Biochemistry
1 questionsKeshan's disease is due to deficiency of:
FMGE 2019 - Biochemistry FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Keshan's disease is due to deficiency of:
- A. Iron
- B. Zinc
- C. Copper
- D. Selenium (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Selenium (Correct Answer)** - **Keshan disease** is an endemic cardiomyopathy characterized by multifocal myocyte necrosis, which has been directly linked to a severe dietary deficiency of **selenium**. - Selenium is an essential component of **glutathione peroxidase**, an enzyme critical for protecting cells against oxidative damage. - The disease is named after Keshan County in China where it was first identified in selenium-deficient regions. *Iron (Incorrect)* - **Iron deficiency** primarily leads to **anemia**, characterized by fatigue, pallor, and weakness due to insufficient hemoglobin production. - It does not directly cause the specific cardiomyopathy seen in Keshan disease. *Zinc (Incorrect)* - **Zinc deficiency** can cause a range of symptoms including impaired immune function, skin lesions (acrodermatitis enteropathica), hair loss, and growth retardation. - It is not associated with the cardiac manifestations of Keshan disease. *Copper (Incorrect)* - **Copper deficiency** can result in anemia, neutropenia, impaired immune function, and neurological dysfunction (Menkes disease). - While copper is important for various metalloenzymes, its deficiency does not cause Keshan disease.
Community Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is a direct health impact of climate change?
FMGE 2019 - Community Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Which of the following is a direct health impact of climate change?
- A. Heat-related illnesses (Correct Answer)
- B. Food insecurity and malnutrition
- C. Injuries from extreme weather events
- D. Increased vector-borne diseases
Explanation: ***Heat-related illnesses*** - Heat-related illnesses such as **heat stroke, heat exhaustion, and heat cramps** are direct health impacts of climate change resulting from increased frequency and intensity of **heat waves**. - Rising global temperatures directly increase the risk of **hyperthermia**, particularly among vulnerable populations including the elderly, children, outdoor workers, and those with chronic diseases. - This is considered a **primary direct health impact** as it results immediately from temperature changes without intermediate pathways. *Increased vector-borne diseases* - While vector-borne diseases (malaria, dengue, chikungunya) do increase with climate change due to expanded geographic range and breeding seasons of vectors, this is considered an **indirect health impact**. - Climate change affects vector ecology through temperature, rainfall, and humidity changes, which then influences disease transmission - involving an intermediate biological pathway. *Food insecurity and malnutrition* - Food insecurity and malnutrition are significant health consequences of climate change but are classified as **indirect impacts**. - They result from climate change effects on **agricultural productivity**, crop yields, food distribution systems, and water availability - multiple intermediate pathways exist between climate change and the health outcome. *Injuries from extreme weather events* - While injuries and deaths from extreme weather events (floods, cyclones, droughts) are important health impacts of climate change, they are often categorized differently from heat-related illnesses. - Heat-related illnesses represent the most **direct physiological response** to the primary manifestation of climate change (rising temperatures), making it the best answer for a "direct" health impact.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsMcNaughton's rule is related to:
FMGE 2019 - Forensic Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: McNaughton's rule is related to:
- A. IPC 82
- B. IPC 87
- C. IPC 85
- D. IPC 84 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***IPC 84*** - **McNaughton's rule** (also spelled M'Naghten rule) is a legal test for criminal insanity, stating that a defendant is not guilty if they were unaware of the nature of their actions or that their actions were wrong due to a "disease of the mind." - In India, **IPC 84** (Indian Penal Code Section 84) embodies the principles of McNaughton's rule, providing a defense for persons of unsound mind. *IPC 82* - **IPC 82** deals with the age of criminal responsibility, specifically stating that nothing done by a child under seven years of age is an offense. - This section is focused on the **infancy defense**, not mental illness or insanity. *IPC 87* - **IPC 87** pertains to acts not intended and not known to be likely to cause death or grievous hurt, done by consent. - It relates to the defense of **consent**, often in situations involving minor injuries in sports or medical procedures. *IPC 85* - **IPC 85** provides a defense for acts committed by a person who is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that it is wrong or contrary to law, due to **intoxication** caused without their knowledge or against their will. - This section specifically addresses involuntary intoxication, not a general "disease of the mind" as covered by McNaughton's rule.
