Anatomy
1 questionsTrigone of bladder is derived from?
FMGE 2019 - Anatomy FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: Trigone of bladder is derived from?
- A. Distal part of Mesonephric duct (Correct Answer)
- B. Ventral part of Urogenital sinus
- C. Distal part of Paramesonephric duct
- D. Ventral part of Mesonephric duct
Explanation: Distal part of Mesonephric duct - The **trigone of the bladder** develops from the **caudal (distal) ends of the mesonephric ducts**, which are absorbed into the posterior wall of the forming bladder. - The mesonephric duct origin contributes to the **smooth muscle** of the trigone, giving it distinct structural characteristics compared to the rest of the bladder wall. - The trigone appears as a smooth triangular area bounded by the two ureteric orifices and the internal urethral orifice [1]. *Ventral part of Urogenital sinus* - The **ventral part of the urogenital sinus** primarily forms the **fundus and body of the urinary bladder**, but not the trigone. - This region undergoes differentiation to form the majority of the bladder's wall and provides the epithelial lining for the entire bladder including the trigone. *Distal part of Paramesonephric duct* - The **paramesonephric ducts (Müllerian ducts)** are primarily involved in the development of the female reproductive tract, forming the **fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper vagina**. - They do not contribute to the formation of the urinary bladder or its trigone. *Ventral part of Mesonephric duct* - While the mesonephric ducts are crucial, it is specifically the **distal (caudal) ends** that are incorporated into the bladder to form the trigone, not merely the general ventral part. - The more proximal parts of the mesonephric ducts in males develop into structures like the **epididymis, v\as deferens, seminal vesicles, and ejaculatory ducts**.
Community Medicine
1 questionsAccording to WHO International Health Regulations, which disease requires immediate notification due to its epidemic potential and international spread risk?
FMGE 2019 - Community Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: According to WHO International Health Regulations, which disease requires immediate notification due to its epidemic potential and international spread risk?
- A. Malaria
- B. Yellow fever (Correct Answer)
- C. HIV
- D. Polio
Explanation: ***Yellow fever*** - **Yellow fever** is historically recognized as a disease requiring international notification and was part of the original WHO International Health Regulations notifiable disease list. - Under the **IHR (2005)**, yellow fever outbreaks are assessed using the decision algorithm due to their **epidemic potential** and **risk of international spread** through infected travelers and mosquito vectors. - The disease requires **immediate public health response** including vaccination campaigns, vector control, and international coordination to prevent spread. - **Note:** While IHR (2005) uses a decision algorithm rather than a fixed disease list, yellow fever remains a priority disease for international notification due to its severe public health impact. *Malaria* - While a significant global health burden, **malaria** is not among the diseases specifically designated for automatic notification under the IHR. - Its spread is generally more localized and predictable, with public health efforts focused on long-term control programs rather than immediate international notification requirements. *HIV* - **HIV** is a chronic infectious disease with global prevalence but does not meet the criteria for immediate notification under IHR due to its chronic nature and different transmission dynamics. - The IHR focuses on diseases with acute, rapid onset and severe public health impact that can quickly cross international borders. *Polio* - **Wild poliovirus** is specifically named in IHR (2005) for immediate notification and is subject to intensive international surveillance under the Global Polio Eradication Initiative. - However, in the context of this question focusing on vector-borne diseases with epidemic potential via infected mosquitoes and travelers, **yellow fever** is the more classical example of a disease requiring immediate notification due to its acute epidemic nature and international spread risk through both human movement and vector transmission. - **Note:** This question may reflect historical IHR disease lists or specific exam expectations at the time of administration.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsAll of the following are the causes for hypercalcemia Except?
Central obesity is seen in;
FMGE 2019 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: All of the following are the causes for hypercalcemia Except?
