Anatomy
1 questionsA corneal wisp test was performed, and the corneal reflex was elicited. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the afferent limb of this reflex?
FMGE 2025 - Anatomy FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A corneal wisp test was performed, and the corneal reflex was elicited. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the afferent limb of this reflex?
- A. Trigeminal Nerve (Correct Answer)
- B. Abducens Nerve
- C. Oculomotor Nerve
- D. Facial Nerve
Explanation: ***Trigeminal Nerve*** - The **afferent limb** (sensory input) of the corneal reflex is mediated by the **ophthalmic division (V1)** of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V). - Sensory stimulation of the cornea sends impulses to the main sensory nucleus of CN V in the **pons**. *Facial Nerve* - The Facial Nerve (CN VII) constitutes the **efferent limb** of the corneal reflex, transmitting the motor signal. - This motor signal causes the eyelid closure reaction (blinking) by innervating the **orbicularis oculi** muscle. *Oculomotor Nerve* - The Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) is primarily responsible for most ocular movements and the **pupillary light reflex** (efferent limb), but not corneal sensation. [1] - It innervates the **levator palpebrae superioris** muscle, which controls eyelid opening, the opposite action of the reflex blink. *Abducens Nerve* - The Abducens Nerve (CN VI) is solely responsible for innervating the **lateral rectus** muscle, controlling lateral eye movement. - It plays no role in either the afferent (sensory) or efferent (motor) component of the corneal reflex pathway.
Anesthesiology
1 questionsA patient undergoing general anesthesia develops left lung collapse following intubation. On auscultation, breath sounds are heard only on the right side. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
FMGE 2025 - Anesthesiology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A patient undergoing general anesthesia develops left lung collapse following intubation. On auscultation, breath sounds are heard only on the right side. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
- A. Pneumothorax on the left side due to positive pressure ventilation
- B. Bronchospasm
- C. Right endobronchial intubation (Correct Answer)
- D. Mucus secretions obstructing the endotracheal tube
Explanation: ***Right endobronchial intubation***- This is the most common cause of unilateral lung collapse *immediately* following intubation, as the endotracheal tube (ETT) is usually advanced too far into the **right main bronchus (RMB)**, which is wider and less acutely angled than the left.- When the ETT is solely in the RMB, air ventilates the right lung exclusively, resulting in **absent breath sounds** and subsequent **atelectasis** (collapse) of the non-ventilated left lung.*Mucus secretions obstructing the endotracheal tube*- Significant obstruction of the ETT by mucus would typically lead to **bilateral loss of breath sounds** or severely impaired ventilation (high peak inspiratory pressures), affecting both lungs equally.- The specific finding of unilateral breath sounds (only on the right) excludes a primary blockage of the ETT itself.*Pneumothorax on the left side due to positive pressure ventilation*- While a left **pneumothorax** can cause absent breath sounds on the left, it would involve air accumulation in the pleural space, often requiring significant barotrauma, and is a less frequent and less immediate cause than mainstem intubation following successful intubation.- The clinical picture of immediate unilateral absence of breath sounds following intubation is overwhelmingly attributed to ETT malposition, which causes obstructive **atelectasis** (collapse), not tension pneumothorax.*Bronchospasm*- **Bronchospasm** is characterized by diffuse airway narrowing, typically presenting with high **peak inspiratory pressures** and **wheezing** heard over both lung fields.- It impairs air entry bilaterally and would not result in the complete unilateral absence of breath sounds and lung collapse described, which is indicative of complete airway obstruction to the non-ventilated lung.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsA patient is positive for HBsAg and anti-HBc IgM. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A farmer presents with fever and subconjunctival hemorrhage. The microscopic agglutination test is found to be positive. What is the diagnosis?