Microbiology
1 questionsIncreased susceptibility to N. meningitidis infections is associated with deficiency of which complement component:
FMGE 2019 - Microbiology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Increased susceptibility to N. meningitidis infections is associated with deficiency of which complement component:
- A. C1-C4 deficiency
- B. C3 deficiency
- C. C5-C9 deficiency (Correct Answer)
- D. C2 deficiency
Explanation: ***C5-C9 deficiency*** - Deficiencies in **C5-C9 components** impair the formation of the **Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)**, which is crucial for lysing Gram-negative bacteria like **N. meningitidis**. - Patients with MAC deficiencies are at significantly higher risk for recurrent invasive **N. meningitidis** infections. *C1-C4 deficiency* - Deficiencies in **C1-C4 components** primarily affect the **classical complement pathway** and are associated with increased susceptibility to **bacterial infections** and **immune complex diseases** (e.g., SLE). - While these deficiencies compromise opsonization and inflammation, they are not specifically linked to recurrent **N. meningitidis** infections. *C3 deficiency* - **C3 deficiency** is a severe primary immunodeficiency leading to profound defects in complement activation via all pathways, affecting **opsonization** and the formation of the MAC. - This deficiency causes severe recurrent **pyogenic infections** due to encapsulated bacteria but is not as specifically or commonly linked to **N. meningitidis** as deficiencies in the terminal pathway. *C2 deficiency* - **C2 deficiency** is the most common complement deficiency and primarily impacts the **classical pathway**, leading to impaired opsonization and immune complex clearance. - It is often associated with recurrent infections (especially with encapsulated bacteria) and **lupus-like syndromes**, but not specifically increased susceptibility to **N. meningitidis** infections.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsA 34-year-old lady with 4 children, after her 5th normal vaginal delivery, experiences excessive bleeding after the placenta is removed. What is the cause for this?
FMGE 2019 - Obstetrics and Gynecology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 34-year-old lady with 4 children, after her 5th normal vaginal delivery, experiences excessive bleeding after the placenta is removed. What is the cause for this?
- A. Uterine atony (Correct Answer)
- B. Genital tract trauma
- C. Retained placental tissue
- D. Coagulation disorders
Explanation: ***Uterine atony*** - The most common cause of **postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)**, accounting for 70-80% of cases - **Multiparity** (Grand multipara with 5 deliveries) is a major risk factor, as repeated pregnancies lead to **overdistension and decreased uterine muscle tone** - Uterine atony is the failure of the myometrium to contract adequately after placental delivery, preventing compression of spiral arteries - Part of the **"4 Ts" mnemonic** for PPH causes: **Tone** (atony), Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin *Genital tract trauma* - Second most common cause of PPH (approximately 20% of cases) - Includes cervical lacerations, vaginal tears, or perineal trauma - However, the question specifically mentions **"normal vaginal delivery"** and bleeding **"after placenta removal"**, making trauma less likely - Trauma-related bleeding typically occurs **during or immediately after delivery**, not specifically post-placental *Retained placental tissue* - Accounts for approximately 10% of PPH cases - The question states the placenta **"is removed"**, suggesting complete placental delivery - If placental fragments were retained, bleeding would persist due to inability of the uterus to contract fully - Less likely given the clinical scenario described *Coagulation disorders* - Least common cause of primary PPH (1-2% of cases) - Includes conditions like **DIC, thrombocytopenia, or inherited coagulopathies** - No clinical history suggesting coagulopathy (e.g., no bleeding during pregnancy, no family history) - Would typically present with **oozing from multiple sites**, not just uterine bleeding