- A. Thiazides
- B. Hyperparathyroidism
- C. Acute pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Hypervitaminosis of Vitamin D
Explanation: ***Acute pancreatitis*** - **Acute pancreatitis** is most commonly associated with **hypocalcemia**, not hypercalcemia [1]. - The likely mechanism for hypocalcemia in pancreatitis is the **saponification of calcium in necrotic fat** by free fatty acids released from local lipase activity [1]. *Thiazides* - **Thiazide diuretics** can cause a mild increase in calcium levels by **increasing calcium reabsorption in the distal renal tubule** [2]. - This effect is generally not severe enough to cause symptomatic hypercalcemia unless other underlying conditions are present. *Hyperparathyroidism* - **Primary hyperparathyroidism** is a common cause of hypercalcemia, due to the **overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH)** [2]. - PTH increases serum calcium by increasing **bone resorption**, renal calcium reabsorption, and intestinal calcium absorption [2]. *Hypervitaminosis of Vitamin D* - Excessive intake or production of **Vitamin D** leads to hypercalcemia by increasing **intestinal absorption of calcium** [2]. - It also enhances **bone resorption**, contributing to elevated serum calcium levels.
Question 172: Central obesity is seen in;
- A. Crohn's disease
- B. Celiac disease
- C. Cushing's disease (Correct Answer)
- D. Conn's disease
Explanation: ***Cushing's disease*** - **Cushing's disease** is characterized by **excessive cortisol production**, leading to fat redistribution, including **central obesity** with a 'buffalo hump' and 'moon face' [1]. - **Cortisol's metabolic effects** promote increased visceral fat accumulation and breakdown of peripheral fat [1]. *Crohn's disease* - **Crohn's disease** is an **inflammatory bowel disease** that typically causes **weight loss**, abdominal pain, and diarrhea due to malabsorption and inflammation. - While patients can develop complications like **fistulas** and **abscesses**, central obesity is not a primary feature. *Celiac disease* - **Celiac disease** is an **autoimmune disorder** triggered by gluten, leading to **malabsorption** and usually presenting with **weight loss**, diarrhea, and nutrient deficiencies. - Central obesity is **not a typical presentation** and would be contradictory to the malabsorptive state. *Conn's disease* - **Conn's disease**, or primary aldosteronism, involves **excessive aldosterone** production, primarily causing **hypertension** and hypokalemia. - It **does not directly cause central obesity**; its metabolic effects are unrelated to fat distribution.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
2 questionsAfter a normal delivery in a 27-year-old female, placenta is still attached to the uterus. Most common complication which can occur due to forceful traction of cord?
A lady with 12-week pregnancy presents with bleeding. On examination, vagina is normal, internal os is closed, and USG shows fetal viability with fundal height of 13 weeks. What is the diagnosis?
FMGE 2019 - Obstetrics and Gynecology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: After a normal delivery in a 27-year-old female, placenta is still attached to the uterus. Most common complication which can occur due to forceful traction of cord?
- A. Uterine inversion (Correct Answer)
- B. Hemorrhage
- C. Uterine rupture
- D. Placental abruption
Explanation: ***Uterine inversion*** - Forceful traction on the umbilical cord when the placenta is still firmly attached can pull the **fundus of the uterus inside out**, leading to uterine inversion. - This is a rare obstetric emergency associated with significant **hemorrhage** and shock. *Hemorrhage* - While hemorrhage is a common complication of retained placenta and uterine inversion, it is a *consequence* of these conditions, not the direct complication of forceful cord traction itself in the same way uterine inversion is. - The direct mechanical complication from forceful traction is the pulling out of the uterus, which then *causes* the significant hemorrhage. *Uterine rupture* - Uterine rupture during the third stage of labor is exceptionally rare and usually associated with a **previously scarred uterus** or excessive uterine overdistension, not typically caused by forceful cord traction. - Forceful cord traction is more likely to cause inversion or avulsion of the cord, rather than a tear in the uterine wall. *Placental abruption* - Placental abruption involves the **premature separation of a normally implanted placenta** *before* the delivery of the fetus. - This event occurs during pregnancy or labor before birth, not after delivery when the placenta is simply retained.