FMGE 2025 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A patient is positive for HBsAg and anti-HBc IgM. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute hepatitis (Correct Answer)
- B. Recovery phase
- C. Vaccination
- D. Chronic hepatitis
Explanation: ***Acute hepatitis***- The simultaneous presence of **HBsAg** (Hepatitis B surface antigen) indicates active infection [1], paired with **anti-HBc IgM** (Immunoglobulin M against the core antigen) [2].- **Anti-HBc IgM** is the serological hallmark of a recent or **acute** Hepatitis B infection, typically detectable for up to 6 months after symptom onset [1].*Chronic hepatitis*- Chronic infection is defined by the persistence of **HBsAg** for **more than six months** [1].- The predominant core antibody present in chronic infection is **anti-HBc IgG**, whereas Anti-HBc IgM becomes undetectable [1].*Recovery phase*- The recovery phase is marked by the presence of **anti-HBs** (Hepatitis B surface antibody), indicating clearance of the virus and protective immunity [1].- During recovery, **HBsAg** is negative, and **anti-HBc IgM** is absent, leaving only **anti-HBc IgG** and anti-HBs [1].*Vaccination*- Successful vaccination only produces immunity against the surface antigen, resulting solely in the presence of **anti-HBs** [1].- Both **HBsAg** and **anti-HBc** (IgM or IgG) are universally negative following vaccination [1].
Question 162: A farmer presents with fever and subconjunctival hemorrhage. The microscopic agglutination test is found to be positive. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Brucella
- B. E coli
- C. Staph aureus
- D. Leptospira (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Leptospira***- The clinical presentation of fever in a patient with an occupation involving exposure to animal habitats (farmer), coupled with the classic finding of **subconjunctival hemorrhage** (conjunctival suffusion), highly suggests **Leptospirosis** (Weil's disease) [1]. - The **Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT)** is the gold standard serological test for the diagnosis of **Leptospirosis**, supporting this etiology [1]. *Brucella* - *Brucella* causes **Brucellosis** (Undulant Fever), characterized primarily by cyclical undulating fevers, night sweats, and localized infection (e.g., osteomyelitis or epididymitis), not typically subconjunctival hemorrhage. - Diagnosis usually involves blood culture or the Standard Tube Agglutination Test (SAT), not MAT. *E coli* - *E. coli* is a common cause of GI infections, UTIs, and sepsis; systemic *E. coli* disease does not typically manifest with the specific finding of subconjunctival hemorrhage. - MAT is not used for the diagnosis of *E. coli* infections, which are confirmed primarily through culture. *Staph aureus* - *S. aureus* can cause a wide range of infections (skin infections, endocarditis, sepsis) but is not associated with the specific syndrome presenting here (farmer, subconjunctival hemorrhage). - Diagnosis relies on culture, not serological tests like MAT, which is specific for spirochetes.
Ophthalmology
2 questionsA patient presents with right-sided field defects in both eyes, but central vision remains unaffected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A patient sustained blunt trauma to the eye 6 months ago and now presents with blurring of vision. What is the most likely condition?
FMGE 2025 - Ophthalmology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A patient presents with right-sided field defects in both eyes, but central vision remains unaffected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Optic Tract Lesion
- B. Homonymous Hemianopia with Macular Sparing (Correct Answer)
- C. Heteronymous Hemianopia with Central Sparing
- D. Optic Chiasm Lesion
Explanation: ***Homonymous Hemianopia with Macular Sparing*** - **Homonymous hemianopia** refers to a visual field defect on the same side in both eyes (in this case, the right side), which precisely matches the patient's presentation. - **Macular sparing** occurs because the occipital pole, which processes central vision, often has a dual blood supply from both the **posterior cerebral artery (PCA)** and the **middle cerebral artery (MCA)**, protecting it during a stroke affecting one vessel. *Heteronymous Hemianopia with Central Sparing* - **Heteronymous hemianopia** involves defects on opposite sides of the visual field in each eye (e.g., loss of both temporal fields), which is inconsistent with the patient's right-sided defect in both eyes. - This type of defect is classically caused by a lesion at the **optic chiasm**, such as a pituitary adenoma, leading to **bitemporal hemianopia**. *Optic Chiasm Lesion* - A lesion compressing the optic chiasm, where the nasal retinal fibers cross, typically causes **bitemporal hemianopia** (loss of peripheral vision in both eyes). - This results in a **heteronymous** defect, not a **homonymous** one as described in the question. *Optic Tract Lesion* - A lesion in the optic tract (posterior to the chiasm) does cause a contralateral **homonymous hemianopia**. - However, lesions in the optic tract typically do not spare the macula, as the fibers from the macula are intermingled with other fibers at this point. Macular sparing points towards a more posterior lesion in the **visual cortex**.
