FMGE 2024 — Pediatrics
10 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
What is the most commonly used test for newborn hearing screening?
For how long is exclusive breastfeeding recommended?
What condition is likely in a newborn presenting with dry, rough skin, a big tongue and rough hair?
What is the likely age of a child who can ride a tricycle, walk up stairs with alternate steps, but cannot hop?
What is the daily fluid requirement for a 3-day-old baby with a birth weight of 1500 grams?
What could be the possible diagnosis for a newborn exhibiting weak lower limb pulses and strong upper limb pulses?
At what age does the transfer of one object to another hand happen?
A 7-year-old child of short stature presents with skin patches and learning difficulties. Diagnostic workup indicates a defect in DNA repair specifically related to double-strand breaks. What is the most likely diagnosis?
An 8-year-old child with a history of GTCS came with an episode of convulsions for more than 45 minutes. What will be the appropriate management for this patient?
A child with diarrhea was eager to drink, and the skin pinch went back slowly. Which of the following categories is the child classified into as per IMNCI?
FMGE 2024 - Pediatrics FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the most commonly used test for newborn hearing screening?
- A. Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE) (Correct Answer)
- B. Tympanometry
- C. Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA)
- D. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)
Explanation: ***Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE)*** - **Correct Answer** - OAE is the most commonly used screening test because it is **non-invasive, rapid** (takes minutes), and can be performed while the newborn is sleeping or quiet - It assesses the function of the **cochlear outer hair cells**; the presence of an OAE indicates that hearing is likely normal up to the level of the cochlea - Recommended by WHO and AAP for universal newborn hearing screening - High sensitivity and specificity for detecting congenital hearing loss *Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)* - BERA, also called **Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR)**, is an objective test but is typically reserved as a **diagnostic confirmation test** following a 'refer' result on the OAE screen - It measures the electrical activity of the **auditory nerve** and brainstem in response to sound, assessing the entire auditory pathway - More time-consuming and expensive than OAE, making it less practical for universal screening *Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA)* - PTA is the **subjective gold standard test** for hearing assessment, requiring behavioral responses from the patient (raising a hand or pressing a button) - Relies on cooperation and voluntary response, making it only suitable for older children (usually **4 years and above**) and adults - Not feasible for newborn screening due to developmental limitations *Tympanometry* - Tympanometry assesses **middle ear function** (e.g., pressure, compliance, presence of fluid, or eardrum perforation) rather than the overall hearing sensitivity of the inner ear or auditory nerve - Useful for detecting **conductive hearing loss** but is not the primary screening tool for congenital sensorineural hearing loss in newborns - Does not evaluate cochlear or neural function
Question 2: For how long is exclusive breastfeeding recommended?
- A. 3 months
- B. 6 months (Correct Answer)
- C. 12 months
- D. 9 months
Explanation: ***6 months*** - The **World Health Organization (WHO)** and the **American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP)** strongly recommend **exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months** of life to ensure optimal growth and development. - Breast milk provides all the necessary **nutrients, antibodies, and hydration** required by the infant during this period, offering protection against **infections** and **sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)**. - After 6 months, **complementary feeding** should be introduced alongside continued breastfeeding up to 2 years or beyond. *3 months* - This duration is **insufficient** as it prevents the infant from receiving the full protective and nutritional benefits provided by breast milk up to 6 months. - Introducing other foods or formula before 6 months can increase the risk of **infections** and **allergy development** due to immature gut immunity. *9 months* - Exclusive breastfeeding for 9 months is **not recommended** because the infant's increasing metabolic demands cannot be met by breast milk alone after 6 months. - By 9 months, insufficient intake of nutrients like **iron** and **zinc** from exclusive breastfeeding can lead to **nutritional deficiencies** and impaired development. *12 months* - Exclusive breastfeeding for 12 months is **inappropriate** as infants require the energy and micronutrients provided by **complementary foods** starting from 6 months of age. - Failure to introduce solids by 12 months can hinder the development of **oral motor skills** and lead to severe **nutritional deficits**.
