FMGE 2019 — Ophthalmology
13 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
A person with a visual acuity of 6/60 in the right eye and 3/60 in the left eye would be categorized into which type of blindness?
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is primarily associated with hypersensitivity to which of the following?
Chronic granulomatous inflammation in upper lid (painless swelling) is characteristic of:
Which of the following is seen in retinitis pigmentosa?
Which of the following is an advantage of contact lenses over normal glasses?
Keratometer is used to assess:
A patient presents with convergent squint in one eye. Vision in the squinting eye is 6/60, and vision in the non-squinting eye is also 6/60. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Appropriate treatment for mild congenital ptosis?
A 20-year-old male complains of repeated changes in glasses prescription. This is most likely caused by:
A person is not able to count fingers from a distance of 6 meters. He shall be categorized into which type of blindness?
FMGE 2019 - Ophthalmology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A person with a visual acuity of 6/60 in the right eye and 3/60 in the left eye would be categorized into which type of blindness?
- A. Moderate visual impairment (Correct Answer)
- B. Legal blindness
- C. Normal vision
- D. Low vision
Explanation: ***Moderate visual impairment*** - According to the **WHO International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11)**, moderate visual impairment is defined as visual acuity **< 6/18 to ≥ 6/60** in the better eye with best possible correction. - This patient's better eye (right eye) has a visual acuity of **6/60**, which falls at the **upper limit** of the moderate visual impairment category. - This is the standard classification used in Indian medical examinations and follows WHO guidelines. *Legal blindness* - **Legal blindness** is a **US administrative/legal term**, not a WHO classification category. It is defined as visual acuity **< 6/60 (or 20/200)** in the better eye, or visual field < 20 degrees. - Since this patient has exactly **6/60** (not less than 6/60), they do **not** meet the strict criteria for legal blindness. - This term is less commonly used in Indian medical literature, where WHO classifications are standard. *Low vision* - **Low vision** is a broad umbrella term that includes all categories of visual impairment from mild to severe, but it is not a specific classification category. - While this patient does have low vision, the more specific and appropriate classification is moderate visual impairment. *Normal vision* - **Normal vision** is defined as visual acuity of **6/6 to 6/12** in the better eye. - This patient's visual acuity of **6/60** represents significant visual impairment, far below the normal range.
Question 2: Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is primarily associated with hypersensitivity to which of the following?
- A. Staphylococcus (Correct Answer)
- B. Chlamydia
- C. Pneumococcus
- D. Aspergillus
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus*** - **Phlyctenular conjunctivitis** is characterized by delayed (Type IV) hypersensitivity reactions to bacterial antigens, most commonly from **Staphylococcus aureus**. - This condition often presents with small, nodular lesions (phlyctenules) on the conjunctiva or cornea, which are essentially collections of inflammatory cells responding to bacterial proteins. - **Important note**: **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** is another well-documented cause of phlyctenular conjunctivitis, particularly in TB-endemic regions, and should be considered in the differential diagnosis. - Other triggers include protein antigens from organisms colonizing the ocular surface. *Chlamydia* - While **Chlamydia trachomatis** can cause chronic conjunctivitis (e.g., trachoma, adult inclusion conjunctivitis), it does not typically lead to the distinct nodular lesions seen in phlyctenular conjunctivitis. - Ocular chlamydial infections are primarily characterized by follicular conjunctivitis and pannus formation. *Pneumococcus* - **Streptococcus pneumoniae** (Pneumococcus) is a common cause of acute bacterial conjunctivitis, characterized by purulent discharge and redness. - However, it is not associated with the specific delayed hypersensitivity reaction that defines phlyctenular conjunctivitis. *Aspergillus* - **Aspergillus** species are fungi and are more commonly implicated in fungal keratitis or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. - Fungal infections of the conjunctiva are rare and do not typically manifest as phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
Question 3: Chronic granulomatous inflammation in upper lid (painless swelling) is characteristic of:
- A. Chalazion (Correct Answer)
- B. Trachoma
- C. Internal Hordeolum
- D. External Hordeolum
Explanation: ***Chalazion*** - A chalazion is a **chronic**, sterile, **lipogranulomatous** inflammation of the **meibomian glands**. - It presents as a **painless**, firm, round swelling in the eyelid, often in the upper lid due to the larger meibomian glands. *Trachoma* - Trachoma is a **chronic keratoconjunctivitis** caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*. - It primarily affects the conjunctiva and cornea, leading to scarring, entropion, and eventual blindness, not a painless eyelid swelling. *Internal Hordeolum* - An internal hordeolum is an **acute** bacterial infection of a **meibomian gland**, forming an abscess. - It is typically **painful**, red, and tender, contrasting with the painless nature of the given presentation. *External hordeolum* - An external hordeolum (stye) is an **acute** bacterial infection of the **glands of Zeis or Moll** at the lid margin. - It is usually **painful**, red, and tender, presenting as a small pustule or nodule on the eyelid margin, not a deep-seated painless swelling.
Question 4: Which of the following is seen in retinitis pigmentosa?
