Proteus species US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Proteus species. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 1: A 26-year-old female presents to her primary care physician concerned that she has contracted a sexually transmitted disease. She states that she is having severe pain whenever she urinates and seems to be urinating more frequently than normal. She reports that her symptoms started after she began having unprotected sexual intercourse with 1 partner earlier this week. The physician obtains a urinalysis which demonstrates the following, SG: 1.010, Leukocyte esterase: Positive, Nitrites: Positive, Protein: Trace, pH: 5.0, RBC: Negative. A urease test is performed which is negative. This patient has most likely been infected with which of the following organisms?
- A. Enterobacter cloacae
- B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- C. Proteus mirabilis
- D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- E. Escherichia coli (Correct Answer)
Proteus species Explanation: ***Escherichia coli***
- The urinalysis findings of **positive leukocyte esterase**, **nitrites**, and **trace protein** with a slightly acidic pH (5.0) are highly suggestive of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)**.
- *E. coli* is the most common cause of UTIs, especially in young, sexually active women, and is typically **urease-negative**, consistent with the information provided.
- *E. coli* accounts for **80-90% of uncomplicated UTIs** and produces nitrites from dietary nitrates, making it the most likely pathogen in this clinical scenario.
*Enterobacter cloacae*
- While *Enterobacter cloacae* can cause UTIs, it is less common than *E. coli* in uncomplicated cases and is often associated with nosocomial infections or those in immunocompromised individuals.
- Its urease activity can vary, so a negative urease test doesn't rule it out completely but makes *E. coli* a more likely primary choice in this context.
*Staphylococcus saprophyticus*
- *S. saprophyticus* is a common cause of UTIs in young, sexually active women (second most common cause after *E. coli*) and is typically **urease-negative**, which is consistent with the negative test.
- However, the presence of **positive nitrites** points more strongly towards **Gram-negative bacteria** like *E. coli*, as *S. saprophyticus* is a **Gram-positive coccus** that does not produce nitrite reductase and therefore does not convert nitrates to nitrites.
*Proteus mirabilis*
- *Proteus mirabilis* is known for causing UTIs and is characteristically **urease-positive**, leading to alkaline urine (higher pH) and sometimes **struvite stones**.
- The **negative urease test** and acidic urine pH (5.0) in this case effectively rule out *Proteus mirabilis*.
*Klebsiella pneumoniae*
- *Klebsiella pneumoniae* can cause UTIs and is generally **urease-negative**, but it is less frequently the cause of uncomplicated UTIs compared to *E. coli*.
- Although it can produce nitrites, *E. coli* remains the most common etiology in this clinical scenario.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 2: A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of left flank pain and dysuria. She has had 2 episodes of urinary tract infection over the past 2 years. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F) and pulse is 82/min. An ultrasound of the kidneys shows left-sided hydronephrosis and echogenic foci with acoustic shadowing. A photomicrograph of the urine is shown. The crystals observed are most likely composed of which of the following?
- A. Cystine
- B. Uric acid
- C. Calcium phosphate
- D. Magnesium ammonium phosphate (Correct Answer)
- E. Calcium oxalate
Proteus species Explanation: ***Magnesium ammonium phosphate***
- The presence of **hydronephrosis**, recurrent UTIs, and echogenic foci with **acoustic shadowing** strongly suggests a **staghorn calculus**, which is typically composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite).
- Struvite stones are commonly formed in alkaline urine due to infections with **urease-producing bacteria** like *Proteus mirabilis*, explaining the patient's symptoms (flank pain, dysuria, UTI history).
*Cystine*
- **Cystine stones** are caused by a genetic defect in renal tubular amino acid transport, leading to the excretion of large amounts of **cystine**, forming characteristic **hexagonal crystals**.
- This patient's presentation with recurrent UTIs and hydronephrosis points away from an inherent metabolic disorder like cystinuria.
*Uric acid*
- **Uric acid stones** are radiolucent (not seen on X-ray, but visible on ultrasound as echogenic foci) and often associated with **gout** or conditions with **high cell turnover**.
- They do not typically cause recurrent infections or form **staghorn calculi** in the way struvite stones do.
*Calcium phosphate*
- While calcium phosphate can form stones, they are usually associated with **hyperparathyroidism** or renal tubular acidosis, not typically with recurrent UTIs evolving into **staghorn calculi**.
- Calcium phosphate stones are not typically associated with the presence of **urease-producing bacteria**.
*Calcium oxalate*
- **Calcium oxalate stones** are the most common type of kidney stone but are usually **not associated with UTIs** or the formation of **staghorn calculi**.
