FMGE 2025 — Community Medicine
54 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Which of the following is the schedule of the OPV vaccine?
An image of the mascot is shown below. Identify the related national health programme.
In a class of 100 students, 80% students were immunised with measles, 12 were affected. What is the primary attack rate?
After how long is a patient advised to use alternative contraception following a vasectomy?
Which of the following is the population norm for an ASHA worker?
A total of 2000 patients were assessed for HIV. 200 were diagnosed positive. A new ELISA screening test was tested on the same group. It showed 260 as positive out of which only 130 had the disease. What is the specificity of the test?
Which of the following is the National Deworming Day?
Under IDSP, which diseases are included under sentinel surveillance?
A PLHIV came with multiple dog bites with a punctured wound. Choose the correct management:
Which of the following health programmes is supported by DANIDA?
FMGE 2025 - Community Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is the schedule of the OPV vaccine?
- A. 6 to 12 weeks
- B. 6th week, 10th week & 9th month
- C. 6th week, 10th week and 14th week (Correct Answer)
- D. 6th week, 14th week & 9th month
Explanation: ***6th week, 10th week and 14th week***- This schedule represents the **primary series** of Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV-1, OPV-2, and OPV-3) doses given in the National Immunization Schedule (NIS).- These doses are administered 4 weeks apart, starting at 6 weeks of age, and are crucial for developing robust immunity against the **poliovirus**.*6th week, 10th week & 9th month*- Although the 6th and 10th weeks are correct for the first two primary doses, the third dose should be administered at the **14th week**, not the 9th month.- The 9th month is the typical schedule point for the first dose of **Measles/MR vaccine** and **Vitamin A supplementation**, not a primary OPV dose.*6th week, 14th week & 9th month*- This schedule incorrectly misses the required **10th-week** dose, which interrupts the recommended 4-week spacing for the primary series of OPV.- Furthermore, the inclusion of the **9th month** timing incorrectly substitutes the proper 14th-week slot for the third primary dose.*6 to 12 weeks*- This describes a broad time window and is not the specific, thrice-repeated dosing schedule required for the **OPV primary series** (OPV-1, OPV-2, and OPV-3).- The standard schedule involves three distinct doses timed precisely at **6, 10, and 14 weeks** of age to achieve high seroconversion rates.
Question 2: An image of the mascot is shown below. Identify the related national health programme.
- A. National Anti-Malaria Programme
- B. National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme
- C. National Leprosy eradication programme (Correct Answer)
- D. National Polio Surveillance Program
Explanation: ***National Leprosy eradication programme*** - The mascot shown in the image is **"Sapna"**, who is the official mascot for the **National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP)** in India. - The mascot is used in Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) activities to reduce the stigma associated with leprosy and promote the message that it is completely curable with **Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT)**. *National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme* - The **National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP)** does not use this mascot; its campaign is famously known by the slogan **"TB Harega Desh Jeetega"**. - The programme focuses on early diagnosis and treatment of tuberculosis using strategies like the **Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course (DOTS)**. *National Anti-Malaria Programme* - This programme, now under the **National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)**, does not have a specific mascot like the one shown. - Its awareness campaigns typically focus on preventive measures like using mosquito nets, repellents, and preventing water stagnation to control the mosquito vector. *National Polio Surveillance Program* - The polio eradication campaign in India is widely recognized by its slogan **"Do Boond Zindagi Ki"** (Two drops of life) and is associated with administering the **Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)**. - It does not use the "Sapna" mascot; its campaigns often feature prominent celebrities and visuals of health workers administering polio drops.
Question 3: In a class of 100 students, 80% students were immunised with measles, 12 were affected. What is the primary attack rate?
- A. 80%
- B. 70%
- C. 60% (Correct Answer)
- D. 50%
Explanation: ***60%*** - The **Primary Attack Rate** measures the number of new cases among the susceptible population during an outbreak; the susceptible population must first be determined by excluding the immunized students. - Calculation: The total susceptible population is 100 students - 80 immunized students = **20 susceptible contacts**. Primary Attack Rate = (12 affected / 20 susceptible) × 100 = **60%**. *80%* - This figure represents the percentage of students in the class who were **immunised** (80 out of 100), not the attack rate among the susceptible population. - Using 80 as the denominator would incorrectly calculate the rate among the protected group (12/80 = 15%). *70%* - This option is mathematically incorrect and does not result from the standard calculation of **Primary Attack Rate** using the given data (12 cases among 20 susceptible individuals). - It is likely derived from an incorrect calculation or failure to correctly identify the **susceptible population** for the denominator. *50%* - This value is incorrect, as the observed number of affected students (12) leads to a higher rate than 50% when calculated against the susceptible population (20). - A **Primary Attack Rate** of 50% would only account for 10 affected students (50% of 20 susceptible individuals).
