A 27-year-old woman presents with irregular periods, acne & excessive hair growth. What is the first line management?
What is the hormonal check for pregnancy at home?
Identify the CTG pattern?
Identify the medical device shown in the image.
What is the earliest sign of pregnancy on TVS?
75% of iatrogenic ureteric injuries are due to gynaecological procedures. Which hysterectomy route has the least risk of ureteric injury?
A postmenopausal woman presents with irregular bleeding, endometrium biopsy shows endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. What is the likely management?
Which of the following CVS changes are not seen in pregnancy?
A 38 year old woman presents with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic discomfort, and frequent urination. On physical examination, her uterus is found to be irregularly enlarged. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 25-year-old female presents with irregular menstrual cycles, acne, and excessive hair growth. An ultrasound reveals multiple ovarian cysts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
FMGE 2025 - Obstetrics and Gynecology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 27-year-old woman presents with irregular periods, acne & excessive hair growth. What is the first line management?
- A. OCPs
- B. Metformin
- C. Clomiphene citrate
- D. Lifestyle modifications (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lifestyle modifications***- As many patients with **PCOS** are overweight or obese, lifestyle changes (diet and exercise) are crucial for tackling associated **insulin resistance** and obesity.- Weight loss, even modest amounts (5-10%), often significantly improves menstrual regularity, metabolic profiles, and symptoms of **hyperandrogenism**.*Metformin*- Used primarily to improve **insulin sensitivity** and may help regulate cycles, but it is typically initiated after lifestyle interventions have proven insufficient or when glucose intolerance is confirmed.- It is not recommended as the initial management strategy unless the patient has confirmed **Type 2 Diabetes** or severe insulin resistance.*OCPs*- Oral contraceptive pills are highly effective for managing symptoms like **hirsutism** (by increasing **SHBG** and decreasing free testosterone) and regulating menses.- While effective symptomatically, they are usually introduced after lifestyle changes have failed, or if symptoms are severe and require immediate hormonal suppression.*Clomiphene citrate*- This medication is specifically used as a **fertility treatment** to induce ovulation in anovulatory women with PCOS who are seeking pregnancy.- It does not treat the hyperandrogenism (acne, hirsutism) or metabolic issues associated with PCOS, and thus is not the first-line management for the presenting symptoms.
Question 22: What is the hormonal check for pregnancy at home?
- A. Beta-HCG (Correct Answer)
- B. Estrogen
- C. Progesterone
- D. HPL
Explanation: ***Beta-HCG***- This hormone (specifically the **beta subunit of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin**) is detected by **home pregnancy test kits** in the urine, offering a simple and rapid test for confirming pregnancy.- It is produced by the **syncytiotrophoblast** cells after implantation and is the earliest reliable hormonal biomarker for clinically diagnosing pregnancy.*Estrogen*- While estrogen levels (e.g., **estriol**) increase significantly throughout pregnancy, they are not the hormone used for rapid, qualitative, early, **home-based detection**.- Estrogen levels fluctuate widely during the normal menstrual cycle, making it an unreliable early marker compared to HCG.*Progesterone*- Progesterone is essential for maintaining the uterine lining (**endometrium**) and supporting early pregnancy, but its measurement is typically reserved for evaluating **corpus luteum function** or threatened miscarriage.- Since progesterone levels rise naturally during the luteal phase of the regular cycle, it does not confirm pregnancy with the high specificity HCG offers.*HPL*- **Human Placental Lactogen (HPL)**, also known as **chorionic somatomammotropin**, is produced relatively later by the placenta.- Its primary role is in regulating maternal metabolism and fetal growth, and it is not typically detectable or useful for confirming a very **early home diagnosis** of pregnancy.
Question 23: Identify the CTG pattern?
- A. Early deceleration (Correct Answer)
- B. Late deceleration
- C. Variable
- D. Normal
Explanation: ***Early deceleration*** - This pattern is characterized by a gradual, symmetrical decrease in fetal heart rate (FHR) where the onset, nadir, and recovery of the deceleration coincide with the beginning, peak, and end of a uterine contraction, creating a **mirror image**. - Early decelerations are caused by **fetal head compression** during contractions, which elicits a vagal response. They are considered physiological and are not typically associated with fetal hypoxia or acidosis. *Late decelerations* - These are characterized by a gradual decrease in FHR where the nadir of the deceleration occurs **after the peak** of the uterine contraction, indicating a delayed response. - Late decelerations are a non-reassuring sign caused by **uteroplacental insufficiency**, suggesting impaired oxygen exchange to the fetus. *Variable* - These are abrupt, sharp drops in the FHR that are variable in shape (often V, U, or W-shaped) and have an inconsistent relationship with uterine contractions. - Variable decelerations are caused by **umbilical cord compression**, which obstructs blood flow to the fetus. *Normal* - A normal or reassuring CTG trace would have a baseline FHR between 110-160 bpm, moderate variability (5-25 bpm), and the presence of accelerations with or without early decelerations. - While early decelerations can be part of a normal picture, the question asks to identify the specific pattern of deceleration present, which is 'early deceleration'.
