosis* - Pulmonary fibrosis involves chronic **scarring of lung tissue**, which appears as **reticular patterns**, **honeycombing**, or traction bronchiectasis on an X-ray. - The opacities in this image are hazy and "fluffy," which is characteristic of acute fluid accumulation, not the fine, linear patterns of chronic fibrosis.

Question 9: A 65-year-old patient presents with abdominal distension and constipation. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the abdominal X-ray shown?

A. Caecal Volvulus
B. Sigmoid Volvulus (Correct Answer)
C. Intestinal Obstruction
D. Small Bowel Volvulus

Explanation: ***Sigmoid Volvulus*** - The abdominal X-ray shows a classic **coffee bean sign**, which is a massively dilated, inverted U-shaped loop of the sigmoid colon rising from the pelvis. - The loop is characteristically **ahaustral** (lacking haustra) and its apex points towards the right upper quadrant, confirming the diagnosis of sigmoid volvulus. *Caecal Volvulus* - A caecal volvulus typically appears as a **kidney-shaped** or comma-shaped dilated loop of bowel, often located in the left upper quadrant or mid-abdomen. - Unlike the sigmoid, the dilated caecum in a volvulus usually retains its **haustral markings**. *Intestinal Obstruction* - While a volvulus does cause an intestinal obstruction, this option is a general finding rather than the specific diagnosis indicated by the classic radiographic sign. - General large bowel obstruction typically shows colonic dilation proximal to the blockage, without the specific twisted appearance of the **coffee bean sign**. *Small Bowel Volvulus* - A small bowel volvulus would involve dilated loops of the small bowel, which would typically show **valvulae conniventes** (plicae circulares). - This condition is rare in adults and the image clearly shows a dilated, **ahaustral** segment of the large bowel, which is inconsistent with small bowel anatomy.

Question 10: Based on the provided X-ray image, identify the most likely diagnosis.

A. Osteosarcoma (Correct Answer)
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Gout
D. Ewing sarcoma

Explanation: ***Osteosarcoma*** - The X-ray demonstrates a classic **"sunburst"** or **"sun-ray"** appearance, which is a periosteal reaction caused by tumor spicules radiating outwards. This is a hallmark sign of osteosarcoma. - This malignant tumor typically arises in the **metaphysis** of long bones, such as the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus, and is often associated with a soft tissue mass and aggressive bone destruction. *Ewing sarcoma* - Radiographically, Ewing sarcoma more commonly presents with a lamellated or **"onion-skin"** periosteal reaction or a destructive, **"moth-eaten"** appearance. - It is a **small round blue cell tumor** that typically affects the **diaphysis** of long bones in children and young adults. *Chondrosarcoma* - This is a malignant tumor of cartilage-producing cells, characterized by **"popcorn"** or **"ring-and-arc"** calcifications on X-ray, which are not seen in this image. - Chondrosarcoma typically affects older adults (over 40) and commonly involves the bones of the pelvis and trunk. *Gout* - Gout is a form of inflammatory arthritis, not a tumor. Its classic radiographic finding is **"punched-out"** erosions with sclerotic margins and overhanging edges, often called **"rat-bite"** erosions. - It does not cause a sunburst periosteal reaction and commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint.