ENT
6 questionsThe image below shows a lateral view of the face with a highlighted region in front of the ear. Which type of abscess is most likely indicated in this area?
A patient presents with a history of fall and is found to have bleeding from the ear on examination. What is the investigation of choice?
A 60-year-old man complains of gradual hearing loss over several years. He reports difficulty hearing conversations, especially in noisy environments, and has trouble perceiving high-pitched sounds. There are no episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, or ear fullness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A diabetic male presents with facial pain and blackish discoloration in the nose. The CT image shows bone erosion and sinus involvement. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A tympanometry graph is shown below. An arrow indicates a shallow peak at pressure = 0 daPa. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the tympanometry result shown?
Identify the abscess type indicated by label 'L' in the provided image.
FMGE 2025 - ENT FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 531: The image below shows a lateral view of the face with a highlighted region in front of the ear. Which type of abscess is most likely indicated in this area?
- A. Zygomatic abscess
- B. Bezold's abscess
- C. Citelli’s abscess
- D. Luc's abscess (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Luc's abscess*** - This is a **subperiosteal abscess** located in the **preauricular region**, on the external surface of the squamous part of the temporal bone, which corresponds to the highlighted area. - It is a rare complication of **acute otitis media** or **mastoiditis**, occurring when infection spreads through the tympanosquamous suture. *Citelli’s abscess* - This abscess is located at the **tip of the mastoid process** and extends into the **digastric triangle** of the neck, which is posterior and inferior to the area shown. - It is formed when pus from mastoiditis tracks along the posterior belly of the **digastric muscle**. *Bezold's abscess* - This is a **deep neck abscess** that forms when infection erodes through the medial aspect of the mastoid tip and spreads inferiorly into the neck. - The swelling is located deep to the **sternocleidomastoid muscle**, far from the preauricular location shown in the image. *Zygomatic abscess* - This abscess forms over the **zygomatic process** of the temporal bone, which is located superior and anterior to the external auditory canal. - It results from the spread of infection from mastoid air cells into the **root of the zygoma**, a location slightly more superior than what is highlighted.
Question 532: A patient presents with a history of fall and is found to have bleeding from the ear on examination. What is the investigation of choice?
- A. X-ray Skull
- B. MRI Brain
- C. CBC
- D. CT Temporal bone (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CT Temporal bone***- This is the **investigation of choice** for suspected **temporal bone fractures**, which are strongly suggested by **otorrhagia** (bleeding from the ear) following trauma.- CT provides superior resolution for visualizing the intricate bony anatomy of the temporal bone, allowing for the precise identification of fracture line extension (e.g., *longitudinal* or *transverse*) and related complications like **ossicular chain integrity** or **hemotympanum**.*CBC*- Complete Blood Count (CBC) is part of the initial trauma workup to assess general systemic status (e.g., potential **blood loss** or baseline hemoglobin), but it is not a diagnostic tool for identifying the source of bleeding (the anatomical injury).- It provides no structural information necessary to localize the injury or determine the presence of a **skull fracture**.*MRI Brain*- **MRI** is optimized for visualizing **soft tissue injury** (e.g., brain contusions, nerve damage) and is poor for detailing acute bony fractures, especially the fine structures of the temporal bone.- It may be used if profound neurological deficits or specific **intracranial injury** (e.g., vascular dissection or brain parenchymal damage) are suspected, but not as the primary diagnostic imaging for bony trauma.*X-ray Skull*- **Plain X-rays** lack the sensitivity and detail required to reliably capture the subtle, complex fractures of the **temporal bone** or skull base.- This method is largely superseded by **CT scans** for trauma evaluation due to high rates of **false negatives** regarding skull base injuries.
