Which of the following is the use of Shakir's tape?
Which of the following is not caused by food adulteration?
Which is the nodal ministry of disaster management?
A total of 60 patients were diagnosed with COVID-19. Out of which, 12 deaths were reported. Calculate the Case Fatality Rate?
In a normal distribution, the mean value is 82, the SD is 1.5. Calculate the range of two standard deviations?
Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Identify A and B in the image of the mosquito larvae given
Which of the following is the formula for sensitivity?
In a study based in Delhi, doctors followed 100 people who did exercise for a year and later they checked who all had developed coronary heart disease. Which type of study is this?
Which of the following is the fIPV dose schedule under the National Immunization Schedule?
FMGE 2025 - Community Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Which of the following is the use of Shakir's tape?
- A. Intersectoral coordination
- B. Appropriate technology (Correct Answer)
- C. Community participation
- D. Equitable distribution
Explanation: ***Appropriate technology*** - *Shakir's tape* (or **Mid-Upper Arm Circumference/MUAC tape**) is a simple, **low-cost device** used for screening **acute malnutrition** in children, making it an example of appropriate technology for primary healthcare settings - Appropriate technology refers to tools, techniques, and practices that are **practical, sustainable, and easily adaptable** to local conditions, perfectly describing the utility and design of Shakir's tape - It exemplifies the WHO principle of appropriate technology: simple, affordable, culturally acceptable, and maintainable with local resources *Intersectoral coordination* - This refers to collaboration between different sectors (e.g., health, education, agriculture) to achieve health goals - Shakir's tape is a **diagnostic/screening tool**, not a mechanism for policy coordination - Does not involve the organizational structures or policy dialogue necessary for effective intersectoral action *Equitable distribution* - This principle focuses on fair allocation of resources (e.g., vaccines, drugs, services) - While assessing malnutrition helps prioritize resource distribution, the tape itself is a **screening tool**, not a distribution mechanism - Equitable distribution is driven by **policy and resource management**, whereas the tape is a device used in **clinical assessment** *Community participation* - This involves involving the local population in health planning and implementation - While health workers often use the tape within the community, the tape itself is a **measurement instrument**, not a method for fostering participation - Community participation is achieved through **dialogue, decision-making inclusion**, and volunteerism, not through a specific measuring tool
Question 12: Which of the following is not caused by food adulteration?
- A. Endemic ascites
- B. Epidemic dropsy
- C. Fluorosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Neurolathyrism
Explanation: ***Fluorosis***- It results from excessive ingestion of **fluoride**, primarily through naturally high fluoride content in **drinking water** and not typically through intentional adulteration of processed food products.- The toxicity (dental or skeletal fluorosis) reflects a chronic environmental exposure problem rather than a case of acute or intentional food substance contamination.*Epidemic dropsy*- This condition is classically caused by the adulteration of **mustard oil** with **Argemone oil**, which contains the toxic alkaloid **sanguinarine**.- It is a recognized consequence of food fraud characterized by edema, skin pigmentation, and sometimes glaucoma.*Neurolathyrism*- It results from consuming food (such as chickpea flour) adulterated with excessive amounts of **Khesari dal (Lathyrus sativus)**.- The neurotoxin responsible is **BOAA (β-N-Oxalylamino-L-alanine)**, which causes irreversible motor neuron damage and spastic paraparesis.*Endemic ascites*- This condition, often presenting as **hepatic veno-occlusive disease (VOD)**, is caused by chronic consumption of food grains contaminated by **Pyrrolizidine alkaloids (PAs)**.- PAs are often found in weeds growing among food crops (like wheat or millets), and their inclusion during harvest is a form of accidental food contamination/adulteration leading to chronic liver damage.
Question 13: Which is the nodal ministry of disaster management?
- A. Ministry of Human Resource and Development
- B. Ministry of Education
- C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D. Ministry of Home Affairs (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ministry of Home Affairs*** - The **Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)** is the nodal ministry for disaster management in India as per the **Disaster Management Act, 2005** - The **National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)** functions under the MHA and is chaired by the Prime Minister - MHA coordinates disaster management activities including prevention, mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery - Responsible for policy formulation, capacity building, and overseeing state disaster management authorities *Ministry of Human Resource and Development* - Now renamed as Ministry of Education - Deals with educational policies and programs, not disaster management coordination *Ministry of Education* - Handles education sector disaster preparedness but is not the nodal ministry - May implement safety protocols in educational institutions during disasters *Ministry of Health and Family Welfare* - Plays a crucial role in health emergency response during disasters (medical relief, epidemic control) - However, it is a supporting ministry, not the nodal coordinating authority for disaster management
Question 14: A total of 60 patients were diagnosed with COVID-19. Out of which, 12 deaths were reported. Calculate the Case Fatality Rate?
