Community Medicine
2 questionsMain focus of UNICEF is on?
Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
FMGE 2019 - Community Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Main focus of UNICEF is on?
- A. Child health (Correct Answer)
- B. Social health
- C. Mental health
- D. Nutritional health
Explanation: ***Child health*** - UNICEF's primary mission focuses on advocating for the protection of children's rights, helping to meet their basic needs, and expanding their opportunities to reach their full potential. - This encompasses various aspects of child welfare, with **child health** being a fundamental and overarching priority. *Social health* - While UNICEF's work indirectly contributes to **social health** by fostering community well-being, its direct and explicit focus is not primarily on the broader concept of social health. - Social health is a very broad term that encompasses many aspects not directly and exclusively dealt with by UNICEF. *Mental health* - **Child mental health** is an increasingly recognized area of focus for UNICEF, but it falls under the broader umbrella of child health and well-being, rather than being its sole or main focus. - While important, mental health is a component of overall child health, not the singular main focus. *Nutritional health* - **Nutritional health** is a critical component of child health and a significant area of intervention for UNICEF. - However, it represents one vital aspect within the comprehensive scope of "child health," not the exclusive main focus.
Question 92: Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
- A. Mean (Correct Answer)
- B. Range
- C. Variance
- D. Standard error
Explanation: ***Mean*** - The **mean** is a measure of **central tendency**, representing the average value of a dataset. - It describes where the center of the data lies, not how spread out the data points are. *Range* - The **range** is a measure of **dispersion** that indicates the difference between the **maximum** and **minimum** values in a dataset. - It quantifies the overall spread of the data from its lowest to highest points. *Variance* - **Variance** is a measure of **dispersion** that quantifies the **average squared deviation** of each data point from the mean. - It provides insight into how much the individual data points in a distribution deviate from the central tendency. *Standard error* - The **standard error** measures the **precision and sampling variability** of a sample statistic (e.g., sample mean) as an estimate of the population parameter. - While it relates to variability, it specifically quantifies how much a sample statistic varies across different samples, rather than measuring the dispersion of individual observations within a dataset. - In the context of this question, it is considered a measure related to dispersion, though technically it measures sampling variability.
Internal Medicine
4 questionsWhich of the following is best for diagnosis of pheochromocytoma?
Hyperkalemia means more than
A 40-year-old male presents with tachypnea. Examination reveals a respiratory rate of 32/min, pulmonary hypertension, blood pressure of 132/90 mmHg, and elevated JVP. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
The following serological status is noted in a patient: HbsAg positive and HbeAg positive. Diagnosis is?
FMGE 2019 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Which of the following is best for diagnosis of pheochromocytoma?
- A. 24-hour Urinary Hydroxy indole acetic acid
- B. 24-hour urinary Vanillyl Mandelic acid
- C. 24-hour Urinary Hydroxy tryptamine
- D. 24-hour urinary Fractionated Metanephrine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***24-hour urinary Fractionated Metanephrine*** - This test measures the **metabolites of catecholamines** (epinephrine and norepinephrine), which are continuously produced by pheochromocytomas [1]. - As metanephrines are released continuously rather than episodically, their measurement in a 24-hour urine collection provides the **highest sensitivity and specificity** for diagnosing pheochromocytoma. *24-hour Urinary Hydroxy indole acetic acid* - This is a metabolite of **serotonin**, which is relevant to conditions like **carcinoid syndrome**, not pheochromocytoma. - Elevated levels would indicate a serotonin-producing tumor, not a catecholamine-producing tumor. *24-hour urinary Vanillyl Mandelic acid* - While VMA is a metabolite of both epinephrine and norepinephrine, it is a less specific and sensitive marker than fractionated metanephrines for pheochromocytoma. - Its measurement can be affected by various medications and dietary factors, leading to a higher rate of false positives and negatives compared to metanephrines. *24-hour Urinary Hydroxy tryptamine* - This refers to **serotonin**, which is not directly relevant to the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. - Elevated levels would point towards conditions involving serotonin metabolism, such as carcinoid tumors.
