FMGE 2025 — Forensic Medicine
15 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
A case of death of a married female within 3 years of marriage was reported. Inquest is done by?
A forensic expert received a summons from the district court to record his evidence in a criminal case, but two days prior, he already received a summons for a civil case in the same district court for the same date. What should the doctor do?
A person got stabbed in his anterior thigh and died. His body was brought for postmortem. What type of injury is this?
A villager was assaulted by 4-5 people & brought to hospital in serious condition. His dying declaration needs to be recorded in hospital. Who is the MOST PREFERRED authority to record this declaration?
What type of fracture is caused by a hammer?
A married female died under unnatural circumstances within 3 years of marriage. Her father filed a report to police and inquiry will be done under which section?
Leading questions can be asked in?
During a forensic examination, a skull bone was brought by police whose cephalic index came out to be 85. Skull bone belongs to which race?
A body brought for autopsy is cold and has developed rigor mortis in all 4 limbs and livor mortis at the back (fixed), but no signs of putrefaction. What will be the estimated time since death?
A 2-week-old infant is brought to the hospital. Parents report a history of a single fall, but X-ray reveals multiple fractures at different stages of healing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
FMGE 2025 - Forensic Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A case of death of a married female within 3 years of marriage was reported. Inquest is done by?
- A. Police
- B. Judicial
- C. Coroner
- D. Magistrate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Magistrate*** - According to **Section 176 of the CrPC**, an inquest by a **Judicial or Executive Magistrate** is mandatory in cases where a woman dies within **seven years** of marriage under suspicious circumstances, including potential dowry death or cruelty. - The death of a married female within 3 years falls under this mandatory period, requiring a **Magisterial Inquest** to ensure a thorough, unbiased investigation into the cause, especially regarding **dowry harassment**. *Incorrect: Judicial* - While a **Judicial Magistrate** can conduct the inquest under CrPC Section 176, the term is too specific, as often an **Executive Magistrate** is appointed for this role, making 'Magistrate' the more comprehensive correct answer. - The primary distinguishing feature is the mandatory involvement of either **Executive or Judicial Magistrate** to oversee the investigation. *Incorrect: Police* - A Police Inquest (under **CrPC Section 174**) is generally the default for unnatural deaths, but it is **not sufficient** alone for deaths occurring within seven years of marriage due to the high suspicion of cruelty or dowry demand. - The police conduct the initial collection of evidence, but the crucial formal investigation in these specific cases is mandated to be supervised or conducted by a **Magistrate**. *Incorrect: Coroner* - The **Coroner system** is largely historic or limited to only a few metropolitan areas (like Mumbai and Kolkata) in India; it is not the universally mandated authority for inquests under Indian law. - The legal framework covering suspicious deaths of married women requires investigation by the **Police** (Section 174) and subsequent, mandatory inquest by the **Magistrate** (Section 176).
Question 2: A forensic expert received a summons from the district court to record his evidence in a criminal case, but two days prior, he already received a summons for a civil case in the same district court for the same date. What should the doctor do?
- A. Attend the court for the criminal case. (Correct Answer)
- B. Attend the court for which the summons came first.
- C. Do not attend either court.
- D. Inform both courts and wait.
Explanation: ***Attend the court for the criminal case.***- In India, under the law of evidence and procedure, **criminal cases** are always given priority over **civil cases** when there are conflicting summons for the same date, even if the civil summons was received earlier.- The expert must attend the criminal proceedings and inform the civil court immediately in writing regarding the conflict and the legally mandated priority of the **criminal summons**.*Inform both courts and wait.*- Simply notifying both courts without making a decision on attendance is insufficient and represents a failure to comply with the legal obligation to prioritize the more serious case (**criminal proceeding**).- This action risks being held in **contempt of court** or attracting fines, as the expert is legally required to attend the proceeding of higher precedence.*Attend the court for which the summons came first.*- Priority in attending court is determined by the **nature of the case** (criminal taking precedence over civil), not by the **chronology** (the date the summons was received).- A criminal case deals with matters of public interest and potential loss of liberty, giving it inherent precedence over a civil dispute.*Do not attend either court.*- Failing to attend court after being served a legitimate summons (subpoena) constitutes professional misconduct and **contempt of court**.- The expert must prioritize and attend one court, usually the **criminal trial**, and seek valid authorization or exemption from the other.