Question 533: A 60-year-old man complains of gradual hearing loss over several years. He reports difficulty hearing conversations, especially in noisy environments, and has trouble perceiving high-pitched sounds. There are no episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, or ear fullness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Meniere’s disease
- B. Presbycusis (Correct Answer)
- C. Otosclerosis
- D. Acoustic neuroma
Explanation: ***Correct: Presbycusis*** - It is the most common cause of **gradual, bilateral sensorineural hearing loss** in the elderly, characterized by a protracted course over several years. - The defining feature is difficulty hearing **high-pitched sounds** (loss of high-frequency hearing) and **poor speech discrimination** in noisy environments, consistent with the clinical picture. - This is age-related cochlear degeneration, typically beginning after age 50-60. *Incorrect: Meniere's disease* - This condition is defined by the classic triad of **episodic vertigo**, **fluctuating (usually low-frequency) sensorineural hearing loss**, and **tinnitus** with aural fullness, none of which are present. - The hearing loss is typically episodic and unilateral, contrasting with the patient's chronic, gradual deterioration. *Incorrect: Otosclerosis* - This disorder causes **conductive hearing loss** (or mixed loss) due to abnormal bone growth around the **stapes footplate**, often presenting earlier in life (20s–30s). - Unlike the gradual, high-frequency loss seen here, otosclerosis causes reduced sound transmission to the inner ear, typically improving speech perception in noise (**paracusis Willisii**). *Incorrect: Acoustic neuroma* - Although it causes sensorineural hearing loss, it is typically **unilateral** and often asymmetrical, frequently accompanied by **unilateral tinnitus** and imbalance. - This diagnosis is less likely in a patient with **bilateral**, gradual hearing loss without unilateral symptoms or specific cranial nerve involvement.
Question 534: A diabetic male presents with facial pain and blackish discoloration in the nose. The CT image shows bone erosion and sinus involvement. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute bacterial sinusitis
- B. Allergic fungal sinusitis
- C. Rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Nasal polyposis
Explanation: ***Rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis*** - This diagnosis is strongly suggested by the clinical triad of an **immunocompromised state (diabetes)**, the presence of a **black necrotic eschar** in the nose, and imaging evidence of **bone erosion**. - Mucormycosis is an **angioinvasive** fungal infection that causes tissue infarction and necrosis, leading to the characteristic black discoloration and rapid spread through tissues. *Acute bacterial sinusitis* - While it causes facial pain and sinus inflammation, it typically presents with purulent discharge and does not cause a **black necrotic eschar**. - **Bone erosion** is a very rare complication and not a characteristic feature, unlike in invasive fungal disease. *Allergic fungal sinusitis* - This is a **non-invasive** hypersensitivity reaction to fungi and does not cause tissue destruction, necrosis, or bone erosion. - It is characterized by the presence of thick **allergic mucin** containing eosinophils and fungal hyphae within the sinuses, often in atopic individuals. *Nasal polyposis* - This condition involves benign mucosal growths that cause chronic nasal obstruction and anosmia, not acute facial pain or tissue necrosis. - Nasal polyps may remodel bone over time due to pressure, but they do not cause the rapid and destructive **bone erosion** seen in this invasive process.
Question 535: A tympanometry graph is shown below. An arrow indicates a shallow peak at pressure = 0 daPa. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the tympanometry result shown?
- A. Type A
- B. Type B
- C. Type Ad
- D. Type As (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Type As*** - This tympanogram shows a peak pressure within the normal range (around 0 daPa) but with significantly reduced static compliance (a shallow or stiff peak), which is characteristic of a Type As curve. - This finding indicates a stiff middle ear system and is commonly associated with conditions like **otosclerosis**, **tympanosclerosis**, or **ossicular fixation**. *Type A* - A Type A tympanogram represents a **normal** middle ear system, characterized by a sharp peak at normal pressure (around 0 daPa) and normal static compliance (0.3-1.6 mmho). - The graph shown has abnormally **low compliance**, distinguishing it from a normal Type A curve. *Type B* - A Type B tympanogram is a **flat line** with no discernible peak, indicating very poor compliance of the tympanic membrane across all pressures. - This pattern is typically seen with **fluid in the middle ear** (otitis media with effusion) or a tympanic membrane perforation, which is inconsistent with the peaked curve shown. *Type Ad* - A Type Ad tympanogram shows a peak at normal pressure but with **abnormally high compliance** (a deep or hypermobile peak). - This suggests a flaccid tympanic membrane or a discontinuity in the ossicular chain (**ossicular disarticulation**), which is the opposite of the low compliance seen in the provided image.
