HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for HIV-associated malignancies. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 1: A 58-year-old woman with HIV infection is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-week history of headaches, blurred vision, and confusion. Her current medications include antiretroviral therapy and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Neurological examination shows ataxia and memory impairment. Her CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 90/μL. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows lymphocytic predominant pleocytosis, and PCR is positive for Epstein-Barr virus DNA. An MRI of the brain with contrast shows a solitary, weakly ring-enhancing lesion with well-defined borders involving the corpus callosum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Glioblastoma multiforme
- B. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
- C. Primary cerebral lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
- E. AIDS dementia
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***Primary cerebral lymphoma***
- The combination of **HIV infection** with a very low **CD4 count (<100/μL)**, **weakly ring-enhancing solitary lesion** in the corpus callosum, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) DNA in CSF, and typical neurological symptoms points strongly to **primary cerebral lymphoma (PCL)**.
- PCL is a common **AIDS-defining illness** and is highly associated with **EBV infection** in immunocompromised individuals.
*Glioblastoma multiforme*
- While GBM is a primary brain tumor, it typically presents with a **strongly and irregularly enhancing lesion**, often with a **necrotic center**, rather than a solitary, weakly enhancing lesion.
- GBM is not directly associated with **HIV infection** or **EBV DNA in CSF**, which are key features in this case.
*Cerebral toxoplasmosis*
- Cerebral toxoplasmosis typically presents with **multiple ring-enhancing lesions**, often in the **basal ganglia**, rather than a solitary lesion as described.
- Diagnosis is usually confirmed by **serology for *Toxoplasma gondii*** and a positive response to empiric anti-toxoplasma therapy, not EBV DNA in CSF.
*Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy*
- PML is characterized by **non-enhancing white matter lesions** on MRI, rather than a ring-enhancing lesion.
- It is caused by the **JC virus**, not EBV, and typically presents with **rapidly progressive neurological deficits** without mass effect.
*AIDS dementia*
- AIDS dementia complex (now HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder) presents as **diffuse cerebral atrophy** and **white matter changes** on MRI, without focal or ring-enhancing lesions.
- It is a diagnosis of exclusion in HIV patients with cognitive decline, and the presence of a focal lesion with mass effect points to another etiology.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 2: A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of headaches, vertigo, and changes to his personality for the past few weeks. He was diagnosed with HIV 14 years ago and was started on antiretroviral therapy at that time. Medical records from one month ago indicate that he followed his medication schedule inconsistently. Since then, he has been regularly taking his antiretroviral medications and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. His vital signs are within normal limits. Neurological examination shows ataxia and apathy. Mini-Mental State Examination score is 15/30. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8400/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 80%
Eosinophils 1%
Lymphocytes 17%
Monocytes 2%
CD4+ T-lymphocytes 90/μL
Platelet count 328,000/mm3
An MRI of the brain with contrast shows a solitary ring-enhancing lesion involving the corpus callosum and measuring 4.5 cm in diameter. A lumbar puncture with subsequent cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows slight pleocytosis, and PCR is positive for Epstein-Barr virus DNA. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. CNS lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- B. AIDS dementia
- C. Glioblastoma
- D. Bacterial brain abscess
- E. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***CNS lymphoma***
- The patient's **immunosuppressed state (CD4 count 90/µL)** and the **solitary ring-enhancing lesion in the corpus callosum** are highly suggestive of CNS lymphoma.
- The **positive Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) DNA in CSF** is a strong indicator, as primary CNS lymphoma in HIV-positive patients is often associated with EBV infection.
*AIDS dementia*
- Characterized by **widespread cortical atrophy** and demyelination rather than a solitary, well-defined mass.
- While associated with cognitive decline, it doesn't typically present with a **mass lesion** or **EBV DNA in CSF**.
*Glioblastoma*
- More commonly presents as an **irregularly enhancing mass** in immunocompetent individuals and is less common in HIV patients with low CD4 counts.
- **EBV DNA in CSF** is not a feature of glioblastoma.
*Bacterial brain abscess*
- Usually presents with **fever, seizures, and focal neurological deficits**, and often multiple lesions.
- There is no mention of fever or a clear source of bacterial infection, and **EBV DNA in CSF** is not typical.
*Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy*
- Typically presents with **non-enhancing white matter lesions** without mass effect.