Question 3: A person got stabbed in his anterior thigh and died. His body was brought for postmortem. What type of injury is this?
- A. Incised wound
- B. Blunt force injury
- C. Puncture wound
- D. Penetrating wound (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Penetrating wound***- This classification is used when a weapon or object, such as a knife, enters the body and involves tissues deep beneath the skin, with the depth significantly greater than the surface area. The injury is classified as **penetrating** because the weapon entered the body (likely compromising major structures like the **femoral vessels** in the thigh, leading to death) but did not exit the other side.*Incised wound*- An *incised wound* is typically a clean cut or slicing injury caused by a sharp edge where the **length of the wound usually exceeds its depth** and severity. These wounds are typically superficial, unlike a fatal stab that enters deep structures.*Puncture wound*- A *puncture wound* is caused by a pointed object (e.g., a nail or needle) and is characterized by a small entrance hole with depth, but the term **penetrating** is the more definitive classification for a severe stab wound caused by a weapon that enters deep structures or a body cavity.*Blunt force injury*- *Blunt force injuries* result from trauma caused by objects with a non-sharp surface (e.g., a bat, fist, or car bumper), leading to injuries such as **contusions, abrasions, or lacerations**, which is inconsistent with a sharp 'stab' injury.
Question 4: A villager was assaulted by 4-5 people & brought to hospital in serious condition. His dying declaration needs to be recorded in hospital. Who is the MOST PREFERRED authority to record this declaration?
- A. Doctor
- B. Hospital administration
- C. Police officer
- D. Magistrate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Magistrate*** - Under Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, a **Judicial Magistrate** is the **most preferred authority** to record a dying declaration to ensure impartiality and high evidential value in court. - The magistrate's recording carries the highest legal weight as it prevents future scrutiny regarding coercion, fabrication, or undue influence. - This is the gold standard for dying declarations in Indian medico-legal practice. *Doctor* - A doctor can record a dying declaration when a magistrate is unavailable, but this is a **secondary option**. - The doctor's primary role is certifying the patient's **mental competence** and **fitness** to make the declaration, both before and after recording. - While legally valid, doctor-recorded declarations may face more scrutiny in court compared to magistrate-recorded ones. *Police officer* - A police officer can record a dying declaration when neither a magistrate nor doctor is available, making it a **tertiary option**. - Police-recorded declarations often face the most scrutiny in court due to concerns about potential bias or influence. - The investigating officer should ideally avoid recording to maintain investigation integrity. *Hospital administration* - Hospital administration has **no legal authority** to record dying declarations. - Administrative staff lack the legal standing and training required for this medico-legal procedure. - Only magistrates, doctors, or police officers are recognized authorities under Indian law.
Question 5: What type of fracture is caused by a hammer?
- A. Hinge
- B. Linear
- C. Ring
- D. Depressed (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Depressed*** - This type of fracture is caused by a direct blow from a weapon with a small surface area, such as a **hammer** or a stone, concentrating the force in a localized area. - It is characterized by the inward displacement of a segment of the skull bone, which can potentially compress or lacerate the underlying **dura mater** and **brain tissue**. *Linear* - A **linear fracture** is a simple break in the bone that runs in a relatively straight line, without any displacement of the bone fragments. - It is the most common type of skull fracture and typically results from low-energy **blunt force trauma** over a wide surface area, such as a fall or being hit with a flat object. *Hinge* - A **hinge fracture** is a type of **basilar skull fracture** that traverses the base of the skull, often separating the anterior and middle cranial fossae from the posterior fossa. - This severe injury is typically caused by a major impact to the side of the head or chin, leading to significant intracranial damage and a high mortality rate. *Ring* - A **ring fracture** is a specific basilar skull fracture where the bone around the **foramen magnum** is broken, often detaching it from the rest of the skull base. - It is usually caused by forces transmitted along the vertebral column to the skull, such as a fall from a height landing on the feet or a severe blow to the top of the head.