Question 3: What condition is likely in a newborn presenting with dry, rough skin, a big tongue and rough hair?
- A. Prader-Willi syndrome
- B. Edward syndrome
- C. Galactosemia
- D. Congenital hypothyroidism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Congenital hypothyroidism*** - This condition is classically associated with signs of **cretinism** in newborns, including developmental delays, **dry/rough skin** (due to **myxedema**), and distinct facial features like **macroglossia** (big tongue). - The presentation of rough hair and generalized skin changes reflect reduced metabolic rate and accumulation of **glycosaminoglycans** in the dermis. *Prader-Willi syndrome* - Characterized by severe **neonatal hypotonia** and feeding difficulties followed by unremitting **hyperphagia** and obesity starting in early childhood. - The key features are related to the deletion of paternal chromosome 15 genes, and it does not typically present with the specific severe **myxedematous skin changes** seen here. *Edward syndrome* - Edward syndrome (**Trisomy 18**) is characterized by severe growth deficiency, **micrognathia**, **rocker-bottom feet**, overlapping fingers, and often severe congenital heart anomalies. - These findings are indicative of severe chromosomal abnormalities that typically result in distinct physical malformations, not primary hypothyroidism features such as **macroglossia** and widespread myxedema. *Galactosemia* - This is an inborn error of metabolism that usually presents after milk feeding starts, leading to poor feeding, **jaundice**, **hepatomegaly**, and subsequent formation of **cataracts**. - The initial clinical picture is dominated by metabolic decompensation, **sepsis (E. coli)**, and liver disease, not the classic physical features of thyroid hormone deficiency.
Question 4: What is the likely age of a child who can ride a tricycle, walk up stairs with alternate steps, but cannot hop?
- A. 4.5 years
- B. 5.5 years
- C. 2.5 years
- D. 3.5 years (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: 3.5 years*** - At **3.5 years**, a child typically achieves the milestone of **walking up stairs with alternate steps** (reciprocal stair climbing) - The ability to **ride a tricycle** is typically achieved by **3 years** - **Hopping on one foot** is a milestone achieved around **4 years**, so a child at 3.5 years would not yet be able to hop - The combination of these milestones (can ride tricycle, can do alternate steps, cannot hop) places the child at approximately **3.5 years** *Incorrect: 4.5 years and 5.5 years* - By 4.5-5.5 years, children should have already achieved the ability to **hop on one foot** (typically by 4 years) - These ages are too advanced for a child who cannot yet hop *Incorrect: 2.5 years* - At 2.5 years, most children walk up stairs with **both feet on each step** rather than using alternate steps - **Reciprocal stair climbing** (alternate steps) typically develops around **3-3.5 years** - This age is too young for the described skill set
Question 5: What is the daily fluid requirement for a 3-day-old baby with a birth weight of 1500 grams?
- A. 100-110 ml/kg/day
- B. 130-150 ml/kg/day
- C. 80-90 ml/kg/day (Correct Answer)
- D. 120-130 ml/kg/day
Explanation: ***80-90 ml/kg/day***- This range represents the typical fluid requirement for a very low birth weight (**VLBW**) infant on the second or third day of life (DOL 2-3).- It allows for a safe transition from the restricted fluids (60-80 ml/kg/day) of DOL 1 towards higher maintenance needs, minimizing the risk of conditions like **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**.*100-110 ml/kg/day*- This rate is usually required later in the first week (around **DOL 4 to DOL 7**) as the infant's renal function matures and catabolism increases.- Providing this high volume prematurely to a 3-day-old **VLBW** infant increases the risk of **fluid overload** and associated neonatal morbidities.*120-130 ml/kg/day*- This represents a standard high maintenance fluid rate, typically achieved by **DOL 7** or later, especially for infants utilizing **phototherapy**.- It is significantly above the required baseline for a **3-day-old** baby and would lead to potential hyponatremia and **pulmonary edema**.*130-150 ml/kg/day*- This is the usual **full maintenance** or "maximal" fluid requirement often seen after the first week of life (DOL 7+) or in situations requiring high replacement.- Administration of this rate on DOL 3 is strongly discouraged due to the extreme risk of **cardiovascular and pulmonary complications**.