- Caused by the **JC virus (JCV)**, not EBV, and does not show ring enhancement.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 3: A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of chills and numerous skin lesions for 1 week. He has also had watery diarrhea, nausea, and abdominal pain for the past 2 weeks. The skin lesions are nonpruritic and painless. He was diagnosed with HIV infection approximately 20 years ago. He has not taken any medications for over 5 years. He sleeps in homeless shelters and parks. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows several bright red, friable nodules on his face, trunk, extremities. The liver is palpated 3 cm below the right costal margin. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 180/mm3 (N ≥ 500). A rapid plasma reagin test is negative. Abdominal ultrasonography shows hepatomegaly and a single intrahepatic 1.0 x 1.2-cm hypodense lesion. Biopsy of a skin lesion shows vascular proliferation and abundant neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
- A. Bartonella henselae (Correct Answer)
- B. Treponema pallidum
- C. HHV-8 virus
- D. Mycobacterium avium
- E. Candida albicans
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***Bartonella henselae***
- The patient's presentation with **bright red, friable nodules** (consistent with **bacillary angiomatosis**) in an HIV-positive individual with a low **CD4+ count** strongly suggests infection with *Bartonella henselae*.
- **Hepatomegaly** and **intrahepatic lesions** further support disseminated bartonellosis, and skin biopsy showing vascular proliferation with **abundant neutrophils** is characteristic.
*Treponema pallidum*
- While *Treponema pallidum* (syphilis) can cause various skin lesions, the **rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test** was negative, making syphilis highly unlikely.
- Syphilitic lesions typically do not present as brightly friable nodules with prominent vascular proliferation and neutrophils characteristic of bacillary angiomatosis.
*HHV-8 virus*
- **HHV-8** is the causative agent of **Kaposi sarcoma**, which also presents with vascular lesions. However, Kaposi sarcoma lesions are typically **violaceous plaques or nodules** and histologically show spindle cells and extravasated red blood cells, not the prominent neutrophils seen here.
- The patient's clinical presentation, particularly the friable nature and specific histology, steers away from Kaposi sarcoma.
*Mycobacterium avium*
- *Mycobacterium avium* complex (MAC) can cause disseminated disease in HIV patients with low CD4 counts, often presenting with fever, weight loss, and gastrointestinal symptoms.
- However, MAC infection rarely causes specific nonpruritic, bright red, friable skin nodules like those described, and hepatic lesions would typically be granulomatous, not necessarily angiomatous.
*Candida albicans*
- While *Candida albicans* can cause various infections in immunocompromised individuals, including esophagitis and mucocutaneous candidiasis, it does not typically present with these specific bright red, friable vascular skin nodules.
- Disseminated candidiasis would more likely involve fungemia and widespread organ involvement, often with more subtle or different skin manifestations (e.g., maculopapular rash).
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 4: A 41-year-old man with HIV comes to the physician because of rectal bleeding and itching for 2 weeks. During this period, he has also had pain with defecation. Four months ago, he was diagnosed with anogenital warts that were treated with cryotherapy. Over the past year, he has been sexually active with 3 male partners. He uses condoms inconsistently. Current medications are zidovudine, emtricitabine, and efavirenz. Digital rectal examination and anoscopy show an exophytic mass on the anal margin that is protruding into the anal canal. The mass is tender to palpation and bleeds easily on contact. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 7,600/mm3 and a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 410/mm3 (N ≥ 500). A biopsy specimen of the lesion shows a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following cellular processes was most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's malignancy?
- A. Activation of c-myc gene
- B. Inactivation of TP53 gene (Correct Answer)
- C. Activation of TAX gene
- D. Inactivation of VHL gene
- E. Inactivation of WT1 gene
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***Inactivation of TP53 gene***
- This patient's **squamous cell carcinoma** (SCC) of the anus is strongly associated with **human papillomavirus (HPV) infection**, which is common in HIV-positive sexually active men. HPV oncoproteins, particularly E6, promote the degradation of the **TP53 tumor suppressor protein**.
- Inactivating mutations or degradation of **TP53** remove a critical checkpoint in the cell cycle, allowing cells with DNA damage to proliferate uncontrollably and contributing to carcinogenesis.
*Activation of c-myc gene*
- The **c-myc proto-oncogene** is involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis, and its activation is commonly seen in lymphomas (e.g., Burkitt lymphoma) and other cancers.
- While *c-myc* activation can contribute to various malignancies, it is not the **primary molecular mechanism** linked to HPV-associated anal squamous cell carcinoma.
*Activation of TAX gene*
- The **TAX gene** is a transforming gene of **human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)**, responsible for T-cell leukemia/lymphoma.
- This patient's presentation with anal squamous cell carcinoma, rather than a hematologic malignancy, makes HTLV-1 and TAX gene activation an unlikely cause.