Question 4: After how long is a patient advised to use alternative contraception following a vasectomy?
- A. 6 months
- B. 1 month
- C. 2 months
- D. 3 months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: 3 months*** - After vasectomy, **residual viable sperm remain in the distal vas deferens** and ejaculatory ducts - Alternative contraception is required for **at least 3 months** or **20 ejaculations** (whichever is later) - **Semen analysis should confirm azoospermia** before discontinuing alternative contraception - This is the standard recommendation per WHO and national family planning guidelines *Incorrect: 1 month* - Too short a duration; sperm clearance is usually incomplete at 1 month - Does not allow sufficient time for sperm elimination from the reproductive tract *Incorrect: 2 months* - Still shorter than the recommended 3-month period - May not ensure complete sperm clearance in all patients *Incorrect: 6 months* - Longer than necessary; while very safe, it exceeds standard guideline recommendations - Most men achieve azoospermia well before 6 months
Question 5: Which of the following is the population norm for an ASHA worker?
- A. 1000-1500
- B. 1000-2500 (Correct Answer)
- C. 2000-2500
- D. 700-1000
Explanation: ***Correct: 1000-2500*** The **official population norm** for ASHA worker deployment under the **National Health Mission (NHM)** is **1 ASHA per 1000-2500 population**. - The standard minimum coverage is **1000 population** in plain/non-tribal areas - In larger villages with population up to **2500**, a single ASHA may be deployed - Beyond 2500 population, **additional ASHA workers** are deployed - This range represents the official operational guideline for ASHA coverage *Incorrect: 1000-1500* - While this range includes the standard 1000 population norm, it **underestimates the upper limit** - The official NHM guideline allows a single ASHA to cover up to **2500 population** in large villages - This option artificially restricts the official range *Incorrect: 2000-2500* - This range **misses the lower limit** of the official norm, which starts at **1000 population** - A single ASHA worker should be deployed starting from 1000 population, not only at 2000+ - This would result in **under-deployment** of ASHA workers in smaller villages *Incorrect: 700-1000* - This range does not represent the standard population norm for ASHA deployment - While ASHA workers in **tribal/hilly/difficult terrain** may cover smaller habitations (minimum 100 population), **700-1000 is not an official range** specified in NHM guidelines - The standard norm begins at **1000 population** for plain areas
Question 6: A total of 2000 patients were assessed for HIV. 200 were diagnosed positive. A new ELISA screening test was tested on the same group. It showed 260 as positive out of which only 130 had the disease. What is the specificity of the test?
- A. 96% (Correct Answer)
- B. 68%
- C. 72%
- D. 80%
Explanation: ***96%*** - **Specificity** is the ability of a test to correctly identify those *without* the disease (True Negatives) among all disease-free individuals: Specificity = TN / (TN + FP) - Given data: Total patients = 2000; Actual HIV positive = 200; Actual HIV negative = 1800 - Test showed 260 positives, of which 130 were true positives (TP) - False Positives (FP) = 260 - 130 = 130 - True Negatives (TN) = Total negatives - FP = 1800 - 130 = 1670 - **Calculated Specificity = 1670/1800 × 100 = 92.78%** - Among the given options, **96% is the closest** to the calculated value of 92.78% *80%* - This value is too low and does not match the calculated specificity - This might represent a miscalculation or confusion with sensitivity *72%* - This is significantly lower than the actual specificity of 92.78% - This does not correspond to any standard epidemiological measure from the given data *68%* - This is the lowest option and far from the correct calculation - This may result from calculation errors such as using wrong denominators or confusing different test parameters
Question 7: Which of the following is the National Deworming Day?
- A. 11th January
- B. 10th February (Correct Answer)
- C. 10th August
- D. 10th March
Explanation: ***10th February*** - The **National Deworming Day (NDD)** is observed annually on **February 10th** across India as the primary national observance to combat **Soil-Transmitted Helminths (STH)** infections - This day involves mass administration of **Albendazole** to children and adolescents (typically 1-19 years) through schools and Anganwadi centres - This is the officially recognized date for the **first annual round** of the national campaign *10th August* - While this date is used for deworming, it serves as the designated date for the **second round** or **follow-up dose** in states using a biannual strategy - This is not the primary National Deworming Day; **February 10th** remains the nationally recognized date for the official observance *10th March* - This date is incorrect and not officially associated with the **National Deworming Day** in India - The official campaign date is fixed to ensure standardized, synchronized provision of **Albendazole** nationwide *11th January* - **January 11th** is not the recognized date for either the first or second round of the **National Deworming Day** campaign - The program's schedule is intentionally set in February and August to maximize coverage and minimize disruption to academic schedules
Question 8: Under IDSP, which diseases are included under sentinel surveillance?