Question 6: What could be the possible diagnosis for a newborn exhibiting weak lower limb pulses and strong upper limb pulses?
- A. TOF
- B. Ebstein anomaly
- C. TGA
- D. COA (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***COA*** (Coarctation of the Aorta) - The classic presentation of **Coarctation of the Aorta** involves a narrowing of the aorta, usually distal to the left subclavian artery, leading to increased pressure proximal to the coarctation (strong upper limb pulses) and decreased pressure distal to it (weak lower limb pulses). - This severe pressure gradient is manifested as **differential pulses** and potential **blood pressure discrepancy** between the arms and legs, making this the most likely diagnosis. *TGA* - **Transposition of the Great Arteries** is characterized by severe **cyanosis** presenting shortly after birth due to two parallel circulations (aorta from RV, pulmonary artery from LV). - It does not typically cause a significant differential in pulse strength between the upper and lower limbs unless complicated by underlying aortic arch anomalies. *TOF* - **Tetralogy of Fallot** typically presents with cyanosis and **hypercyanotic spells** (**tet spells**) due to severe right ventricular outflow tract obstruction and a large VSD. - While it is a common cyanotic heart disease, it primarily affects flow to the pulmonary circulation and does not cause obstruction in the systemic aorta leading to differential pulses. *Ebstein anomaly* - This condition involves the apical displacement of the **tricuspid valve** leaflets into the **right ventricle**, leading to tricuspid regurgitation and large right atrium. - Clinical features usually include varying degrees of cyanosis and signs of right heart failure but do not typically involve a differential in systemic arterial pulses.
Question 7: At what age does the transfer of one object to another hand happen?
- A. 4 months
- B. 12 months
- C. 9 months
- D. 7 months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***7 months***- The transfer of an object from one hand to the other is a significant **fine motor milestone**, typically achieved between **6 and 8 months** of age, averaging around 7 months.- This milestone requires improved **bilateral coordination** and the ability to recognize that the object can be held by either hand, often coinciding with independent sitting.*4 months*- At **4 months**, infants generally begin reaching for objects deliberately and bringing them to their mouth using a primitive **palmar grasp**.- Transfer is not yet possible as the release mechanism and coordination between the two upper limbs are insufficiently developed.*9 months*- By **9 months**, infants are generally developing the **pincer grasp** (using the index finger and thumb) and possess well-established object transfer skills.- They move on to more complex manipulations, like banging two objects together or voluntarily releasing objects into a container.*12 months*- At **12 months**, fine motor skills are highly refined, allowing for precise actions such as stacking two blocks and using a mature **pincer grip** to pick up small crumbs.- Object transfer is fully developed and consolidated by this age, which is far beyond the initial stage of acquisition.
Question 8: A 7-year-old child of short stature presents with skin patches and learning difficulties. Diagnostic workup indicates a defect in DNA repair specifically related to double-strand breaks. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Bloom Syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Lynch Syndrome
- C. Xeroderma Pigmentosum
- D. Cockayne Syndrome
Explanation: ***Bloom Syndrome***- This condition is caused by a mutation in the **BLM gene**, which encodes a **RecQ helicase** necessary for homologous recombination repair (a mechanism for **double-strand break** repair), consistent with the clinical presentation.- Key clinical features include **short stature**, **telangiectatic erythema** (skin patches, especially on sun exposure), and intellectual disability/learning difficulties. *Xeroderma Pigmentosum*- This disease results from a defect in **Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)**, crucial for repairing DNA damage caused by UV light (e.g., pyrimidine dimers), not primarily double-strand breaks.- Patients exhibit extreme **photosensitivity** and have a drastically increased risk of developing multiple skin cancers early in life.*Cockayne Syndrome*- Cockayne syndrome results from defects in genes like *ERCC8* or *ERCC6*, impairing **Transcription-Coupled Repair (TCR)**, a specific type of NER.- While it presents with short stature (often described as **cachectic dwarfism**) and neurological defects, the primary DNA defect is not in the repair of double-strand breaks but rather UV adducts in transcribed DNA.*Lynch Syndrome*- Also known as Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC), this syndrome is caused by defects in **Mismatch Repair (MMR)** genes (e.g., *MLH1*, *MSH2*).- It primarily predisposes individuals to colorectal and endometrial cancers and is not typically associated with the features of short stature and specific DNA double-strand break repair defects seen in this child.