- A. Arteriolar attenuation (Correct Answer)
- B. Neovascularization
- C. Papilledema
- D. Retinal artery thrombosis
Explanation: ***Arteriolar attenuation*** - **Arteriolar attenuation** is a classic finding in retinitis pigmentosa, reflecting the progressive loss of retinal tissue and the associated reduction in metabolic demand, leading to narrowing of the retinal arterioles. - This sign indicates the ongoing degeneration of photoreceptors and the underlying retinal layers, which is characteristic of the disease. *Neovascularization* - **Neovascularization** (abnormal new blood vessel growth) is typically associated with conditions like proliferative diabetic retinopathy or age-related macular degeneration. - It is not a primary feature of retinitis pigmentosa, which is a degenerative disease rather than an ischemic or proliferative one. *Papilledema* - **Papilledema** is swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure. - It is not a feature of retinitis pigmentosa; rather, the optic disc in retinitis pigmentosa often appears waxy pale due to optic atrophy. *Retinal artery thrombosis* - **Retinal artery thrombosis** involves the sudden blockage of a retinal artery, leading to acute vision loss and often presenting with a 'cherry-red spot' on the macula. - This is an acute vascular event and is not characteristic of the chronic, progressive degeneration seen in retinitis pigmentosa.
Question 5: Which of the following is an advantage of contact lenses over normal glasses?
- A. Reduced prismatic effect
- B. Improved peripheral vision (Correct Answer)
- C. Decreased risk of infection
- D. UV protection (in specific lenses)
Explanation: ***Improved peripheral vision*** - Contact lenses sit directly on the cornea, moving with the eye and eliminating the **frame obstruction** and **edge distortions** associated with glasses. - This provides a wider and more natural **field of view**, enhancing peripheral vision. *Reduced prismatic effect* - While contact lenses do reduce the **magnification/minification** compared to glasses, the prismatic effect is a specific distortion most pronounced in **strong thick spectacle lenses** and can induce visual discomfort, which contact lenses inherently minimize. - This effect is due to the distance between the spectacle lens and the eye, which contact lenses eliminate. *Decreased risk of infection* - Wearing contact lenses inherently carries a **higher risk of eye infections** if proper hygiene and care are not meticulously followed. - Unlike glasses, contact lenses require regular cleaning, disinfection, and proper storage to prevent bacterial or fungal contamination. *UV protection (in specific lenses)* - While some contact lenses incorporate **UV-blocking agents**, this is not a universal feature of all contact lenses and is also available in many spectacle lenses. - UV protection from contact lenses primarily shields the cornea and iris but does not fully protect the surrounding ocular tissues like glasses (especially wrap-around styles) can.
Question 6: Keratometer is used to assess:
- A. Curvature of lens
- B. Curvature of cornea (Correct Answer)
- C. Thickness of cornea
- D. Diameter of cornea
Explanation: ***Curvature of cornea*** - A **keratometer** (or ophthalmometer) is specifically designed to measure the **radius of curvature** of the **anterior surface of the cornea**. - This measurement is crucial for fitting **contact lenses**, diagnosing **astigmatism**, and planning **refractive surgeries**. *Curvature of lens* - The curvature of the **crystalline lens** inside the eye is not directly measured by a keratometer. - Lens curvature changes with **accommodation** and is assessed more indirectly through an **autorefractor** or during cataract surgery planning with specific formulas. *Thickness of cornea* - The **thickness of the cornea** is measured using a **pachymeter**, not a keratometer. - **Pachymetry** is important for diagnosing conditions like **glaucoma** and evaluating suitability for **refractive surgery**. *Diameter of cornea* - The **diameter of the cornea** (from limbus to limbus) is typically measured using a **ruler or calipers**, not a keratometer. - This measurement is relevant for contact lens fitting and surgical planning.
Question 7: A patient presents with convergent squint in one eye. Vision in the squinting eye is 6/60, and vision in the non-squinting eye is also 6/60. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Glasses
- B. Refraction and treat underlying cause of poor vision (Correct Answer)
- C. Squint surgery
- D. Botulinum toxin
Explanation: ***Refraction and treat underlying cause of poor vision*** - When **both eyes have equally poor vision (6/60)** with a convergent squint, this suggests a **bilateral pathology** affecting visual acuity, not simply a refractive accommodative esotropia. - The **first step** is comprehensive **cycloplegic refraction** to determine if refractive error contributes to the poor vision. - **Equally important** is identifying the **underlying cause** of bilateral vision loss (6/60 in both eyes), which could be: - **Bilateral amblyopia** (though unusual to have equal severity) - **Uncorrected high refractive error** (hypermetropia causing accommodative esotropia) - **Cataracts** (congenital or developmental) - **Retinal pathology** or **optic nerve disorders** - Only after identifying and treating the underlying cause can definitive management of the squint be planned. *Glasses* - While **glasses** may be part of the treatment if refractive error is found, **prescribing glasses alone** without first performing refraction and investigating why both eyes have 6/60 vision is incomplete management. - This option is too narrow and doesn't address the need to identify the underlying pathology causing bilateral poor vision. *Squint surgery* - **Squint surgery** addresses ocular misalignment but does **not improve vision**. - Surgery should only be considered **after** refractive correction, treatment of amblyopia (if present), and management of any underlying pathology. - Operating without addressing the cause of poor vision would be premature. *Botulinum toxin* - **Botulinum toxin** is used for certain types of strabismus as a temporary or alternative to surgery. - Like surgery, it addresses alignment but **not visual acuity**. - The priority is to improve vision and identify the underlying cause before considering alignment procedures.