- A. HIV + HBV (Correct Answer)
- B. Measles + Diphtheria
- C. Malaria + Dengue
- D. HIV + TB
Explanation: ***HIV + HBV***- **Sentinel surveillance** under IDSP is utilized for diseases where continuous monitoring of specific, defined sites (sentinel sites) provides crucial incidence or prevalence trends, such as **HIV** and **Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)**.- This method is essential for monitoring these diseases as it provides reliable data on prevalence and long-term trends, often focusing on high-risk or specific population groups.*HIV + TB*- While **HIV** is included in sentinel surveillance, **Tuberculosis (TB)** is primarily monitored through **passive surveillance** using mandatory case notification to track incidence and treatment outcomes.- TB is a reportable disease utilizing a robust notification system (e.g., Nikshay portal in India), which differs from the specialized, site-specific sampling used for sentinel surveillance.*Malaria + Dengue*- **Malaria** and **Dengue** are typically included in **syndromic and presumptive surveillance** streams under IDSP due to their potential for rapid outbreaks and the need for immediate, widespread reporting.- Monitoring for these vector-borne diseases focuses on early detection of outbreaks involving fever in defined geographical areas, rather than long-term prevalence trends at specialized sentinel sites.*Measles + Diphtheria*- These diseases are **vaccine-preventable diseases** and are monitored using **enhanced surveillance** protocols to achieve elimination/eradication targets.- Enhanced surveillance requires immediate investigation and reporting of every suspected case to track coverage gaps and initiate immediate public health measures, differing from the sentinel approach.
Question 9: A PLHIV came with multiple dog bites with a punctured wound. Choose the correct management:
- A. Local Treatment + RIG + Vaccine (Correct Answer)
- B. Local wound cleaning
- C. Local Treatment + RIG
- D. Vaccine
Explanation: ***Local Treatment + RIG + Vaccine***- This regimen is mandatory for **Category III** rabies exposure, defined by single or multiple transdermal bites or scratches, which includes the described punctured wounds.- **Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG)**, providing passive immediate protection, must be infiltrated into and around the wound, followed by the complete scheduled series of the Rabies **Vaccine** to establish long-term active immunity.*Local wound cleaning*- While immediate and thorough local wound cleaning with soap, water, and an antiseptic is the **most crucial first step**, it is insufficient alone for preventing rabies transmission in a Category III exposure.- Punctured wounds carry a high risk of deep inoculation, necessitating both passive (**RIG**) and active (**Vaccine**) immunization immediately.*Vaccine*- The **rabies vaccine** provides active immunity, but this protection takes several days to weeks to develop.- In high-risk, severe exposures (Category III), immediate passive immunity via **Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG)** is essential to neutralize the virus before the vaccine takes effect.*Local Treatment + RIG*- This approach provides immediate passive neutralization through **RIG** and effective wound management, but it critically omits the **rabies vaccine**.- Omission of the vaccine prevents the development of necessary long-term protective active immunity, leaving the patient vulnerable after the short-term effect of RIG wanes.
Question 10: Which of the following health programmes is supported by DANIDA?
- A. HIV
- B. TB
- C. Blindness (Correct Answer)
- D. Malaria
Explanation: ***Blindness*** - The **National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB)**, initiated in 1976, has historically received extensive financial and technical support from the **Danish International Development Agency (DANIDA)** for implementing **cataract surgery** and eye care services. - DANIDA's support was crucial in developing infrastructure, training ophthalmic personnel, and promoting primary eye care in the early and middle phases of the program. *TB* - The national TB control efforts (RNTCP/NTEP) primarily rely on domestic funding and significant support from the **Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria (GFATM)** and the **World Bank**. - The strategy centers on **Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course (DOTS)** and subsequent patient-centric care. *Malaria* - Malaria control is overseen by the **National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)**, which is typically supported by the Government of India, the **WHO**, and large global health funders like **GFATM**. - The main tools include vector control (e.g., **Insecticide Treated Nets**) and prompt diagnosis/treatment. *HIV* - HIV/AIDS programs, managed by the National AIDS Control Organisation (**NACO**), are heavily funded by the Government of India, along with major international partners like **GFATM** and the **US President’s Emergency Plan for AIDS Relief (PEPFAR)**. - Historically, **DANIDA** has not been the primary collaborating international agency for large-scale HIV/AIDS intervention programs in India.