Question 92: Hyperkalemia means more than
- A. 5.5 mEq/l (Correct Answer)
- B. 4.5 mEq/l
- C. 10.5 mEq/l
- D. 7.5 mEq/l
Explanation: ***5.5 mEq/l*** - **Hyperkalemia** is defined as a serum potassium level greater than **5.5 mEq/L** [1]. - This elevated level can lead to significant cardiac and neurological complications if not promptly addressed. *4.5 mEq/l* - A potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L falls within the normal physiological range for serum potassium, which is typically **3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L** [1]. - Therefore, this value does not indicate hyperkalemia. *10.5 mEq/l* - While 10.5 mEq/L is indeed an elevated potassium level, it represents **severe hyperkalemia**, far exceeding the general threshold for diagnosis. - The definition of hyperkalemia begins at a lower threshold of **5.5 mEq/L** [1]. *7.5 mEq/l* - A potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L indicates **moderate to severe hyperkalemia** and is a critical finding requiring immediate medical intervention [2]. - However, the initial threshold for defining hyperkalemia is **5.5 mEq/L**, making this option too high for the general definition [1].
Question 93: A 40-year-old male presents with tachypnea. Examination reveals a respiratory rate of 32/min, pulmonary hypertension, blood pressure of 132/90 mmHg, and elevated JVP. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
- A. Tension pneumothorax
- B. Aortic dissection and rupture
- C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Cor pulmonale (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cor pulmonale*** - **Cor pulmonale** is right heart failure secondary to pulmonary disease, which perfectly explains the constellation of **tachypnea**, **pulmonary hypertension**, and **elevated JVP**. - The pathophysiology involves underlying lung disease leading to **pulmonary hypertension**, causing **right heart strain** and eventual right heart failure. *Tension pneumothorax* - Characterized by **severe dyspnea**, **hypotension**, and **tracheal deviation**, none of which are explicitly mentioned here. - While it causes tachypnea, it would typically present with **unilateral absent breath sounds** and **hemodynamic instability**, not chronic pulmonary hypertension. *Aortic dissection and rupture* - Typically presents with **sudden onset severe chest pain**, **pulse deficits**, and often **blood pressure differences** between arms. - Does not primarily cause **pulmonary hypertension** or **elevated JVP** as its initial and predominant symptoms. *Right ventricular hypertrophy* - This represents a **structural adaptation** to chronic pressure overload rather than the primary cause of the clinical syndrome. - **RVH** is a consequence and manifestation of **cor pulmonale**, not the underlying diagnosis explaining the patient's presentation.
Question 94: The following serological status is noted in a patient: HbsAg positive and HbeAg positive. Diagnosis is?
- A. Active hepatitis B with high infectivity (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic viral hepatitis
- C. Remote infection
- D. Resolved hepatitis B infection
Explanation: ***Active hepatitis B with high infectivity*** - The presence of **HBsAg** indicates ongoing **hepatitis B infection** (either acute or chronic) [1]. - The presence of **HBeAg** signifies active **viral replication** and **high infectivity**, meaning the patient can easily transmit the virus [1]. *Chronic viral hepatitis* - While the patient does have hepatitis B, simply stating "chronic viral hepatitis" is less specific and doesn't fully capture the **infectivity status**. - **Chronic hepatitis B** is defined by **HBsAg persistence** for more than six months, but a high infectivity state is specifically implied by HBeAg positivity [1]. *Remote infection* - **Remote infection** would typically be indicated by the presence of **anti-HBs** and **anti-HBc IgG** antibodies, with no detectable HBsAg [1]. - The patient's **HBsAg positive** status rules out a remote infection where the virus has been cleared [1]. *Resolved hepatitis B infection* - A resolved hepatitis B infection is characterized by **loss of HBsAg** and the development of **anti-HBs antibodies**, indicating immunity [1]. - The patient's **HBsAg positive** status definitively indicates that the infection is not resolved and is still active [1].
Microbiology
1 questionsEBV is most strongly associated with which of the following?
FMGE 2019 - Microbiology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: EBV is most strongly associated with which of the following?
- A. Gastric cancer
- B. Esophageal cancer
- C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation: ***Nasopharyngeal carcinoma*** - **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** is strongly and consistently associated with the development of **nasopharyngeal carcinoma**, particularly the undifferentiated (endemic) type. - EBV DNA is found in virtually **100% of undifferentiated nasopharyngeal carcinomas**, highlighting its critical role in the pathogenesis of this cancer. - This represents one of the strongest virus-cancer associations in human medicine. *Gastric cancer* - While EBV is linked to a specific subtype of **EBV-associated gastric adenocarcinoma**, it accounts for only about **10% of gastric cancers**. - This makes it a less strong and less prevalent association compared to nasopharyngeal carcinoma. *Esophageal cancer* - **Esophageal cancer** (adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma) has various risk factors such as GERD, smoking, and alcohol consumption. - **EBV is not a significant etiologic factor** for esophageal cancer. - There is no strong, consistent evidence linking EBV as a primary cause of esophageal malignancy. *Hepatocellular carcinoma* - **Hepatocellular carcinoma** is primarily associated with **hepatitis B virus (HBV)** and **hepatitis C virus (HCV)**, not EBV. - Other risk factors include chronic liver disease, cirrhosis, aflatoxin exposure, and alcohol abuse. - EBV does not play a significant role in hepatocellular carcinoma pathogenesis.