Question 8: Appropriate treatment for mild congenital ptosis?
- A. Frontalis sling procedure
- B. Antibiotics and hot compression
- C. LPS Resection (Correct Answer)
- D. Wedge resection of conjunctiva
Explanation: ***LPS Resection*** - **LPS (levator palpebrae superioris) resection/advancement** is the most common surgical treatment for congenital ptosis, especially in mild to moderate cases. - This procedure strengthens the levator muscle, improving eyelid position and is appropriate when the **levator function is good** (typically greater than 4mm). *Frontalis sling procedure* - The **frontalis sling procedure** is generally reserved for severe congenital ptosis with poor levator function (<4mm) or in cases where the levator muscle is absent or highly dysfunctional. - It uses the frontalis muscle to lift the eyelid indirectly, which is less ideal for mild ptosis. *Antibiotics and hot compression* - **Antibiotics and hot compression** are treatments for infectious or inflammatory conditions of the eyelid, such as a **hordeolum** (stye) or **chalazion**. - They are not effective treatments for anatomical defects like congenital ptosis, which requires surgical intervention. *Wedge resection of conjunctiva* - **Wedge resection of the conjunctiva** might be used in some cases of conjunctival prolapse or for correction of specific conjunctival lesions or abnormalities. - It is not a standard or appropriate treatment for congenital ptosis.
Question 9: A 20-year-old male complains of repeated changes in glasses prescription. This is most likely caused by:
- A. Keratoconus (Correct Answer)
- B. Cataract
- C. Glaucoma
- D. Pathological myopia
Explanation: ***Keratoconus*** - **Keratoconus** is a progressive disorder where the cornea thins and protrudes into a cone shape, leading to irregular astigmatism and frequent changes in glasses prescription. - This condition commonly presents in young adults and is characterized by **rapid, repeated changes** in both spherical and cylindrical components due to progressive corneal distortion. - The irregular corneal shape makes it difficult to achieve stable, satisfactory vision correction with glasses alone. *Cataract* - A **cataract** is a clouding of the eye's natural lens, which causes blurred vision, glare, and difficulty seeing at night. - While it can cause a "myopic shift" leading to prescription changes, it is more common in older individuals (>50 years) and the changes are typically slower and less frequent than in keratoconus. *Glaucoma* - **Glaucoma** is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve, often due to high intraocular pressure, leading to peripheral vision loss and eventually blindness. - It does not cause changes in refractive error or require frequent updates to glasses prescriptions. - Visual changes are related to field defects, not refractive changes. *Pathological myopia* - **Pathological myopia** is a severe form of nearsightedness where the eye elongates excessively, leading to progressive increases in myopic refractive error. - While it can cause prescription changes in young adults, the progression is typically more **gradual and predictable** (mainly increasing spherical myopia) compared to the **rapid, irregular changes** seen in keratoconus. - Keratoconus is distinguished by frequent changes in astigmatism due to irregular corneal shape, whereas pathological myopia mainly affects spherical power.
Question 10: A person is not able to count fingers from a distance of 6 meters. He shall be categorized into which type of blindness?
- A. Moderate visual impairment
- B. Severe visual impairment (Correct Answer)
- C. Near-total blindness
- D. Profound visual impairment
Explanation: ***Severe visual impairment*** - Severe visual impairment is defined as visual acuity **less than 6/60 to 3/60** (presenting visual acuity). - The key clinical threshold is the **inability to count fingers at 6 meters**, which corresponds to VA < 6/60. - This category represents a significant functional vision loss where the person can typically still count fingers at 3 meters but not at 6 meters. - According to **WHO ICD-10 classification**, this falls under **Category H1** (severe visual impairment). *Moderate visual impairment* - Moderate visual impairment is characterized by visual acuity of **less than 6/18 to 6/60**. - A person with moderate visual impairment would **still be able to count fingers at 6 meters**. - This does not match the clinical presentation described in the question. *Profound visual impairment* - Profound visual impairment (also called **Blindness Category 1**) is defined as visual acuity **less than 3/60 to 1/60**. - The key threshold here is the **inability to count fingers at 3 meters** (but can count at 1 meter). - This is more severe than what is described in the question, as the question only specifies inability at 6 meters. *Near-total blindness* - Near-total blindness (**Blindness Category 2**) refers to visual acuity **less than 1/60 to light perception only**. - This represents the ability to perceive hand movements close to the face or only light perception. - This is far more severe than the presentation described in the question.