FMGE 2025 Practice Questions

Q: Identify the structure marked as 'X' in the image below

Buccopharyngeal fascia. ***Buccopharyngeal fascia*** - This fascia is a subdivision of the **pretracheal layer** of the deep cervical fascia that encloses the pharynx, esophagus, and buccinator muscle. - The pointer 'X' correctly identifies this structure, which forms the anterior boundary of the **retropharyngeal space** located immediately posterior to the pharynx. *Prevertebral fascia* - This layer of deep cervical fascia encloses the **vertebral column** and the deep muscles of the neck (e.g., longus colli, scalene muscles). - It is located posterior to the **alar fascia** and forms the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck. *Pharyngobasilar fascia* - This is a strong fibrous sheet that forms the internal framework of the **pharyngeal wall**, situated between the mucous membrane and the muscular layer. - It is an **internal** structure and is not visible on the external surface of the pharynx as indicated in the image. *Alar fascia* - This is a thin fascial layer located between the **buccopharyngeal fascia** anteriorly and the **prevertebral fascia** posteriorly. - It subdivides the space behind the pharynx into the true **retropharyngeal space** and the more posterior **danger space**.

Q: Identify A and B in the image of the mosquito larvae given

A-Anopheles, B-Culex. ***A-Anopheles, B-Culex*** - Larva A is identified as **Anopheles** because it rests **parallel** to the water surface and lacks a respiratory **siphon**, breathing through palmate hairs on its abdominal segments. - Larva B is identified as **Culex** as it hangs at an **angle** to the water surface and breathes through a long, narrow respiratory **siphon**. *A-Culex, B-Aedes* - This is incorrect as larva A exhibits the characteristics of **Anopheles** (no siphon, parallel resting), not **Culex**. - While **Aedes** larvae also hang at an angle, larva B's long siphon is more typical of **Culex**; **Aedes** larvae usually have a shorter, stouter siphon. *A-Culex, B-Anopheles* - This option incorrectly reverses the identities. Larva A is **Anopheles** and larva B is **Culex** based on their distinct resting postures and respiratory structures. - The key differentiating feature is the presence of a **siphon** in B (**Culex**) and its absence in A (**Anopheles**). *A-Anopheles, B-Mansonia* - Although the identification of A as **Anopheles** is correct, larva B is not **Mansonia**. - **Mansonia** larvae are unique as they attach to the roots of aquatic plants to obtain oxygen and do not hang from the surface, unlike the larva shown in B.

Q: Which of the following is the formula for sensitivity?

TP/(TP+FN)x100. ***TP/(TP+FN)x100***- This is the formula for **sensitivity** (or True Positive Rate), which is the proportion of individuals who truly have the disease (**True Positives, TP**) who are correctly identified by the test.- The denominator $TP + FN$ accounts for all individuals who actually have the disease according to the **gold standard**, including those who tested negatively (**False Negatives, FN**).*TP/(TP+FP)x100*- This formula calculates the **Positive Predictive Value (PPV)**, which indicates the probability that a positive test result represents a true positive.- The denominator $TP + FP$ includes everyone who tested positive, regardless of their actual disease status (**True Positives** and **False Positives**).*TN/(TN+FP)x100*- This formula calculates **specificity** (or True Negative Rate), which is the proportion of individuals who are truly disease-free (**True Negatives, TN**) correctly identified by the test.- The denominator $TN + FP$ accounts for all individuals without the disease, including those who were incorrectly identified as positive (**False Positives, FP**).*TN/(TN+FN)x100*- This formula calculates the **Negative Predictive Value (NPV)**, which is the probability that a negative test result represents a true negative.- The denominator $TN + FN$ includes everyone who tested negative, reflecting the proportion of subjects with a negative test result who are truly disease-free.

Q: Which of the following is shown in the image below (circled)?