Question 536: Identify the abscess type indicated by label 'L' in the provided image.
- A. Luc's abscess (Correct Answer)
- B. Post auricular abscess
- C. Bezold's abscess
- D. Citelli's abscess
Explanation: ***Luc's abscess*** - This abscess forms when infection from a **mastoid abscess** spreads **anteriorly** into the **external auditory canal (EAC)**, typically through the fissures of Santorini or a defect in the posterior meatal wall. - Clinically, it presents as a swelling or sagging of the **posterosuperior wall** of the external auditory canal, which can be mistaken for a furuncle. *Citelli's abscess* - This forms when pus from the **mastoid tip** tracks inferiorly along the **posterior belly of the digastric muscle**. - It presents as a deep neck abscess, causing swelling in the **digastric triangle** of the neck. *Bezold's abscess* - This occurs when infection erodes the **mastoid tip** and spreads inferiorly along the sheath of the **sternocleidomastoid muscle**. - It manifests as a tender swelling in the upper part of the neck, deep to the sternocleidomastoid, and can cause **torticollis**. *Post auricular abscess* - Also known as a **subperiosteal abscess**, this forms when infection spreads **laterally** by eroding the mastoid cortex over **MacEwen's triangle**. - It characteristically presents as a tender, fluctuant swelling behind the ear, pushing the **pinna forwards and downwards**.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsA patient presents with fever after returning from a forest trip. On examination, a black eschar is noted on the abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis and its drug of choice?
FMGE 2025 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 531: A patient presents with fever after returning from a forest trip. On examination, a black eschar is noted on the abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis and its drug of choice?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Penicillin
- C. Artesunate
- D. Doxycycline (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Doxycycline (Scrub Typhus)*** - The clinical presentation of fever following a forest trip, along with a characteristic **black eschar** (tache noire), is highly suggestive of **scrub typhus**, a rickettsial infection caused by *Orientia tsutsugamushi*. - **Doxycycline** is the drug of choice for rickettsial diseases, including scrub typhus, as it effectively inhibits protein synthesis in these obligate intracellular bacteria. - The diagnosis is scrub typhus, and doxycycline is the first-line treatment with rapid clinical response typically within 24-48 hours. *Penicillin* - Penicillin targets bacterial **cell wall synthesis** and is primarily effective against gram-positive organisms like *Streptococcus* and *Staphylococcus*. - It is ineffective against intracellular pathogens like *Orientia tsutsugamushi*, which lack a typical peptidoglycan cell wall targeted by penicillins. *Ceftriaxone* - Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin used for a wide range of bacterial infections, such as meningitis and community-acquired pneumonia, but it is not the standard treatment for rickettsial diseases. - Clinical trials have shown that tetracyclines like doxycycline result in faster defervescence and better outcomes for scrub typhus compared to cephalosporins. *Artesunate* - Artesunate is a potent **antimalarial** drug used for treating severe malaria caused by *Plasmodium* species. - While malaria can cause fever after travel, it does not produce a necrotic eschar, which is a key diagnostic feature distinguishing scrub typhus from malaria.
Microbiology
1 questionsA farmer presents with fever, malaise, and diarrhea. There is a history of exposure to livestock. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for the illness?
FMGE 2025 - Microbiology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 531: A farmer presents with fever, malaise, and diarrhea. There is a history of exposure to livestock. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for the illness?