Question 162: A patient sustained blunt trauma to the eye 6 months ago and now presents with blurring of vision. What is the most likely condition?
- A. Iridodialysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Vossius Ring
- C. Cycloiriditis
- D. Ankyloblepharon
Explanation: ***Iridodialysis*** - This condition involves the tearing of the **iris root** from its attachment to the **ciliary body**, which is a known complication of significant **blunt ocular trauma**. - The separation creates a secondary pupillary opening, leading to symptoms like **monocular diplopia**, **glare**, and blurred vision, consistent with the patient's presentation and the image showing a detached iris segment. *Ankyloblepharon* - Ankyloblepharon refers to the partial or complete **fusion of the eyelids**, which is a condition affecting the external adnexa, not the internal structures of the eye like the iris. - It is typically **congenital** or can result from severe chemical burns or trauma to the eyelids themselves, and does not match the clinical image. *Vossius Ring* - A Vossius ring is a circular deposit of **pigment** on the anterior surface of the **lens capsule** that occurs after blunt trauma presses the iris against the lens. - While it is an indicator of past trauma, it is a finding on the lens and is not the structural iris damage seen here. It doesn't typically cause chronic blurring of vision on its own. *Cycloiriditis* - Cycloiriditis, or **iridocyclitis**, is an **inflammatory** condition of the iris and ciliary body, presenting with pain, redness, and photophobia. - This is an inflammatory process, not a structural tear. Examination would show signs of **anterior uveitis** (cells and flare), not a physical separation of the iris tissue.
Pediatrics
2 questionsA child was brought to the casualty with complaints of vomiting and loose stools with a history of laxative use. On examination, arrhythmia is present. What will be the abnormality present?
A neonate on examination has bilateral cataracts and, after investigations, is found to have a patent ductus arteriosus and salt and pepper retinopathy. What is the most likely congenital infection?
FMGE 2025 - Pediatrics FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A child was brought to the casualty with complaints of vomiting and loose stools with a history of laxative use. On examination, arrhythmia is present. What will be the abnormality present?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hypokalemia (Correct Answer)
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Explanation: ***Hypokalemia*** - **Laxative abuse** leads to significant gastrointestinal losses of fluid and electrolytes, particularly **potassium** - Combined with **vomiting and loose stools**, potassium depletion is further aggravated - **Hypokalemia causes cardiac arrhythmias** through altered myocardial excitability - **ECG changes** include: U waves, T wave flattening, ST segment depression, prolonged QT interval, and risk of ventricular arrhythmias - This is a classic presentation requiring **urgent potassium replacement** *Hypocalcemia* - Presents with **tetany, carpopedal spasm**, and perioral numbness - ECG shows **prolonged QT interval** but not typical arrhythmias seen here - Not primarily associated with laxative abuse *Hyperkalemia* - Causes **peaked T waves, widened QRS**, and bradyarrhythmias - Occurs with **renal failure or potassium retention**, not GI losses - Opposite of what occurs with laxative abuse and diarrhea *Hyponatremia* - Primarily causes **CNS symptoms**: confusion, seizures, altered sensorium - Cardiac arrhythmias are **not a typical feature** - Can occur with fluid losses but doesn't explain the arrhythmia
Question 162: A neonate on examination has bilateral cataracts and, after investigations, is found to have a patent ductus arteriosus and salt and pepper retinopathy. What is the most likely congenital infection?
- A. Varicella
- B. Rubella (Correct Answer)
- C. CMV
- D. Toxoplasma
Explanation: ***Rubella***- The constellation of **bilateral cataracts**, **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**, and **salt and pepper retinopathy** is highly characteristic, if not pathognomonic, of **Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS)**.- Other common findings in CRS include **sensorineural hearing loss**, microcephaly, and **pulmonary artery stenosis**.*CMV*- Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is classically associated with **periventricular calcifications** on neuroimaging, microcephaly, and **sensorineural hearing loss**.- While CMV can cause chorioretinitis, it rarely causes the specific combination of **cataracts** and **PDA** found in this neonate, which strongly favors rubella.*Toxoplasma*- Congenital toxoplasmosis typically presents with the classic triad of **hydrocephalus**, **intracranial calcifications** (often random or diffuse), and focal **chorioretinitis**.- It is not typically associated with common cardiovascular defects like **PDA** or the specific appearance of **salt and pepper retinopathy**.*Varicella*- Congenital Varicella Syndrome is characterized by **skin scarring** (often a zigzag pattern), **limb hypoplasia**, and cortical atrophy.- Ocular findings usually involve **microphthalmia** and severe scarring rather than the specific combination of **cataracts** and **PDA**.