Question 6: A married female died under unnatural circumstances within 3 years of marriage. Her father filed a report to police and inquiry will be done under which section?
- A. 116 BNS & 194 BNSS
- B. 194 BNSS/174 CrPC
- C. 106 BNS & 194 BNSS
- D. 196 BNSS/176 CrPC (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***196 BNSS/176 CrPC*** - This section (formerly **176 CrPC**, now **196 BNSS**) mandates a **Magistrate Inquiry** when a married woman dies under suspicious circumstances (e.g., unnatural death, suicide, accidental death) within **seven years** of marriage. - Since the death occurred within 3 years and was reported by the father as suspicious, a compulsory inquiry by an Executive Magistrate is legally required under this provision. *194 BNSS/174 CrPC* - This section (formerly **174 CrPC**, now **194 BNSS**) deals with the general procedure for **Police Inquest** (investigation into unnatural deaths). - While the police inquiry starts under 194 BNSS, it is insufficient alone; the death of a married woman within seven years necessitates the mandatory higher inquiry by a Magistrate specified under 196 BNSS. *116 BNS & 194 BNSS* - **116 BNS** (Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita) pertains to the criminal offense of **abetment of offenses punishable with imprisonment for life or imprisonment**, which relates to the crime, not the procedural inquiry into the death. - Pairing a substantive criminal law section (116 BNS) with a procedural section (194 BNSS - Police Inquest) does not accurately describe the specific mandatory inquiry process required for this suspicious death. *106 BNS & 194 BNSS* - **106 BNS** (Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita) deals with the offense where an act is done without the intention to cause death or grievous hurt, but is likely to cause death, known as **culpable homicide not amounting to murder**, which is unrelated to the inquiry itself. - This combination incorrectly merges a substantive criminal offense and the investigation procedure, failing to identify the mandatory Magisterial Inquiry section (196 BNSS).
Question 7: Leading questions can be asked in?
- A. Re-examination
- B. Anytime
- C. Examination in chief
- D. Cross-examination (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cross-examination*** - **Leading questions** are permitted during **cross-examination** as a tool to test the veracity, depth, and clarity of the witness's testimony elicited during the Examination-in-chief. - This is allowed because the witness being cross-examined is generally considered hostile to the party conducting the cross-examination, and suggestive questions are necessary to uncover inconsistencies. - According to **Section 142 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872**, leading questions may be asked in cross-examination. *Re-examination* - **Leading questions** are generally *not* permitted during **re-examination**, which follows cross-examination. - The purpose of **re-examination** is strictly to clarify doubts arising from cross-examination, and introducing new evidence or suggesting answers is restricted. *Anytime* - This is incorrect; there are specific legal stipulations regarding when **leading questions** can be asked, primarily limiting them to **cross-examination**. - Allowing them **anytime** would undermine the fairness of judicial proceedings (e.g., prohibited during **Examination in chief**). *Examination in chief* - **Leading questions** are strictly prohibited during the **examination in chief** (the first questioning of a witness by the party calling them) as per **Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872**. - This restriction ensures that the testimony presented is the witness's own uninfluenced account, preventing the counsel from suggesting answers to their own witness.
Question 8: During a forensic examination, a skull bone was brought by police whose cephalic index came out to be 85. Skull bone belongs to which race?