- They often present with acute, severe pain due to stone passage and are not typically linked to the recurrent infection pattern seen here.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 3: A 32-year-old man with hypertension and gout comes to the physician with left flank pain and bloody urine for two days. He does not smoke cigarettes but drinks two beers daily. Home medications include hydrochlorothiazide and ibuprofen as needed for pain. Physical examination shows left costovertebral angle tenderness. Urine dipstick is strongly positive for blood. Microscopic analysis of a stone found in the urine reveals a composition of magnesium ammonium phosphate. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
- A. Uric acid precipitation
- B. Hereditary deficiency in amino acid reabsorption
- C. Use of vitamin C supplements
- D. Urinary tract infection (Correct Answer)
- E. Ethylene glycol ingestion
Proteus species Explanation: ***Urinary tract infection***
- The presence of a **magnesium ammonium phosphate stone**, also known as a **struvite stone**, is highly indicative of a urinary tract infection (UTI). These stones are formed in the presence of **urease-producing bacteria** (e.g., *Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiella pneumoniae*) that metabolize urea into ammonia, increasing localized pH and promoting crystal formation.
- While the patient has multiple predisposing factors for other types of kidney stones (e.g., gout and hydrochlorothiazide for calcium and uric acid stones), the specific composition of the stone points directly to an underlying infection as the primary predisposing factor.
*Uric acid precipitation*
- This typically leads to **uric acid stones**, which are common in patients with **gout** and **hyperuricemia**. The stone described is magnesium ammonium phosphate, not uric acid.
- Uric acid stones are usually radiolucent and are not directly associated with infection, unlike struvite stones.
*Hereditary deficiency in amino acid reabsorption*
- This condition, such as **cystinuria**, leads to the formation of **cystine stones**. These stones are hexagonal in shape and are caused by impaired tubular reabsorption of certain amino acids.
- The described stone composition is magnesium ammonium phosphate, not cystine.
*Use of vitamin C supplements*
- Excessive vitamin C (ascorbic acid) intake can be metabolized to **oxalate**, potentially contributing to **calcium oxalate stone** formation, especially in susceptible individuals.
- This patient's stone is a struvite stone, not a calcium oxalate stone.
*Ethylene glycol ingestion*
- Ethylene glycol poisoning is associated with the formation of **calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals** in the urine, which can lead to acute kidney injury and flank pain.
- The stone composition here is magnesium ammonium phosphate, indicating a different etiology.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 4: A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fever, chills, lower quadrant abdominal pain, and urinary frequency for the past week. Her vital signs include temperature 38.9°C (102.0°F), pulse 110/min, respirations 16/min, and blood pressure 122/78 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urinalysis reveals polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) > 10 cells/HPF and the presence of bacteria (> 105 CFU/mL). Which of the following is correct concerning the most likely microorganism responsible for this patient’s condition?
- A. Gram-positive cocci that grow in clusters
- B. Pear-shaped motile protozoa
- C. Gram-positive cocci that grow in chains
- D. Gram-negative rod-shaped bacilli (Correct Answer)
- E. Nonmotile, pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-negative bacilli
Proteus species Explanation: ***Gram-negative rod-shaped bacilli***
- The symptoms of **fever, chills, abdominal pain, and urinary frequency**, along with urinalysis showing **pyuria (>10 PMNs/HPF) and bacteriuria (>10^5 CFU/mL)**, are highly suggestive of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)**.
- **_Escherichia coli_**, a **gram-negative rod-shaped bacillus**, is the most common cause of community-acquired UTIs, accounting for over 80% of cases.
*Gram-positive cocci that grow in clusters*
- This morphology describes **Staphylococcus species**, which can cause UTIs but are **less common** than *E. coli* in uncomplicated cases.
- **_Staphylococcus saprophyticus_** is a notable cause of UTIs in young, sexually active women, but it is not the most likely overall.
*Pear-shaped motile protozoa*
- This description typically refers to **_Giardia lamblia_**, which causes **gastrointestinal infections** (giardiasis) and is not associated with UTIs.
- UTIs are bacterial infections, not protozoal.
*Gram-positive cocci that grow in chains*
- This morphology describes **Streptococcus species**, such as **_Streptococcus agalactiae_** (Group B Streptococcus), which can cause UTIs, especially during pregnancy.
- However, they are **less frequent causes** of uncomplicated UTIs compared to *E. coli*.
*Nonmotile, pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-negative bacilli*
- This description might fit certain bacteria like **_Haemophilus influenzae_**, which typically causes **respiratory tract infections or meningitis**, not UTIs.