Question 24: Identify the medical device shown in the image.
- A. Balloon Tamponade (Correct Answer)
- B. Umbrella pack
- C. Parachute pack
- D. Cervical ablation
Explanation: ***Balloon Tamponade*** - The image displays an intrauterine balloon, like a **Bakri balloon**, which is inflated within the uterine cavity to exert pressure on the bleeding surfaces of the endometrium. - This procedure, known as balloon tamponade, is a common and effective intervention for managing refractory **postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)**, particularly when caused by uterine atony. *Umbrella pack* - An umbrella pack is a method of uterine packing that uses gauze arranged in an "umbrella" fashion to apply pressure, rather than an inflatable balloon. - This technique is now less commonly used due to the availability of more effective and safer methods like balloon tamponade, and it carries a risk of **concealed hemorrhage**. *Parachute pack* - A parachute pack is another older gauze-packing technique used for uterine hemorrhage, distinct from the balloon device shown. - It has been largely superseded by modern interventions such as **uterine artery embolization** and balloon tamponade due to better outcomes and lower complication rates. *Cervical ablation* - Cervical ablation is a procedure to destroy abnormal tissue on the cervix, typically for treating **cervical dysplasia**, and does not involve an intrauterine balloon. - The image shows a device for hemorrhage control within the uterus, not a therapeutic procedure on the cervix itself.
Question 25: What is the earliest sign of pregnancy on TVS?
- A. Fetal pole
- B. Cardiac activity
- C. G sac (Correct Answer)
- D. Yolk sac
Explanation: ***G sac***- The **gestational sac** (G sac) is the first definitive sonographic sign of an intrauterine pregnancy (IUP) visible on TVS, typically appearing between **4.5 to 5 weeks** of gestation. - It is seen as a small, **anechoic** (fluid-filled) structure surrounded by a highly **echogenic rim** (trophoblastic tissue), often demonstrating the **double decidual sign**. *Yolk sac* - The **yolk sac** is visualized *after* the gestational sac, typically around **5 to 5.5 weeks** of gestation, located eccentrically within the gestational sac. - Its presence is crucial but is not the earliest structure seen on TVS. *Cardiac activity* - **Fetal cardiac activity** is usually first detectable by TVS comparatively later, generally around **6 to 6.5 weeks** of gestation. - The detection of cardiac activity requires the presence of a viable **fetal pole** (embryo). *Fetal pole* - The **fetal pole** (representing the early embryo) is generally first visualized by TVS around **5.5 to 6 weeks** of gestation. - While a very early finding, it appears slightly *after* the initial visualization of the **gestational sac** itself.
Question 26: 75% of iatrogenic ureteric injuries are due to gynaecological procedures. Which hysterectomy route has the least risk of ureteric injury?
- A. Laparoscopic
- B. Robotic
- C. Vaginal (Correct Answer)
- D. Abdominal
Explanation: ***Vaginal***- The **vaginal** route typically involves less extensive dissection in the lateral pelvis where the ureters are located, thus minimizing the risk of direct trauma or clamping. - The operation focuses more on the inferior attachments, avoiding the critical area where the ureter passes near the **uterine arteries** (the 'water under the bridge'). *Laparoscopic* - The risk can be significant due to the use of energy devices leading to **thermal injury** or entrapment during suture placement in the cardinal and uterosacral ligaments. - Reduced tactile feedback and potential for altered **3D visualization** increase the likelihood of inadvertent injury during dissection near the pelvic sidewall. *Abdominal* - Although providing good visualization, the procedure requires deliberate dissection near the **pelvic sidewall** where the ureter is vulnerable during clamping and suturing of the **uterine arteries**. - Ureter disruption or ligation often occurs during procedures for large uteri or in cases of **pelvic pathology** (e.g., severe endometriosis, fibroids) that distort anatomy. *Robotic* - Similar to laparoscopic approaches, it carries risks related to extensive use of **electrosurgical energy** and dissection near the ureters for complex cases. - Despite offering enhanced dexterity and 3D visualization, the manipulation and application of clips/sutures to the **cardinal ligaments** still require high vigilance to avoid ureter compromise.
Question 27: A postmenopausal woman presents with irregular bleeding, endometrium biopsy shows endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. What is the likely management?