Osteomeatal complex. ***Osteomeatal complex*** - The circled area highlights the **osteomeatal complex (OMC)**, a functional unit of the lateral nasal wall located in the middle meatus. - The OMC is the final common drainage pathway for the **frontal**, **maxillary**, and **anterior ethmoid sinuses**, and its obstruction is a primary cause of chronic rhinosinusitis. *Columella* - The **columella** is the external, soft tissue structure that separates the nostrils at the base of the nose. - It is an external feature and is not an internal bony or mucosal structure visible in this coronal CT view of the paranasal sinuses. *Nasal valve* - The **nasal valve** is the narrowest segment of the nasal airway, located much more anteriorly in the nasal cavity, near the nostril opening. - It is a functional area defined by the junction of the nasal septum and the upper lateral cartilage, not the region shown in the middle meatus. *Crest of maxilla* - The **crest of the maxilla**, or nasal crest, is a bony ridge on the floor of the nasal cavity where the inferior edge of the nasal septum articulates. - The circled structure is located superiorly and laterally within the middle meatus, not on the inferior floor of the nasal cavity.

Q: In the context of mitral stenosis, which clinical feature is typically observed?

Loud S1. ***Loud S1*** - Mitral stenosis keeps the mitral leaflets in an open position until late diastole, resulting in an **abrupt and forceful closure** at the onset of systole, producing an abnormally loud S1. - This loud, snapping S1 is one of the **classic auscultatory findings** in non-calcific, mobile mitral stenosis. - The intensity of S1 correlates with valve mobility; as the valve becomes more calcified and immobile, S1 becomes softer. *Absent S1* - An absent or soft S1 indicates a **severely calcified, immobile mitral valve** (very advanced stenosis) or significant mitral regurgitation. - In early to moderate mitral stenosis, the valve leaflets remain mobile enough to generate a loud closure sound. - Loss of S1 intensity suggests progression to severe, end-stage valvular disease. *S3 gallop* - An S3 gallop is a sign of **rapid ventricular filling** caused by volume overload, typically heard in left ventricular systolic heart failure or significant mitral regurgitation. - Since mitral stenosis **restricts diastolic filling** into the left ventricle, an S3 is generally not heard in pure, isolated mitral stenosis. - The presence of S3 in a patient with MS should raise suspicion for coexistent left ventricular dysfunction or mixed valvular disease. *Muffled heart sounds* - Muffled or distant heart sounds suggest pathologies that dampen sound conduction, such as **pericardial effusion**, severe obesity, or emphysema. - Mitral stenosis characteristically produces **accentuated sounds** (loud S1, opening snap, diastolic rumble) rather than muffled sounds. - The presence of muffled sounds should prompt evaluation for alternative or additional cardiac pathology.

Q: 75% of iatrogenic ureteric injuries are due to gynaecological procedures. Which hysterectomy route has the least risk of ureteric injury?

Vaginal. ***Vaginal***- The **vaginal** route typically involves less extensive dissection in the lateral pelvis where the ureters are located, thus minimizing the risk of direct trauma or clamping. - The operation focuses more on the inferior attachments, avoiding the critical area where the ureter passes near the **uterine arteries** (the 'water under the bridge'). *Laparoscopic* - The risk can be significant due to the use of energy devices leading to **thermal injury** or entrapment during suture placement in the cardinal and uterosacral ligaments. - Reduced tactile feedback and potential for altered **3D visualization** increase the likelihood of inadvertent injury during dissection near the pelvic sidewall. *Abdominal* - Although providing good visualization, the procedure requires deliberate dissection near the **pelvic sidewall** where the ureter is vulnerable during clamping and suturing of the **uterine arteries**. - Ureter disruption or ligation often occurs during procedures for large uteri or in cases of **pelvic pathology** (e.g., severe endometriosis, fibroids) that distort anatomy. *Robotic* - Similar to laparoscopic approaches, it carries risks related to extensive use of **electrosurgical energy** and dissection near the ureters for complex cases. - Despite offering enhanced dexterity and 3D visualization, the manipulation and application of clips/sutures to the **cardinal ligaments** still require high vigilance to avoid ureter compromise.