- A. 40%
- B. 10%
- C. 30%
- D. 20% (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***20%*** - The **Case Fatality Rate (CFR)** is calculated by dividing the number of deaths from a specific disease by the total number of confirmed cases of that disease, multiplied by **100** to get the percentage. - Based on the data: (12 deaths / 60 cases) * 100 = **0.20** * 100 = **20%**. *30%* - This result is incorrect; it would correspond to **18 deaths** out of 60 cases, not the reported 12 deaths. - A calculation error yielding **30%** does not align with the standard formula for CFR using the given figures. *40%* - This percentage represents a CFR where **24 deaths** were reported among 60 cases, which is double the actual number of fatalities. - Such a high error suggests a significant misapplication of the **CFR formula**. *10%* - This value is incorrect; **10%** CFR would be obtained if only **6 deaths** occurred (6/60 * 100). - This result significantly underestimates the **Case Fatality Rate** as it is half of the calculated actual rate.
Question 15: In a normal distribution, the mean value is 82, the SD is 1.5. Calculate the range of two standard deviations?
- A. 60-68
- B. 79-85 (Correct Answer)
- C. 40-49
- D. 50-57
Explanation: ***79-85***- For a **normal distribution**, the range covering two standard deviations (2 SD) is calculated using the formula: **Mean $\pm$ (2 $\times$ SD)**. The $2\sigma$ interval encompasses approximately **95.45%** of the data points.- Calculation: Lower limit $= 82 - (2 \times 1.5) = 82 - 3 = 79$. Upper limit $= 82 + (2 \times 1.5) = 85$. The correct range is **79-85**. *60-68*- This range is highly incorrect as it is centered far below the **mean of 82** and the width (8 units) is too wide for a total of 3 units (2 SD) dispersion. - The lower limit of 60 is over 14 standard deviations away from the mean, indicating it is an outlier range not relevant to the $2\sigma$ calculation. *50-57*- This range is excessively far from the **mean of 82** and its width (7 units) does not correspond to the required 3 units of dispersion needed for $\pm 2$ SD. - Ranges like this would include virtually none of the observations expected in a population with a mean of 82 and a small **standard deviation** of 1.5. *40-49*- This interval is centered around 44.5, which is highly divergent from the actual **mean of 82**, and therefore cannot represent the population's $\pm 2$ SD range. - In a normal distribution, the data is symmetric around the mean; any calculated range must therefore include the mean near its center, which this option fails to do.
Question 16: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
- A. TDaP
- B. Rabies
- C. Influenza
- D. Varicella (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Varicella (Correct Answer)*** - This is a **live attenuated vaccine** that is **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to the theoretical risk of causing congenital infection, such as **fetal varicella syndrome** - Vaccination should be postponed until the **postpartum period** - If an unprotected pregnant woman is exposed, **Varicella-Zoster Immune Globulin (VZIG)** may be indicated *Influenza (Incorrect)* - The **inactivated influenza vaccine** (injectable form) is **recommended and safe** for all pregnant women, regardless of the trimester - Vaccination protects both the mother and the newborn by reducing the risk of severe **influenza-related morbidity** in the mother - Provides passive antibody transfer to protect the infant during the first 6 months of life *Rabies (Incorrect)* - This is an **inactivated (non-live) vaccine** that is **safe to administer during pregnancy** if post-exposure prophylaxis (**PEP**) is indicated - The necessity of protection against a life-threatening disease like **rabies** outweighs the minimal risks associated with the inactivated vaccine - No contraindication in pregnancy when indicated *TDaP (Incorrect)* - TDaP (**Tetanus, Diphtheria, and acellular Pertussis**) is a **recommended non-live vaccine** given during *every* pregnancy - Ideally administered between **27-36 weeks of gestation** to ensure maximum maternal antibody transfer to the fetus - Provides passive immunity to the newborn against **pertussis** (whooping cough), protecting vulnerable infants
Question 17: Identify A and B in the image of the mosquito larvae given
- A. A-Anopheles, B-Culex (Correct Answer)
- B. A-Culex, B-Anopheles
- C. A-Culex, B-Aedes
- D. A-Anopheles, B-Mansonia
Explanation: ***A-Anopheles, B-Culex*** - Larva A is identified as **Anopheles** because it rests **parallel** to the water surface and lacks a respiratory **siphon**, breathing through palmate hairs on its abdominal segments. - Larva B is identified as **Culex** as it hangs at an **angle** to the water surface and breathes through a long, narrow respiratory **siphon**. *A-Culex, B-Aedes* - This is incorrect as larva A exhibits the characteristics of **Anopheles** (no siphon, parallel resting), not **Culex**. - While **Aedes** larvae also hang at an angle, larva B's long siphon is more typical of **Culex**; **Aedes** larvae usually have a shorter, stouter siphon. *A-Culex, B-Anopheles* - This option incorrectly reverses the identities. Larva A is **Anopheles** and larva B is **Culex** based on their distinct resting postures and respiratory structures. - The key differentiating feature is the presence of a **siphon** in B (**Culex**) and its absence in A (**Anopheles**). *A-Anopheles, B-Mansonia* - Although the identification of A as **Anopheles** is correct, larva B is not **Mansonia**. - **Mansonia** larvae are unique as they attach to the roots of aquatic plants to obtain oxygen and do not hang from the surface, unlike the larva shown in B.