Ophthalmology
1 questionsChronic granulomatous inflammation in upper lid (painless swelling) is characteristic of:
FMGE 2019 - Ophthalmology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Chronic granulomatous inflammation in upper lid (painless swelling) is characteristic of:
- A. Chalazion (Correct Answer)
- B. Trachoma
- C. Internal Hordeolum
- D. External Hordeolum
Explanation: ***Chalazion*** - A chalazion is a **chronic**, sterile, **lipogranulomatous** inflammation of the **meibomian glands**. - It presents as a **painless**, firm, round swelling in the eyelid, often in the upper lid due to the larger meibomian glands. *Trachoma* - Trachoma is a **chronic keratoconjunctivitis** caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*. - It primarily affects the conjunctiva and cornea, leading to scarring, entropion, and eventual blindness, not a painless eyelid swelling. *Internal Hordeolum* - An internal hordeolum is an **acute** bacterial infection of a **meibomian gland**, forming an abscess. - It is typically **painful**, red, and tender, contrasting with the painless nature of the given presentation. *External hordeolum* - An external hordeolum (stye) is an **acute** bacterial infection of the **glands of Zeis or Moll** at the lid margin. - It is usually **painful**, red, and tender, presenting as a small pustule or nodule on the eyelid margin, not a deep-seated painless swelling.
Surgery
4 questionsBell clapper deformity (abnormal testicular fixation) predisposes to which of the following conditions?
A 62-year-old female had a kidney stone and was treated with PCNL. After 2 days, she comes to the OPD with chills and fever. What is the complication?
A 6-month-old child presents with an umbilical hernia measuring 3 cm in diameter. What is the management protocol?
What is the most common tumor of the mediastinum?
FMGE 2019 - Surgery FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Bell clapper deformity (abnormal testicular fixation) predisposes to which of the following conditions?
- A. Hydrocele
- B. Testicular torsion (Correct Answer)
- C. Testicular atrophy
- D. Varicocele
Explanation: ***Testicular torsion*** - The **bell clapper deformity** describes an abnormally high attachment of the tunica vaginalis, leaving the testis and epididymis free to rotate within the scrotal sac. - This anatomical variation allows the spermatic cord to twist, cutting off blood supply to the testis, which is the mechanism of **testicular torsion**. *Hydrocele* - A **hydrocele** is a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis, resulting from an imbalance in fluid production and absorption, or a patent processus vaginalis. - It is not directly caused by abnormal testicular fixation. *Testicular atrophy* - **Testicular atrophy** is a reduction in testicular size, often due to conditions like cryptorchidism, mumps orchitis, or prolonged testicular torsion, but not predisposed by the bell clapper deformity itself unless torsion occurs. - While torsion can lead to atrophy if not promptly treated, the deformity directly predisposes to the torsion event, rather than atrophy itself. *Varicocele* - A **varicocele** is an abnormal dilation of the veins of the pampiniform plexus within the scrotum, usually due to incompetent valves or venous obstruction. - This condition is not associated with testicular fixation abnormalities.
Question 22: A 62-year-old female had a kidney stone and was treated with PCNL. After 2 days, she comes to the OPD with chills and fever. What is the complication?