Q: A postmenopausal woman presents with irregular bleeding, endometrium biopsy shows endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. What is the likely management?

LNG-IUS. ***LNG-IUS*** - The **Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)** is a first-line treatment for endometrial hyperplasia without atypia as it delivers a high concentration of **progestin** directly to the endometrium. - This local therapy effectively reverses hyperplasia by causing endometrial atrophy with minimal systemic side effects, making it an excellent choice for postmenopausal women. *OCP* - **Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)** contain both estrogen and progestin. Administering estrogen is contraindicated as endometrial hyperplasia is caused by unopposed estrogen stimulation. - OCPs are generally indicated for **premenopausal** women for contraception or cycle regulation, not for treating hyperplasia in the postmenopausal population. *Estradiol* - **Estradiol** is a form of estrogen. The pathophysiology of endometrial hyperplasia involves excessive endometrial proliferation due to unopposed estrogen. - Giving estradiol would worsen the condition and increase the risk of progression to **atypical hyperplasia** and endometrial carcinoma. *Danazol* - **Danazol** is a synthetic steroid with anti-estrogenic and weak androgenic properties that can induce endometrial atrophy, but it is not a first-line treatment. - Its use is limited by significant **androgenic side effects**, such as hirsutism, acne, and weight gain, making progestins the preferred therapeutic choice.

Q: A 50 year old female presented with a breast mass that was operated and the microscopic examination in given. What is the diagnosis?

Mucinous carcinoma breast. ***Mucinous carcinoma breast*** - The micrograph shows clusters and nests of relatively uniform tumor cells floating in abundant extracellular **mucin**, which is the hallmark of this diagnosis. - This subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma is typically well-differentiated, hormone receptor-positive (**ER/PR positive**), and carries a more favorable prognosis than conventional invasive ductal carcinoma. *Lobular carcinoma breast* - This carcinoma is characterized by small, discohesive tumor cells infiltrating the stroma individually or in a **single-file** or **“Indian file”** pattern, which is not seen here [1]. - A key feature is the loss of **E-cadherin** expression, leading to the discohesive nature of the cells [3]. *Medullary carcinoma* - Histologically, this tumor presents as poorly differentiated cells arranged in solid, **syncytial sheets** with a prominent **lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate** [2]. - The image lacks both the syncytial growth pattern and the dense inflammatory background characteristic of medullary carcinoma [2]. *Phyllodes tumour* - This is a biphasic **fibroepithelial tumor**, characterized by a hypercellular stromal component and an epithelial component arranged in a **leaf-like** (phyllodes) architecture. - The defining feature is the proliferating stroma, whereas the image shows a carcinoma defined by its epithelial cells and extracellular mucin. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 454-455. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 455-456. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1068-1069.

Q: A patient presented to the OPD with a sudden onset of shortness of breath. Identify the condition with the radiological image given below.

Laryngotracheobronchitis. ***Laryngotracheobronchitis*** - The AP neck radiograph displays the classic **"steeple sign,"** which is a tapered narrowing of the subglottic trachea (indicated by the arrow) due to inflammation. - This condition, also known as **croup**, is typically caused by a viral infection (most commonly **parainfluenza virus**) and presents with a characteristic **barking cough** and inspiratory stridor. *Epiglottitis* - This condition is characterized by the **"thumb sign"** on a *lateral* neck X-ray, which shows a swollen epiglottis, not the subglottic narrowing seen here. - Patients typically present more severely with high fever, **drooling**, dysphagia, and assume a **"tripod" posture**, which differs from the presentation of croup. *Bronchitis* - Bronchitis is an inflammation of the larger airways (bronchi) and would not produce findings in the subglottic region of a neck X-ray. - The primary symptom is a productive cough, and a **chest X-ray**, not a neck X-ray, would be the relevant imaging, which is often normal. *Laryngomalacia* - This is a congenital condition causing inspiratory stridor due to the collapse of soft laryngeal structures; it is not an acute infectious process. - The diagnosis is typically confirmed with **flexible laryngoscopy**, and plain radiographs are usually normal and do not show a steeple sign.