*Inactivation of VHL gene*
- The **VHL (Von Hippel-Lindau) gene** is a tumor suppressor gene whose inactivation is strongly associated with **renal cell carcinoma** (clear cell type) and other tumors like pheochromocytoma and hemangioblastoma.
- Inactivation of **VHL** is not a primary mechanism in the development of anal squamous cell carcinoma.
*Inactivation of WT1 gene*
- The **WT1 (Wilms tumor 1) gene** is a tumor suppressor gene primarily associated with **Wilms tumor**, a kidney cancer that typically affects children.
- Inactivation of **WT1** is not a known pathogenic mechanism for anal squamous cell carcinoma in adults.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 5: A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician because he has been having headaches and hearing loss. In addition, he says that he has been having difficulty opening his jaw to eat and recurrent middle ear infections. Physical exam reveals enlarged neck lymph nodes and a mass in the nasopharynx. Biopsy of the mass reveals undifferentiated squamous epithelial cells. The organism that is most likely associated with this patient's disease is also associated with which of the following disorders?
- A. Kaposi sarcoma
- B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- C. Adult T-cell lymphoma
- D. Burkitt lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- E. Vulvar carcinoma
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***Burkitt lymphoma***
- The patient's symptoms (headaches, hearing loss, difficulty opening jaw, recurrent middle ear infections, nasopharyngeal mass, enlarged neck lymph nodes) and biopsy results (undifferentiated squamous epithelial cells) point to **nasopharyngeal carcinoma**.
- **Nasopharyngeal carcinoma** is strongly associated with the **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**. EBV is also a causative agent in **Burkitt lymphoma**.
*Kaposi sarcoma*
- **Kaposi sarcoma** is caused by **Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**, not EBV.
- It typically presents as vascular skin lesions and can affect visceral organs, differing from the nasopharyngeal carcinoma described.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- **Hepatocellular carcinoma** is primarily associated with **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** and **Hepatitis C virus (HCV)** infection, as well as cirrhosis from other causes.
- There is no significant association between EBV and hepatocellular carcinoma.
*Adult T-cell lymphoma*
- **Adult T-cell lymphoma** is caused by the **Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)**.
- This is a retrovirus distinct from EBV.
*Vulvar carcinoma*
- **Vulvar carcinoma** is most frequently associated with **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)** infection, especially high-risk strains like HPV 16 and 18.
- It is not typically linked to EBV.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 6: A 44-year-old man with HIV comes to the physician for a routine follow-up examination. He has been noncompliant with his antiretroviral medication regimen for several years. He appears chronically ill and fatigued. CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 180/mm³ (N ≥ 500). Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
- A. Multifocal demyelination on brain MRI
- B. Violaceous lesions on skin exam (Correct Answer)
- C. Ring-enhancing lesions on brain MRI
- D. Cotton-wool spots on fundoscopy
- E. Ground-glass opacities on chest CT
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***Violaceous lesions on skin exam***
- A CD4 count of 180/mm³ indicates severe **immunosuppression**, making the patient highly susceptible to **opportunistic infections** and cancers, such as Kaposi sarcoma.
- **Kaposi sarcoma** typically presents with violaceous (purple-blue) cutaneous lesions, which are often the initial manifestation of the disease in HIV-positive patients.
*Multifocal demyelination on brain MRI*
- This finding is characteristic of **progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)**, caused by the **JC virus**.
- PML typically occurs at **CD4 counts below 100/mm³**, lower than the patient's current count, although still possible with severe immunosuppression.
*Ring-enhancing lesions on brain MRI*
- **Ring-enhancing lesions** on brain MRI are often seen in cerebral **toxoplasmosis** or CNS **lymphoma** in HIV patients.
- Toxoplasmosis usually presents with focal neurological deficits and seizures, and is more common with CD4 counts below 100/mm³.
*Cotton-wool spots on fundoscopy*
- **Cotton-wool spots** are a common finding in **HIV retinopathy** due to retinal ischemia.
- While possible, they are non-specific and are usually asymptomatic, whereas the patient's presentation suggests a more prominent and diagnosable condition.
*Ground-glass opacities on chest CT*
- **Ground-glass opacities** on chest CT are characteristic of **Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)**, a common opportunistic infection in HIV patients.
- While PJP is a strong possibility with a CD4 count <200/mm³, the question asks for a finding that is *most likely* given the patient's general appearance and the option of Kaposi sarcoma, which manifests directly on examination.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 7: A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency room with a cough and shortness of breath for the past 3 weeks. You diagnose Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP). An assay of the patient's serum reveals the presence of viral protein p24. Which of the following viral genes codes for this protein?