- A. Coxiella burnetii (Correct Answer)
- B. Rickettsia typhi
- C. Orientia tsutsugamushi
- D. Rickettsia rickettsii
Explanation: ***Coxiella burnetii*** - This organism causes **Q fever**, a common zoonosis transmitted primarily through aerosols generated from the births or products of infected livestock, such as **sheep, goats, and cattle**, which aligns with the patient being a farmer. - Acute Q fever typically presents with non-specific severe symptoms including high fever, headache, significant **malaise**, and sometimes gastrointestinal issues like **diarrhea**. *Rickettsia rickettsii* - This organism is responsible for **Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF)**, which is associated with a history of **tick bite** exposure, not direct livestock aerosol exposure. - RMSF classically presents with a prominent rash, often **petechial**, starting on the wrists and ankles and spreading centripetally, which is a key differentiating feature. *Rickettsia typhi* - This pathogen causes **murine typhus** (endemic typhus), transmitted through exposure to rat fleas, making it less likely given the farmer's exposure to livestock. - Murine typhus generally causes a milder presentation compared to epidemic typhus, often presenting with fever, headache, and a **truncal rash**. *Orientia tsutsugamushi* - This organism causes **scrub typhus**, found primarily in the Asia-Pacific region and transmitted by the bite of a **chigger** (mite larva). - A distinguishing feature of scrub typhus is the presence of a painless **eschar** (black, necrotic lesion) at the site of the chigger bite.
Surgery
2 questionsA professional singer presents with difficulty in raising the pitch of her voice following thyroid surgery. There is no hoarseness, but high-pitched voice production is impaired. Which nerve is most likely injured?
A patient presents with enophthalmos and periorbital ecchymosis after being hit by a ball. What is the most likely diagnosis?
FMGE 2025 - Surgery FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 531: A professional singer presents with difficulty in raising the pitch of her voice following thyroid surgery. There is no hoarseness, but high-pitched voice production is impaired. Which nerve is most likely injured?
- A. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) (Correct Answer)
- B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
- C. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (IBSLN)
- D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN)
Explanation: ***Correct: External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN)*** - The EBSLN innervates the **cricothyroid muscle**, which is responsible for increasing **vocal cord tension** - Injury results in inability to tense the vocal cords, causing **loss of high-pitched voice** production - Crucially, there is **NO hoarseness** because vocal cord adduction (brought together by other muscles) remains intact - Classic presentation: Professional singers or teachers notice difficulty hitting high notes after thyroid surgery *Incorrect: Recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN)* - RLN innervates all intrinsic laryngeal muscles **except** the cricothyroid - Injury causes **hoarseness** due to impaired vocal cord adduction - This patient has no hoarseness, making RLN injury unlikely *Incorrect: Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (IBSLN)* - IBSLN is purely **sensory** to the supraglottic larynx - Injury causes loss of sensation above the vocal cords, leading to **aspiration risk** - Does not affect voice pitch or motor function *Incorrect: Glossopharyngeal nerve* - Provides motor innervation to stylopharyngeus and sensory to pharynx/posterior tongue - **Not involved in laryngeal function** or voice production - Injury would cause dysphagia and loss of gag reflex, not voice changes
Question 532: A patient presents with enophthalmos and periorbital ecchymosis after being hit by a ball. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Le Fort I fracture
- B. Zygomatic fracture
- C. Orbital blowout fracture (Correct Answer)
- D. Nasal bone fracture
Explanation: ***Orbital blowout fracture*** - The clinical presentation of **periorbital ecchymosis** (bruising around the eye) and **enophthalmos** (posterior displacement of the eyeball) following blunt trauma from an object like a ball is classic for an orbital blowout fracture. - This injury often involves the thin orbital floor, leading to herniation of orbital contents into the maxillary sinus and potential entrapment of the **inferior rectus muscle**, which can cause **diplopia** (double vision) on upward gaze. *Zygomatic fracture* - A zygomatic (cheekbone) fracture typically causes facial flattening, a palpable **step-off deformity** along the orbital rim, and numbness over the cheek due to **infraorbital nerve** injury. - While it can be associated with an orbital floor fracture, isolated **enophthalmos** is not its primary presenting sign; facial asymmetry is more prominent. *Nasal bone fracture* - This is the most common facial fracture and presents with localized pain, swelling, deformity of the nasal bridge, and **epistaxis** (nosebleed). - **Enophthalmos** is not a feature of an isolated nasal bone fracture, although periorbital ecchymosis can be present. *Le Fort I fracture* - This is a horizontal fracture of the maxilla, resulting in a **"floating palate"** where the entire upper dental arch is mobile. - It is characterized by **dental malocclusion** and does not typically cause the isolated orbital signs of **enophthalmos** seen in this case.