Question 9: An 8-year-old child with a history of GTCS came with an episode of convulsions for more than 45 minutes. What will be the appropriate management for this patient?
- A. Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam (Correct Answer)
- B. Levetiracetam followed by valproate
- C. Valproate followed by gabapentin
- D. Carbamazepine followed by lorazepam
Explanation: ***Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam***- **Status epilepticus (SE)** is defined as a seizure lasting more than five minutes or recurrent seizures without regaining consciousness between them. The initial management involves the administration of a **benzodiazepine** (like lorazepam, midazolam, or diazepam) to rapidly terminate the seizure.- If the seizure persists after the benzodiazepine, the next step is to initiate a non-benzodiazepine antiseizure medication (ASM) like **levetiracetam**, **fosphenytoin**, or **valproate** to prevent seizure recurrence.*Valproate followed by gabapentin*- **Valproate** is a suitable second-line agent for SE, but it should not be the first drug; rapid control requires a **benzodiazepine**.- **Gabapentin** is typically not used in the management of acute SE because its onset of action is slow and it lacks efficacy for immediate seizure termination.*Carbamazepine followed by lorazepam*- **Carbamazepine** is a first-line agent for focal seizures but is generally avoided in generalized-onset seizures (like the **GTCS** history suggests) and is not used as a first-line drug for acute SE.- **Lorazepam** is the preferred first-line agent, and delaying it until after a non-benzodiazepine drug is inappropriate for acute SE management.*Levetiracetam followed by valproate*- **Levetiracetam** is an excellent second-line agent for SE but must be preceded by a **benzodiazepine** to rapidly terminate the ongoing seizure.- **Valproate** is also a suitable second-line agent, but the protocol requires immediate cessation of the seizure with a **benzodiazepine** before initiating an ASM like levetiracetam or valproate.
Question 10: A child with diarrhea was eager to drink, and the skin pinch went back slowly. Which of the following categories is the child classified into as per IMNCI?
- A. Green
- B. None
- C. Pink
- D. Yellow (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Yellow***- This classification applies when the child shows two or more signs of **'Some Dehydration'** according to IMNCI guidelines, which include **eagerly drinking/thirst** and the **skin pinch going back slowly** (less than 2 seconds but noticeably delayed).- The management for the Yellow category involves treating dehydration using **Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS)** (Plan B).*Pink*- The **Pink (Severe Dehydration) category** requires at least two signs such as **lethargy/unconsciousness**, inability to drink/drinking poorly, or the **skin pinch going back very slowly** (≥ 2 seconds).- The child is **eager to drink**, which rules out the severe dehydration sign of being **unable to drink** or **drinking poorly**.*Green*- The **Green (No Dehydration) category** is applied when the child does not exhibit sufficient signs to classify them into the 'Some' or 'Severe' dehydration categories.- Since the child demonstrates two definite signs of dehydration (**thirst** and **slow skin pinch**), the 'No Dehydration' classification is incorrect.*None*- IMNCI provides specific and comprehensive categories (**Green, Yellow, Pink**) for classifying dehydration status based on clinical signs.- The combination of **eager drinking** and **slow skin pinch** definitively places the child in the **Yellow (Some Dehydration)** category.