- A. gag (Correct Answer)
- B. pol
- C. rev
- D. env
- E. tat
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***gag***
- The **gag gene** (group-specific antigen) in HIV codes for structural proteins of the virus, including **p24**, which forms the viral capsid.
- The presence of **p24 protein** in the serum is a key marker for **HIV infection**, particularly in the early stages, as it indicates active viral replication.
*pol*
- The **pol gene** codes for essential viral enzymes such as **reverse transcriptase**, **integrase**, and **protease**, which are crucial for the HIV life cycle.
- While vital for viral replication, the **pol gene products** are enzymes involved in processing and replication, not the structural capsid protein p24.
*rev*
- The **rev gene** (regulator of expression of virion proteins) codes for the **Rev protein**, which regulates the export of HIV mRNAs from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
- This regulatory protein ensures the efficient synthesis of structural and enzymatic proteins but does not directly code for the p24 capsid protein.
*env*
- The **env gene** (envelope) codes for the viral envelope glycoproteins **gp160**, which is cleaved into **gp120** and **gp41**.
- These proteins are critical for viral entry into host cells by binding to CD4 receptors and co-receptors, but they are distinct from the p24 capsid protein.
*tat*
- The **tat gene** (trans-activator of transcription) codes for the **Tat protein**, a powerful trans-activator that enhances the transcription of HIV RNA.
- Tat plays a crucial role in increasing the efficiency of viral gene expression but does not code for structural components like the p24 capsid.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 8: A 44-year-old with a past medical history significant for human immunodeficiency virus infection presents to the emergency department after he was found to be experiencing worsening confusion. The patient was noted to be disoriented by residents and staff at the homeless shelter where he resides. On presentation he reports headache and muscle aches but is unable to provide more information. His temperature is 102.2°F (39°C), blood pressure is 112/71 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 24/min. Knee extension with hips flexed produces significant resistance and pain. A lumbar puncture is performed with the following results:
Opening pressure: Normal
Fluid color: Clear
Cell count: Increased lymphocytes
Protein: Slightly elevated
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
- A. Herpes simplex virus
- B. Group B streptococcus
- C. Cryptococcus (Correct Answer)
- D. Tuberculosis
- E. Neisseria meningitidis
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***Cryptococcus***
- **Cryptococcus neoformans** is the **most common cause of meningitis** in HIV-positive patients, particularly those with CD4 counts <100 cells/μL.
- The CSF findings are **classic for cryptococcal meningitis**: clear fluid, **lymphocytic pleocytosis**, normal or mildly elevated opening pressure, and **slightly elevated protein** with normal or mildly decreased glucose.
- The patient's **subacute presentation** with confusion, fever, and meningeal signs in the context of **HIV infection** strongly suggests cryptococcal meningitis as the most likely diagnosis.
- Diagnosis is confirmed with **CSF cryptococcal antigen**, India ink stain, or fungal culture.
*Herpes simplex virus*
- While HSV can cause meningitis or encephalitis, it is **not the most common cause** of meningitis in HIV-positive patients.
- **HSV encephalitis** typically presents with more prominent temporal lobe involvement, including personality changes, seizures, and focal neurological deficits.
- HSV meningitis is more common in **immunocompetent individuals** and would be less likely than cryptococcal infection in an HIV patient.
*Group B streptococcus*
- This causes **bacterial meningitis** with a **neutrophilic predominance** in CSF, not lymphocytic.
- CSF would show **markedly elevated protein**, **decreased glucose**, and cloudy appearance.
- More common in neonates and elderly patients, not typically associated with HIV.
*Neisseria meningitidis*
- This is a cause of **acute bacterial meningitis** with rapid onset and often a **petechial rash**.
- CSF would show **neutrophilic predominance**, **high protein**, **low glucose**, and turbid appearance.
- The lymphocytic pleocytosis rules out typical bacterial meningitis.
*Tuberculosis*
- **Tuberculous (TB) meningitis** is an important consideration in HIV-positive patients and can present with lymphocytic pleocytosis.
- However, TB meningitis typically shows **markedly elevated protein** (often >100 mg/dL, not "slightly elevated"), **low glucose** (<45 mg/dL), and may have a "spider-web clot" on standing CSF.
- The **more subacute to chronic course** (weeks) and absence of very high protein make TB less likely than cryptococcal meningitis in this acute presentation.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 9: A 49-year-old homeless man comes to the emergency department because of fatigue, cough, and worsening shortness of breath for 2 weeks. He was diagnosed with HIV-infection 25 years ago but has never had any symptoms. He has always refused to take antiretroviral medication. Pulmonary examination shows diffuse crackles over bilateral lower lung fields. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. His serum level of beta-d-glucan is elevated. Further testing shows a heterozygous mutation that prevents entry of HIV into macrophages. Which of the following proteins is most likely affected by the mutation in this patient?