Pathology
1 questionsBerry aneurysm most commonly occurs due to?
FMGE 2019 - Pathology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Berry aneurysm most commonly occurs due to?
- A. Muscle and adventitial layer defect
- B. Medial layer and internal elastic lamina defect (Correct Answer)
- C. Endothelial injury of vessel due to HTN
- D. Adventitia defect
Explanation: ***Medial layer and internal elastic lamina defect*** - **Berry aneurysms** are most commonly saccular dilatations that occur at arterial bifurcations in the **Circle of Willis** [1]. - These aneurysms result from a congenital or acquired weakness in the **tunica media** and the **internal elastic lamina** at these bifurcation points, making the vessel wall susceptible to high pressures [1]. *Muscle and adventitial layer defect* - Defects primarily in the **muscle layer** (media) and **adventitia** are less commonly the primary cause of berry aneurysms. - While all layers contribute to vessel integrity, the specific absence in the medial and internal elastic lamina is key for berry aneurysms [1]. *Endothelial injury of vessel due to HTN* - While hypertension is a significant **risk factor** for aneurysm formation and rupture, it primarily exacerbates existing structural weaknesses rather than being the direct cause of the initial structural defect. - **Endothelial injury alone** is not the primary anatomical defect responsible for generating berry aneurysms; it contributes to atherosclerosis, which can lead to other types of aneurysms. *Adventitia defect* - A defect solely in the **adventitia** is not the primary predisposing factor for berry aneurysms. - The adventitia provides external support, but the integrity of the media and internal elastic lamina is crucial for maintaining the vessel's structural strength against intraluminal pressure [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1272-1273.
Pediatrics
1 questionsA child presents with complaints of bed wetting. What is the first line of treatment?
FMGE 2019 - Pediatrics FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: A child presents with complaints of bed wetting. What is the first line of treatment?
- A. Bed alarm technique (Correct Answer)
- B. Motivational therapy
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Desmopressin
Explanation: ***Bed alarm technique*** - The **bed alarm technique** is considered the most effective first-line treatment for **nocturnal enuresis** in children. - It works through **classical conditioning**, training the child to wake up in response to bladder fullness. *Motivational therapy* - **Motivational therapy** can be a useful adjunct to other treatments, but it is not typically the sole **first-line therapy** due to varying effectiveness. - It focuses on building the child's confidence and encouraging dryness but does not directly address the physiological aspects of bedwetting. *Oxybutynin* - **Oxybutynin** is an anticholinergic medication that can reduce bladder contractions and increase bladder capacity. - It is usually reserved for cases where **bedwetting alarms** and **desmopressin** have been ineffective, or when there is an identifiable **overactive bladder component**. *Desmopressin* - **Desmopressin** is an antidiuretic hormone analogue that reduces urine production during the night. - While effective, it is often considered a **second-line treatment** after behavioral interventions like the bed alarm, or when rapid but temporary improvement is desired.
Psychiatry
1 questionsNeologism is seen in:
FMGE 2019 - Psychiatry FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Neologism is seen in:
- A. Mania
- B. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- C. Depression
- D. Dysphasia
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia*** - **Neologisms** are newly coined words that have meaning only to the person who invents them, and they are a characteristic **thought disorder** symptom often observed in schizophrenia. - This symptom reflects the **disorganized thinking** and **impaired communication** typical of the disorder. *Mania* - While individuals in a manic episode may exhibit **rapid speech**, **flight of ideas**, and **pressured speech**, they typically do not create entirely new words (neologisms). - Their speech is usually characterized by **excessive quantity** and quick topic changes, rather than word invention. *Depression* - Depression is associated with **poverty of speech**, **slowed thought processes**, and a focus on negative themes. - **Neologisms** are not a feature of depressive episodes. *Dysphasia* - **Dysphasia** (or aphasia) refers to an impairment in the production or comprehension of language due to brain injury, such as stroke. - While speech may be **disrupted** or **grammatically incorrect**, it primarily involves difficulty using existing words correctly rather than producing entirely new ones.