- While *E. coli* is a gram-negative rod, it is **motile**, distinguishing it from this option.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 5: A previously healthy 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of pain with urination. She has been sexually active with two partners over the past year. She uses condoms for contraception. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows suprapubic tenderness. Urinalysis shows neutrophils and a positive nitrite test. Urine culture grows gram-negative, oxidase-negative rods that form greenish colonies on eosin-methylene blue agar. Which of the following virulence factors of the causal organism increases the risk of infection in this patient?
- A. Fimbriae (Correct Answer)
- B. Lecithinase
- C. IgA protease
- D. Biofilm production
- E. Lipoteichoic acid
Proteus species Explanation: ***Fimbriae***
- The patient's symptoms (dysuria, suprapubic tenderness), urinalysis findings (neutrophils, positive nitrite), and culture results (gram-negative, oxidase-negative rods, greenish colonies on EMB agar) are highly suggestive of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)** caused by **Escherichia coli**.
- **P-fimbriae (pili)** are crucial virulence factors for *E. coli* in UTIs, enabling the bacteria to **adhere to uroepithelial cells** and colonize the urinary tract.
*Lecithinase*
- **Lecithinase (alpha-toxin)** is a virulence factor primarily associated with bacteria like *Clostridium perfringens*, causing gas gangrene, and some *Bacillus cereus* strains.
- It is not a significant virulence factor for *E. coli* in the context of UTIs.
*IgA protease*
- **IgA protease** is an enzyme produced by bacteria such as *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, *Neisseria meningitidis*, and *Haemophilus influenzae*.
- It cleaves IgA antibodies, preventing their protective effects at mucosal surfaces, but it is not a primary virulence factor for *E. coli* in UTIs.
*Biofilm production*
- While *E. coli* can form biofilms, particularly in chronic infections or on catheters, **biofilm production** is not the primary mechanism that increases the **initial risk** of acquiring an acute uncomplicated UTI in a healthy individual.
- The *initial* adherence to uroepithelium, facilitated by fimbriae, is key for colonization and infection establishment.
*Lipoteichoic acid*
- **Lipoteichoic acid** is a major component of the cell wall in **Gram-positive bacteria** and contributes to their immune stimulation and adherence properties.
- The causative organism in this case is a **Gram-negative rod**, making lipoteichoic acid an irrelevant virulence factor.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 6: A previously healthy 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-day history of nausea and weakness. She is sexually active with 2 male partners and uses an oral contraceptive; she uses condoms inconsistently. Her last menstrual period was 4 days ago. Her temperature is 38.4°C (101°F). Physical examination shows right costovertebral angle tenderness. Pelvic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
- A. Noninfectious inflammation of the bladder
- B. Ascending bacteria from the endocervix
- C. Decreased renal calcium reabsorption
- D. Decreased urinary pH
- E. Ascending bacteria from the bladder (Correct Answer)
Proteus species Explanation: ***Ascending bacteria from the bladder***
- The patient presents with **fever**, **nausea**, **weakness**, and **right costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness**, which are classic symptoms of **acute pyelonephritis**.
- **Pyelonephritis** most commonly results from an **ascending urinary tract infection**, where bacteria (typically *E. coli*) from the bladder travel up the ureters to infect the kidneys.
- This accounts for approximately **95% of pyelonephritis cases** in young women.
*Noninfectious inflammation of the bladder*
- **Noninfectious cystitis** (interstitial cystitis) would not typically present with systemic symptoms like **fever** and **nausea**, or with **CVA tenderness**, which indicates kidney involvement.
- Bladder inflammation typically causes dysuria and frequency without systemic signs of infection.
*Ascending bacteria from the endocervix*
- **Ascending bacteria from the endocervix** can cause **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, which presents with lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, and vaginal discharge.
- While PID can cause fever, the **normal pelvic examination** in this patient rules out this diagnosis, and PID **does not typically cause CVA tenderness**.
*Decreased renal calcium reabsorption*
- **Decreased renal calcium reabsorption** is associated with **hypercalciuria** and **nephrolithiasis** (kidney stones), which can present with acute flank pain if obstruction occurs.
- However, this condition does not explain the **fever** and systemic symptoms characteristic of an acute infectious process.
*Decreased urinary pH*
- **Decreased urinary pH** (acidic urine) can predispose to certain types of kidney stone formation but is not a direct cause of **pyelonephritis**.