Pharmacology
1 questionsA patient came to the hospital with muscle weakness, diarrhea, and bradycardia. He was diagnosed with organophosphate poisoning for which atropine was administered. After atropine administration, which of the following changes are not seen?
FMGE 2025 - Pharmacology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A patient came to the hospital with muscle weakness, diarrhea, and bradycardia. He was diagnosed with organophosphate poisoning for which atropine was administered. After atropine administration, which of the following changes are not seen?
- A. Nasal discharge
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Muscle weakness (Correct Answer)
- D. Diaphoresis
Explanation: ***Muscle weakness*** - Muscle weakness in organophosphate poisoning is a **nicotinic effect** caused by excessive acetylcholine at the **neuromuscular junction (NMJ)** - This leads to initial fasciculations followed by depolarization blockade and paralysis - **Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist** and has **no effect on nicotinic receptors** - Therefore, atropine does **not reverse muscle weakness** - this requires **pralidoxime** (2-PAM) to reactivate acetylcholinesterase - Muscle weakness is the change that is **NOT SEEN** after atropine administration *Bradycardia* - Bradycardia is a **muscarinic effect** on the heart (M2 receptors on SA node) - Atropine effectively blocks cardiac muscarinic receptors, leading to **increased heart rate** - This change (reversal of bradycardia) **IS SEEN** with atropine administration *Diaphoresis* - Excessive sweating is mediated by **muscarinic receptors** on eccrine sweat glands - Atropine blocks these receptors, causing **dry skin** (anticholinergic effect) - This change (cessation of sweating) **IS SEEN** with atropine *Nasal discharge* - Rhinorrhea (nasal secretions) is a **muscarinic effect** - part of SLUDGE syndrome - Atropine blocks glandular muscarinic receptors, causing **drying of secretions** - This change (reduction in nasal discharge) **IS SEEN** with atropine **Key Concept**: Atropine reverses only **muscarinic** effects (SLUDGE, bradycardia, bronchospasm) but NOT **nicotinic** effects (muscle weakness, fasciculations). Pralidoxime is needed for nicotinic symptoms.
Physiology
1 questionsA patient presents with high blood pressure accompanied by a decrease in heart rate. What is the most likely physiological mechanism responsible for this response?
FMGE 2025 - Physiology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A patient presents with high blood pressure accompanied by a decrease in heart rate. What is the most likely physiological mechanism responsible for this response?
- A. Inhibition of baroreceptors
- B. Stimulation of chemoreceptors
- C. Bezold-Jarisch reflex (J reflex)
- D. Stimulation of baroreceptors (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Stimulation of baroreceptors*** - High blood pressure causes stretching of the arterial walls (especially the **carotid sinus** and **aortic arch**), leading to robust activation of the **baroreceptors**. - This activation sends inhibitory signals to the vasomotor center, resulting in increased **parasympathetic (vagal) tone** to the heart, which causes reflex **bradycardia** (decreased heart rate). *Inhibition of baroreceptors* - Inhibition occurs when **blood pressure is low**; decreased stretch signals lead to increased sympathetic output. - This response typically causes **tachycardia** and peripheral vasoconstriction in an effort to raise the blood pressure, which contradicts the observed bradycardia. *Bezold-Jarisch reflex (J reflex)* - This reflex is triggered by intense chemical or mechanical stimulation of intracardiac receptors, usually resulting in **hypotension** and **bradycardia**. - It is frequently associated with conditions like **myocardial ischemia** or severe cardiac depressant drugs, but does not explain hypertension. *Stimulation of chemoreceptors* - Peripheral chemoreceptors are primarily stimulated by conditions such as **hypoxia**, severe acidosis, or hypercapnia. - While stimulation causes systemic vasoconstriction (raising BP) and reflex bradycardia, the baroreceptor mechanism is the most direct and primary regulator linking elevated BP to decreased HR.