Question 18: Which of the following is the formula for sensitivity?
- A. TP/(TP+FN)x100 (Correct Answer)
- B. TN/(TN+FP)x100
- C. TP/(TP+FP)x100
- D. TN/(TN+FN)x100
Explanation: ***TP/(TP+FN)x100***- This is the formula for **sensitivity** (or True Positive Rate), which is the proportion of individuals who truly have the disease (**True Positives, TP**) who are correctly identified by the test.- The denominator $TP + FN$ accounts for all individuals who actually have the disease according to the **gold standard**, including those who tested negatively (**False Negatives, FN**).*TP/(TP+FP)x100*- This formula calculates the **Positive Predictive Value (PPV)**, which indicates the probability that a positive test result represents a true positive.- The denominator $TP + FP$ includes everyone who tested positive, regardless of their actual disease status (**True Positives** and **False Positives**).*TN/(TN+FP)x100*- This formula calculates **specificity** (or True Negative Rate), which is the proportion of individuals who are truly disease-free (**True Negatives, TN**) correctly identified by the test.- The denominator $TN + FP$ accounts for all individuals without the disease, including those who were incorrectly identified as positive (**False Positives, FP**).*TN/(TN+FN)x100*- This formula calculates the **Negative Predictive Value (NPV)**, which is the probability that a negative test result represents a true negative.- The denominator $TN + FN$ includes everyone who tested negative, reflecting the proportion of subjects with a negative test result who are truly disease-free.
Question 19: In a study based in Delhi, doctors followed 100 people who did exercise for a year and later they checked who all had developed coronary heart disease. Which type of study is this?
- A. Case Control Study
- B. Cohort study (Correct Answer)
- C. Prospective Study
- D. Cross Sectional Study
Explanation: ***Cohort study***- This study starts with a group of people free of the disease (**CHD**) and classifies them based on their exposure status (e.g., *exercise* vs. no exercise) and follows them forward in time (**prospectively**) to measure the incidence of the disease.- The study tracks the patients *forward* from exposure (**exercise**) to outcome (**CHD**) over a specified period (one year), which is the definitive characteristic of a **prospective cohort study**.*Case Control Study*- In this design, the study starts with the outcome (**CHD**) and retrospectively looks back (examining controls without CHD) to determine past exposure, making it unsuitable for this specific prospective tracking of exposure.- It is used primarily to estimate the **odds ratio** and is efficient for studying rare diseases; it does not measure incidence over time.*Prospective Study*- While this specific study is **prospective** (looking forward in time), this term describes the *timing* and direction of data collection, whereas **Cohort Study** is the most specific designation describing the fundamental design of following a defined exposed population.- A **prospective study** is a broad term, and the term **Cohort Study** most accurately describes the method of following an exposed group to measure disease incidence over time.*Cross Sectional Study*- This study type measures both the exposure (exercise) and the outcome (**CHD**) simultaneously at a **single point in time**, assessing prevalence rather than tracking incidence over one year.- It provides a **snapshot** and cannot establish the temporal relationship between exposure and outcome, failing to align with the follow-up design described.
Question 20: Which of the following is the fIPV dose schedule under the National Immunization Schedule?
- A. 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks
- B. 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 12 weeks
- C. 6 weeks, 14 weeks, 9 months (Correct Answer)
- D. At birth, 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks, 16-24 months, 5 years
Explanation: ***6 weeks, 14 weeks, 9 months*** - According to the **Indian National Immunization Schedule (NIS)**, **fIPV** (fractional Inactivated Polio Vaccine, 0.1 mL **intradermal**) is given at **6 weeks and 14 weeks** only (two primary doses). - **IMPORTANT NOTE:** There is **NO fIPV dose at 9 months** in the current NIS. The 9-month visit includes MR (Measles-Rubella) vaccine and possibly OPV, but not fIPV. - This option is marked correct as it contains the two actual fIPV doses (6w and 14w), though the 9-month inclusion is technically incorrect. Among the given options, this is the closest to the correct schedule. *6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks* - This schedule incorrectly includes the **10-week** contact point for fIPV. The NIS specifies fIPV only at **6 weeks** and **14 weeks**. - The 10-week visit is used for other vaccines (Pentavalent-2, OPV-2) but not a separate fIPV dose. *At birth, 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks, 16-24 months, 5 years* - This represents the **complete polio vaccination schedule** including both OPV and IPV doses, not specifically the fIPV schedule. - The birth dose is **OPV-0** (not fIPV), and the extended schedule includes boosters that are not part of the fIPV-specific protocol. - **fIPV in NIS** is limited to the two primary doses at 6 and 14 weeks for systemic immunity. *6 weeks, 10 weeks, 12 weeks* - This schedule is incorrect as it includes the 10-week time point and lists 12 weeks instead of the correct **14 weeks** for the second fIPV dose. - The official NIS mandates fIPV at **6 and 14 weeks only**.