Question 172: A lady with 12-week pregnancy presents with bleeding. On examination, vagina is normal, internal os is closed, and USG shows fetal viability with fundal height of 13 weeks. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Incomplete abortion
- B. Complete abortion
- C. Inevitable abortion
- D. Threatened abortion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Threatened abortion*** - This diagnosis is characterized by **vaginal bleeding** in the first half of pregnancy with a **closed internal os** and evidence of fetal viability on ultrasound. - The fundal height being consistent with gestational age also indicates ongoing pregnancy, despite the bleeding. *Inevitable abortion* - This condition is indicated by vaginal bleeding accompanied by a **dilated cervix (open internal os)**, suggesting that the pregnancy cannot be salvaged. - While bleeding is present, the **closed internal os** in the given scenario rules out inevitable abortion. *Incomplete abortion* - This involves vaginal bleeding, an **open internal os**, and the **partial expulsion of pregnancy tissue**, with some products of conception remaining in the uterus. - The presentation does not include an open os or retained products of conception, as the fetus is viable and the os is closed. *Complete abortion* - This occurs when **all products of conception have been expelled** from the uterus, characterized by an initially open os that subsequently closes, and often a decrease in bleeding. - The presence of a **viable fetus** and a closed os clearly rules out a complete abortion.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsA person is not able to count fingers from a distance of 6 meters. He shall be categorized into which type of blindness?
FMGE 2019 - Ophthalmology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: A person is not able to count fingers from a distance of 6 meters. He shall be categorized into which type of blindness?
- A. Moderate visual impairment
- B. Severe visual impairment (Correct Answer)
- C. Near-total blindness
- D. Profound visual impairment
Explanation: ***Severe visual impairment*** - Severe visual impairment is defined as visual acuity **less than 6/60 to 3/60** (presenting visual acuity). - The key clinical threshold is the **inability to count fingers at 6 meters**, which corresponds to VA < 6/60. - This category represents a significant functional vision loss where the person can typically still count fingers at 3 meters but not at 6 meters. - According to **WHO ICD-10 classification**, this falls under **Category H1** (severe visual impairment). *Moderate visual impairment* - Moderate visual impairment is characterized by visual acuity of **less than 6/18 to 6/60**. - A person with moderate visual impairment would **still be able to count fingers at 6 meters**. - This does not match the clinical presentation described in the question. *Profound visual impairment* - Profound visual impairment (also called **Blindness Category 1**) is defined as visual acuity **less than 3/60 to 1/60**. - The key threshold here is the **inability to count fingers at 3 meters** (but can count at 1 meter). - This is more severe than what is described in the question, as the question only specifies inability at 6 meters. *Near-total blindness* - Near-total blindness (**Blindness Category 2**) refers to visual acuity **less than 1/60 to light perception only**. - This represents the ability to perceive hand movements close to the face or only light perception. - This is far more severe than the presentation described in the question.
Pathology
1 questionsCellulitis is characterized as:
FMGE 2019 - Pathology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: Cellulitis is characterized as:
- A. Suppurative and invasive
- B. Nonsuppurative and non-invasive
- C. Nonsuppurative and invasive (Correct Answer)
- D. Suppurative and non-invasive
Explanation: ***Nonsuppurative and invasive*** - Cellulitis is considered **nonsuppurative** as it typically lacks macroscopic pus formation, distinguishing it from abscesses. - It is **invasive** because it involves the dermal and subcutaneous tissues, spreading through fascial planes. *Suppurative and invasive* - This description is more indicative of conditions like an **abscess**, which involves localized collections of pus. - While abscesses are invasive, cellulitis characteristically lacks the discrete pus collection. *Nonsuppurative and non-invasive* - Conditions that are nonsuppurative and non-invasive might include self-limiting skin rashes or superficial inflammatory processes. - Cellulitis involves deeper tissue infection, which inherently makes it invasive. *Suppurative and non-invasive* - A condition that is suppurative but non-invasive would be rare and contradictory, as pus formation often indicates a tissue response that is at least locally invasive. - Superficial pustules might be considered suppurative and relatively non-invasive, but cellulitis clearly extends beyond such superficial lesions.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhich of the following is not a formal thought disorder?