- A. European
- B. Mongoloids (Correct Answer)
- C. Negroes
- D. Aryan
Explanation: ***Mongoloids*** - The **cephalic index (CI)** is calculated as (Maximum breadth / Maximum length) × 100. A CI of 85 places the skull in the **Brachycephalic** category (broad head, CI 80-85). - This high cephalic index is a key characteristic used in forensic anthropology to identify skulls belonging to the **Mongoloid race**, which includes East Asian populations who typically have brachycephalic to hyperbrachycephalic skull shapes. *Negroes* - Skulls of the **Negro** (African) race are typically **dolichocephalic** (long-headed), characterized by a cephalic index generally below 75. - Their maximum length is significantly greater than their maximum breadth, making a CI of 85 highly unlikely. *Aryan* - The term "Aryan" generally refers to populations whose skulls fall into the **mesocephalic** range (CI 75-80). - A CI of 85 is significantly higher than the characteristic index associated with typical mesocephalic populations. *European* - Skulls of the general **European** (Caucasoid) population are most often categorized as **mesocephalic** (CI 75-80), sometimes tending towards dolichocephalic. - A CI of 85 indicates a skull that is very broad relative to its length (brachycephalic), which is not the standard finding for general European skulls.
Question 9: A body brought for autopsy is cold and has developed rigor mortis in all 4 limbs and livor mortis at the back (fixed), but no signs of putrefaction. What will be the estimated time since death?
- A. 24-48 hrs
- B. 6-12 hrs
- C. 12-24 hrs (Correct Answer)
- D. 36-48 hrs
Explanation: ***Correct Option: 12-24 hrs*** - At this stage, **rigor mortis** is typically fully established across all muscle groups (maximal development occurs around 12 hours) and has not yet started to resolve. - **Livor mortis** becomes **fixed** (non-blanching upon pressure) usually after 12 hours, placing the time since death beyond the initial 12-hour window. - **Putrefaction** has not yet begun, which is consistent with this timeframe as putrefactive changes typically start after 24 hours. *Incorrect Option: 6-12 hrs* - During this period, **rigor mortis** is still developing (maximal development is typically approached at 12 hours) and might not be present in all four limbs (starts in smaller joints/upper limbs). - **Livor mortis** is usually present but often still **unfixed** or only partially fixed, meaning it might shift or blanch with pressure. *Incorrect Option: 24-48 hrs* - Around 24 hours, **rigor mortis** generally begins to resolve (**passing off**) starting from the face and neck, contradicting the finding of full rigor in all four limbs. - This timeframe is when the first signs of **putrefaction** (e.g., green discoloration of the abdomen) usually become visible, which is stated to be absent in the body. *Incorrect Option: 36-48 hrs* - By 36 to 48 hours, **rigor mortis** is typically completely resolved (**secondary flaccidity**). - Putrefaction would likely be significantly advanced during this period, including potential signs like marked **marbling** or abdominal swelling.
Question 10: A 2-week-old infant is brought to the hospital. Parents report a history of a single fall, but X-ray reveals multiple fractures at different stages of healing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Accidental fall
- B. Birth trauma
- C. Battered baby syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation: ***Battered baby syndrome*** - The presence of **multiple fractures** at **different stages of healing** is the most definitive radiological sign of non-accidental injury, indicating repeated trauma over time. - There is a significant discrepancy between the history provided by the parents (a single fall) and the clinical findings, which is a major red flag for child abuse. *Osteogenesis imperfecta* - This is a genetic disorder characterized by brittle bones due to defective **collagen synthesis**, leading to fractures with minimal trauma. However, it does not explain the different stages of healing, which point to injuries occurring at different times. - Other clinical features, such as **blue sclerae**, hearing loss, and dentinogenesis imperfecta, would typically be present but are not mentioned in this case. *Accidental fall* - A single accidental fall would result in injuries that are all in the **same stage of healing**, which contradicts the X-ray findings in this infant. - The pattern and number of fractures are inconsistent with a simple fall, which usually causes a single, isolated injury like a linear skull fracture. *Birth trauma* - Injuries sustained during birth, such as a fractured **clavicle** or humerus, would all have occurred at the same time and thus be in the same healing phase. - At two weeks of age, any new fractures or fractures at different healing stages could not be attributed to the birth event.