- A. Estradiol
- B. OCP
- C. Danazol
- D. LNG-IUS (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***LNG-IUS*** - The **Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)** is a first-line treatment for endometrial hyperplasia without atypia as it delivers a high concentration of **progestin** directly to the endometrium. - This local therapy effectively reverses hyperplasia by causing endometrial atrophy with minimal systemic side effects, making it an excellent choice for postmenopausal women. *OCP* - **Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)** contain both estrogen and progestin. Administering estrogen is contraindicated as endometrial hyperplasia is caused by unopposed estrogen stimulation. - OCPs are generally indicated for **premenopausal** women for contraception or cycle regulation, not for treating hyperplasia in the postmenopausal population. *Estradiol* - **Estradiol** is a form of estrogen. The pathophysiology of endometrial hyperplasia involves excessive endometrial proliferation due to unopposed estrogen. - Giving estradiol would worsen the condition and increase the risk of progression to **atypical hyperplasia** and endometrial carcinoma. *Danazol* - **Danazol** is a synthetic steroid with anti-estrogenic and weak androgenic properties that can induce endometrial atrophy, but it is not a first-line treatment. - Its use is limited by significant **androgenic side effects**, such as hirsutism, acne, and weight gain, making progestins the preferred therapeutic choice.
Question 28: Which of the following CVS changes are not seen in pregnancy?
- A. S3
- B. Loud S1 splitting
- C. Soft Systolic murmur
- D. Diastolic murmur (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Diastolic murmur***- Diastolic murmurs are generally **pathologic** and are *not* considered normal physiological findings resulting from the changes of pregnancy.- Their presence often indicates significant underlying structural heart disease, such as **mitral stenosis** or **aortic regurgitation**, requiring comprehensive cardiac evaluation.*Soft Systolic murmur*- A low-grade, transient, **ejection systolic murmur** is very common (up to 90% of cases) due to the **hyperdynamic circulatory state**.- This flow murmur results from increased **cardiac output** and elevated stroke volume across normal valves.*S3*- A pronounceable **third heart sound (S3)** is frequently heard due to the large increase in circulating plasma volume leading to **volume overload**.- This sound is caused by the **rapid filling** of the ventricle during early diastole, a common finding in high-output states.*Loud S1 splitting*- The first heart sound (**S1**) often becomes noticeably **louder** during pregnancy due to the **hyperdynamic circulation** and elevated heart rate.- The increased heart rate and fluid volume can enhance the audibility and sometimes the perception of splitting due to the closure of the **mitral and tricuspid valves**.
Question 29: A 38 year old woman presents with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic discomfort, and frequent urination. On physical examination, her uterus is found to be irregularly enlarged. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Leiomyoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Ovarian cyst
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation: ***Leiomyoma***- The constellation of **heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)**, pelvic pressure symptoms (like frequent urination), and an **irregularly enlarged uterus** is the classic clinical presentation for **uterine leiomyomas (fibroids)**.- These benign tumors of the myometrium cause menorrhagia if they are submucosal, and pressure symptoms if they grow large and compress the surrounding bladder or bowel.*Endometriosis*- This condition is characterized by endometrial tissue outside the uterus, leading primarily to severe **dysmenorrhea**, **dyspareunia**, and chronic pelvic pain due to adhesions.- While it can cause pelvic symptoms, it does not typically result in an **irregularly enlarged uterus**; that finding strongly points to fibroids or adenomyosis.*Ovarian cyst*- A mass due to an ovarian cyst is an **adnexal** finding, meaning it arises from the ovary and is distinct from the uterine corpus.- Although very large cysts can cause pressure on the bladder, the uterus itself would not be described as **irregularly enlarged** in this diagnosis.*Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)*- PCOS is defined by chronic anovulation and hyperandrogenism, typically leading to **oligomenorrhea** (infrequent periods) or **amenorrhea**.- This diagnosis does not cause structural changes to the uterus (like enlargement) or primary symptoms of **menorrhagia**.
Question 30: A 25-year-old female presents with irregular menstrual cycles, acne, and excessive hair growth. An ultrasound reveals multiple ovarian cysts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) (Correct Answer)
- B. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
- C. Hypothyroidism
- D. Endometriosis
Explanation: ***Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)*** - This diagnosis is strongly suggested by the combination of clinical hyperandrogenism (**hirsutism** and **acne**) and chronic **anovulation** (irregular menstrual cycles). - PCOS is further supported by the **polycystic ovarian morphology** seen on ultrasound, fulfilling the diagnostic criteria (often Rotterdam criteria). *Endometriosis* - Endometriosis is characterized by the presence of **endometrial tissue outside the uterus**, classically presenting with chronic pelvic pain or **dysmenorrhea** (painful periods). - It typically does not cause the severe **hyperandrogenism** (acne, hirsutism) or chronic anovulation seen in this patient. *Hypothyroidism* - While hypothyroidism is a common cause of menstrual irregularities, it typically causes symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and **cold intolerance**. - It does not cause signs of **hyperandrogenism** like acne and hirsutism, which are key differentiating features in this case. *Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)* - OHSS is an iatrogenic condition, almost exclusively occurring after intensive **gonadotropin stimulation** used in fertility treatments. - It presents acutely with severe ovarian enlargement, abdominal distension, and potentially **third-spacing of fluids**, not as a chronic condition causing hirsutism.