FMGE 2019 - Psychiatry FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: Which of the following is not a formal thought disorder?
- A. Neologism
- B. Derailment
- C. Tangentiality
- D. Delusion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Delusion*** - A **delusion** is a **fixed, false belief** that is firmly held despite clear evidence to the contrary and is not consistent with the person's cultural or religious background. It is a **disorder of thought content**, not thought form or process. - While delusions are a hallmark symptom of many psychotic disorders, they represent what a person thinks, rather than how they think. *Neologism* - **Neologism** refers to the **creation of new, nonsensical words or phrases** that are intelligible only to the person coining them. - This is a formal thought disorder because it reflects a break in the conventional structure and coherence of language. *Derailment* - **Derailment**, also known as **loose associations**, is a thought disorder where the person's thoughts shift from one topic to another in a way that is loosely connected or completely unrelated. - This represents a disruption in the logical flow and organization of ideas, making it a formal thought disorder. *Tangentiality* - **Tangentiality** is a thought disorder where the person **strays from the main topic** and never returns to the original point or answers the question asked. - It reflects an inability to maintain focused thought and is a formal thought disorder related to the process of thinking.
Surgery
1 questionsA 27-year-old woman presents with 26 weeks of gestation with a thyroid lesion which is found to be papillary carcinoma of thyroid. Which is the best treatment for this patient?
FMGE 2019 - Surgery FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: A 27-year-old woman presents with 26 weeks of gestation with a thyroid lesion which is found to be papillary carcinoma of thyroid. Which is the best treatment for this patient?
- A. Hemi-thyroidectomy
- B. Total thyroidectomy
- C. Thyroid ablation using radioactive Iodine
- D. Observation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Observation*** - For **papillary thyroid carcinoma** diagnosed at **26 weeks of gestation**, **observation with close monitoring** is the best management approach. - At 26 weeks (late second trimester/approaching third trimester), the optimal surgical window (14-24 weeks) has passed, and surgery in the third trimester carries increased risk of preterm labor and maternal complications. - **Papillary thyroid carcinoma** has an **indolent course**, and delaying definitive treatment by 3-4 months until after delivery poses **minimal risk** to the mother. - **Close monitoring with ultrasound** should be performed, and **total thyroidectomy** should be planned for **after delivery**. - Surgery during pregnancy is only indicated for **rapidly growing tumors** or evidence of **aggressive features**, which are not mentioned in this case. *Total thyroidectomy* - While **total thyroidectomy** is the definitive treatment for papillary thyroid carcinoma, the **timing is critical** during pregnancy. - Surgery is ideally performed in the **second trimester (14-24 weeks)** to minimize risks to both mother and fetus. - At **26 weeks**, the patient is beyond the optimal surgical window, and performing surgery at this stage or in the third trimester increases the risk of **preterm labor** and other obstetric complications. - Definitive surgery should be **deferred until after delivery** unless there are aggressive features requiring urgent intervention. *Hemi-thyroidectomy* - **Hemi-thyroidectomy** is inadequate for papillary thyroid carcinoma and is only considered for very low-risk papillary microcarcinomas (<1 cm). - It does not provide adequate oncological control for diagnosed papillary carcinoma. *Thyroid ablation using radioactive Iodine* - **Radioactive iodine ablation** is absolutely **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to the risk of fetal thyroid destruction, leading to congenital hypothyroidism or cretinism. - While it is used as adjuvant therapy post-thyroidectomy in non-pregnant patients, it must be delayed until after delivery and cessation of breastfeeding.