- A. ICAM-1
- B. Gp120
- C. CD4
- D. P antigen
- E. CCR5 (Correct Answer)
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***CCR5***
- The mutation preventing HIV entry into **macrophages** points to an issue with a coreceptor, most commonly **CCR5**, which is crucial for macrophage-tropic HIV strains.
- A **heterozygous mutation** in CCR5 (CCR5-Δ32) can confer partial resistance to HIV-1 infection, explaining why the patient has been asymptomatic for 25 years despite refusing antiretroviral therapy.
- This is a well-documented host genetic factor that slows HIV disease progression.
*ICAM-1*
- **ICAM-1 (Intercellular Adhesion Molecule 1)** is involved in cell adhesion and immune cell trafficking, but not directly in HIV entry into macrophages.
- Mutations in ICAM-1 would not specifically prevent HIV entry, nor would it explain the long-term asymptomatic status in an HIV-positive individual.
*Gp120*
- **Gp120** is an HIV envelope glycoprotein that binds to the **CD4 receptor** and a coreceptor (CCR5 or CXCR4) on host cells.
- While gp120 is essential for HIV entry, it is a **viral protein**; the question asks about a mutation in a **host protein** that prevents viral entry.
*CD4*
- **CD4** is the primary receptor for HIV on T cells and macrophages, essential for viral entry.
- However, a **heterozygous CD4 mutation** would not provide meaningful protection against HIV, as one functional copy would be sufficient for viral entry.
- In contrast, heterozygous **CCR5-Δ32** mutation provides documented partial resistance, making CCR5 the better answer given this patient's 25-year asymptomatic course.
*P antigen*
- **P antigen** typically refers to a red blood cell antigen and is not involved in HIV entry into macrophages.
- There is no known direct association between P antigen and HIV susceptibility or disease progression.
HIV-associated malignancies US Medical PG Question 10: A 27-year-old man interested in pre-exposure therapy for HIV (PrEP) is being evaluated to qualify for a PrEP study. In order to qualify, patients must be HIV- and hepatitis B- and C-negative. Any other sexually transmitted infections require treatment prior to initiation of PrEP. The medical history is positive for a prior syphilis infection and bipolar affective disorder, for which he takes lithium. On his next visit, the liver and renal enzymes are within normal ranges. HIV and hepatitis B and C tests are negative. Which of the following about the HIV test is true?
- A. It is a quantitative test used for screening purposes.
- B. It is a qualitative test used for screening purposes. (Correct Answer)
- C. A secondary reagent is needed to interpret the results.
- D. A known antigen binds directly to the patient's serum.
- E. An unknown antigen binds to the known serum.
HIV-associated malignancies Explanation: ***It is a qualitative test used for screening purposes.***
- **HIV screening tests** (e.g., 4th generation antibody/antigen combination assays) are typically **qualitative**, meaning they detect the presence or absence of HIV markers, not their exact amount.
- These tests are primarily used for broad **screening** of populations to identify potential cases of HIV infection.
*It is a quantitative test used for screening purposes.*
- **Quantitative tests** for HIV, such as viral load tests, measure the amount of virus in the blood and are typically used for monitoring disease progression or treatment effectiveness, not for initial screening.
- Screening tests are designed for high sensitivity to detect infection, even with low viral loads or early antibody responses, making a quantitative measurement less relevant for initial screening.
*A secondary reagent is needed to interpret the results.*
- While some complex immunoassays might involve multiple steps, modern **HIV screening tests** often use advanced technologies that directly yield results, making a separate secondary reagent for interpretation generally unnecessary.
- The results are typically indicated by a color change or a signal detected by an instrument, without requiring an additional interpretive reagent.
*A known antigen binds directly to the patient's serum.*
- **HIV antibody tests** detect **antibodies** produced by the patient's immune system in response to HIV infection.
- In such tests, **known HIV antigens** (from the test kit) bind to **HIV-specific antibodies present in the patient's serum**, not to serum components directly.
- This option is incorrect because it omits the critical role of antibodies as the target molecules being detected.
*An unknown antigen binds to the known serum.*
- This statement describes a different type of immunological assay where an unknown antigen is being identified using a known antibody, which is contrary to how **HIV screening tests** for infection are typically structured.
- **HIV screening tests** use known components (e.g., HIV antigens or antibodies) in the test kit to detect unknown components (e.g., HIV antibodies or viral antigens) in the patient's sample.
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