Q: Identify the sign given in the image below:

Double target sign. ***Double target sign*** - The image displays the **double target sign**, also known as the **halo sign**, which is highly suggestive of a **basilar skull fracture**. - This sign appears when blood mixed with **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)** is dropped onto an absorbent surface; the heavier red blood cells accumulate in the center, while the lighter CSF diffuses outward, forming a distinct ring. *Beta 2 transferrin sign* - This is not a visual sign but a highly specific laboratory test used to confirm a **CSF leak**. **Beta-2 transferrin** is a protein almost exclusively found in CSF. - The test involves analyzing fluid collected from the nose or ear (rhinorrhea or otorrhea) to detect the presence of this specific protein, confirming its origin is CSF. *Handkerchief sign* - The **handkerchief sign** (or reservoir sign) refers to the clinical observation of a patient with **CSF rhinorrhea** who constantly has to wipe their nose due to the continuous, watery discharge. - It describes a patient's action rather than the appearance of the fluid itself on a surface. *Tear drop sign* - The **tear drop sign** is a radiological finding seen on orbital imaging (X-ray or CT scan), not a clinical sign on a cloth. - It indicates an **orbital floor (blowout) fracture**, where orbital contents, such as fat and the inferior rectus muscle, herniate into the maxillary sinus, resembling a hanging teardrop.

Question 1

Identify the structure marked as 'X' in the image below

Accepted Answer

Buccopharyngeal fascia

Answer

Prevertebral fascia

Answer

Pharyngobasilar fascia

Answer

Alar fascia

Question 2

Identify A and B in the image of the mosquito larvae given

Accepted Answer

A-Anopheles, B-Culex

Answer

A-Culex, B-Anopheles

Answer

A-Culex, B-Aedes

Answer

A-Anopheles, B-Mansonia

Question 3

Which of the following is the formula for sensitivity?

Accepted Answer

TP/(TP+FN)x100

Answer

TN/(TN+FP)x100

Answer

TP/(TP+FP)x100

Answer

TN/(TN+FN)x100

Question 4

Which of the following is shown in the image below (circled)?

Accepted Answer

Osteomeatal complex

Answer

Nasal valve

Answer

Columella

Answer

Crest of maxilla

Question 5

In the context of mitral stenosis, which clinical feature is typically observed?

Accepted Answer

Loud S1

Answer

S3 gallop

Answer

Muffled heart sounds

Answer

Absent S1

Question 6

75% of iatrogenic ureteric injuries are due to gynaecological procedures. Which hysterectomy route has the least risk of ureteric injury?

Accepted Answer

Vaginal

Answer

Laparoscopic

Answer

Robotic

Answer

Abdominal

Question 7

A postmenopausal woman presents with irregular bleeding, endometrium biopsy shows endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. What is the likely management?

Accepted Answer

LNG-IUS

Answer

Estradiol

Answer

OCP

Answer

Danazol

Question 8

A 50 year old female presented with a breast mass that was operated and the microscopic examination in given. What is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Mucinous carcinoma breast

Answer

Medullary carcinoma

Answer

Lobular carcinoma breast

Answer

Phyllodes tumour

Question 9

A patient presented to the OPD with a sudden onset of shortness of breath. Identify the condition with the radiological image given below.

Accepted Answer

Laryngotracheobronchitis

Answer

Epiglottitis

Answer

Bronchitis

Answer

Laryngomalacia

Question 10

Identify the sign given in the image below:

Accepted Answer

Double target sign

Answer

Handkerchief sign

Answer

Beta 2 transferrin sign

Answer

Tear drop sign

FMGE 2025

Anatomy

Community Medicine

ENT

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Radiology

Surgery