- A. Bacterial sepsis (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute pancreatitis
- C. Ureteric stricture
- D. Splenic injury
Explanation: ***Bacterial sepsis*** - **Chills and fever** two days after a **Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy (PCNL)** are highly suggestive of a systemic infection, specifically **bacterial sepsis**, as this procedure carries a risk of introducing bacteria into the bloodstream. - Urinary tract manipulation, especially in a patient with a potentially *infected kidney stone*, can lead to bacteremia and subsequent **sepsis** if not properly managed. *Acute pancreatitis* - **Acute pancreatitis** is not a common complication of PCNL. It typically presents with severe **epigastric pain** radiating to the back, often with nausea and vomiting, and is usually associated with gallstones or alcohol abuse. - While it can cause fever, the clinical presentation and context do not strongly support **pancreatitis** as the primary issue following a PCNL. *Ureteric stricture* - A **ureteric stricture** is a *late complication* of kidney stone treatment and typically leads to symptoms of **urinary obstruction**, such as flank pain, rather than acute fever and chills two days post-procedure. - It would not cause acute systemic signs like **chills and fever** within such a short timeframe after PCNL. *Splenic injury* - **Splenic injury** is a rare but possible complication of procedures around the left kidney; however, it would typically present with **abdominal pain**, signs of **hemorrhage** (e.g., hypotension), and sometimes shoulder pain, not primarily with fever and chills as the immediate post-operative concern. - While fever can occur with internal injuries, the primary and most immediate concern with fever and chills after a urological procedure is **infection**.
Question 23: A 6-month-old child presents with an umbilical hernia measuring 3 cm in diameter. What is the management protocol?
- A. Immediate surgical repair
- B. Elective surgery at 5 years of age
- C. Hernioplasty for repair
- D. Observation until 2 years of age, then surgery if unresolved (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Observation until 2 years of age, then surgery if unresolved*** - Most **umbilical hernias** in infants and young children **resolve spontaneously** by the age of 2 years, making observation the initial management for uncomplicated cases. - Surgical intervention is typically considered if the hernia persists beyond **2-4 years of age**, is symptomatic, or demonstrates features of incarceration regardless of age. *Immediate surgical repair* - Immediate surgery is reserved for cases with **incarceration** or **strangulation**, which are not indicated by a "symptomatic" hernia in this context. - Given the high rate of spontaneous closure, most umbilical hernias do not require urgent intervention. *Elective surgery at 5 years of age* - Waiting until 5 years of age to consider surgery might delay treatment for some children whose hernias are unlikely to close spontaneously after the age of 2-4 and could lead to prolonged parental anxiety. - The general consensus is to recommend surgery if the hernia persists beyond **2-4 years**, rather than a fixed age of 5. *Hernioplasty for repair* - While hernioplasty is the surgical technique for repair, the question asks about the overall management protocol, which includes initial observation. - Applying this term as an immediate solution for a 6-month-old's uncomplicated umbilical hernia would bypass the recommended period of **conservative management**.
Question 24: What is the most common tumor of the mediastinum?
- A. Thymoma
- B. Lymphoma
- C. Neuroblastic tumor
- D. Neurogenic tumor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Neurogenic tumor*** - **Neurogenic tumors** are the **most common primary tumors of the mediastinum** overall, accounting for approximately **35-40%** of all mediastinal masses. - They are the most common tumors of the **posterior mediastinum** and arise from nerve sheaths (e.g., **schwannomas, neurofibromas**) or sympathetic ganglia. - These tumors occur across all age groups, with higher prevalence when including both pediatric and adult populations. *Thymoma* - **Thymomas** are the most common primary tumor of the **anterior mediastinum** in adults, accounting for about **40-50%** of anterior mediastinal masses. - However, they represent only about **20-25%** of all mediastinal tumors overall. - Often associated with paraneoplastic syndromes like **myasthenia gravis** (30-50% of cases). *Lymphoma* - **Lymphoma** is a common mediastinal tumor, particularly **Hodgkin lymphoma** in young adults, accounting for approximately **15-20%** of mediastinal masses. - It often presents with bulky mediastinal masses and symptoms like **dyspnea, cough, or superior vena cava syndrome**. - While very common, it ranks second or third overall after neurogenic tumors. *Neuroblastic tumor* - **Neuroblastic tumors** (e.g., neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroblastoma) are a subset of neurogenic tumors more common in **children**. - They arise from the sympathetic nervous system and typically occur in the posterior mediastinum. - While important in pediatric populations, they are less common than all neurogenic tumors combined.