- It does not explain the presence of **fever**, **CVA tenderness**, and systemic symptoms indicative of a bacterial kidney infection.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 7: A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 1-week-history of painful urination and urinary frequency. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She is sexually active with her boyfriend. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). There is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urine dipstick shows leukocyte esterase. A Gram stain does not show any organisms. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
- A. Escherichia coli
- B. Chlamydia trachomatis (Correct Answer)
- C. Gardnerella vaginalis
- D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- E. Trichomonas vaginalis
Proteus species Explanation: ***Chlamydia trachomatis***
- This patient presents with symptoms of **dysuria** and **urinary frequency**, consistent with a **urethritis**. The absence of bacteria on Gram stain points towards an **atypical pathogen**.
- **Chlamydia trachomatis** is a common cause of **non-gonococcal urethritis** and is a sexually transmitted infection, which fits with the sexually active history.
*Escherichia coli*
- **E. coli** is the most common cause of **bacterial urinary tract infections (UTIs)**, but a Gram stain in this case would typically reveal Gram-negative rods.
- While it causes dysuria and frequency, the **negative Gram stain** makes it less likely than an atypical pathogen.
*Gardnerella vaginalis*
- **Gardnerella vaginalis** is associated with **bacterial vaginosis**, causing a characteristic **fishy odor** and **vaginal discharge**, which are not reported here.
- It does not typically cause urethritis leading to painful urination and urinary frequency.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*
- **Neisseria gonorrhoeae** can cause **urethritis** with symptoms similar to those presented, and it is a sexually transmitted infection.
- However, Gram stain would typically show **Gram-negative diplococci** (intracellularly), which were not observed in this case.
*Trichomonas vaginalis*
- **Trichomonas vaginalis** is a **protozoan parasite** causing **trichomoniasis**, which commonly presents with **vaginitis** (frothy, green-yellow discharge, itching) or sometimes urethritis.
- While it is a **sexually transmitted infection**, this organism is not detected by Gram stain (which only stains bacteria); it would require **wet mount microscopy** for visualization. The primary presentation is usually vaginal, and it's less likely to be the sole cause of these urinary symptoms without other signs of vaginitis.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 8: A 45-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-day history of progressive pain and blurry vision of his right eye. He has difficulties opening the eye because of pain. His left eye is asymptomatic. He wears contact lenses. He has bronchial asthma treated with inhaled salbutamol. He works as a kindergarten teacher. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg. Examination shows a visual acuity in the left eye of 20/25 and the ability to count fingers at 3 feet in the right eye. A photograph of the right eye is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Angle-closure glaucoma
- B. Pseudomonas keratitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Herpes simplex keratitis
- D. Staphylococcus aureus keratitis
- E. Herpes zoster keratitis
Proteus species Explanation: **Pseudomonas keratitis**
- This patient's history of **contact lens** use, acute onset of **severe pain**, **blurry vision**, and the provided image (which likely shows a **corneal ulcer** with associated hypopyon or dense infiltrate) are highly suggestive of a bacterial keratitis, particularly *Pseudomonas*.
- *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* is a common and aggressive cause of **contact lens-associated keratitis**, leading to rapid progression, significant vision loss, and often severe pain.
*Angle-closure glaucoma*
- While it presents with **acute eye pain** and **blurry vision**, it typically involves a **red eye** with a **dilated pupil** and a **hard globe on palpation**, and generally no visible corneal infiltrate as implied by the image.
- The primary mechanism is increased **intraocular pressure** due to blocked fluid outflow, not an infectious process of the cornea.
*Herpes simplex keratitis*
- Often presents with a characteristic **dendritic corneal ulcer** pattern, which is usually less acutely painful and rapid in progression compared to severe bacterial infections unless superinfected.
- Recurrent episodes are common, and the vision loss might not be as profound initially as observed here.
*Staphylococcus aureus keratitis*
- While *S. aureus* can cause **bacterial keratitis**, especially in contact lens wearers, the severe, rapidly progressive nature and profound vision loss described are more classically associated with the highly virulent *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* in this context.
- Differentiation often requires culture, but the clinical picture leans towards *Pseudomonas* given the aggressive presentation.
*Herpes zoster keratitis*
- This condition is caused by the reactivation of the **varicella-zoster virus** and typically presents with a **rash in a dermatomal distribution** (V1 ophthalmic division) affecting the forehead and eyelids, along with eye symptoms.
- The absence of a characteristic vesicular rash and the primary focus on the globe make this less likely.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 9: A 23-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of profuse watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Four days ago, he returned from a backpacking trip across Southeast Asia. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor. Stool culture shows gram-negative, oxidase-positive, curved rods that have a single polar flagellum. The pathogen responsible for this patient's condition most likely has which of the following characteristics?
- A. Acts by activation of guanylate cyclase
- B. Forms spores in unfavorable environment
- C. Grows well in medium with pH of 9 (Correct Answer)
- D. Infection commonly precedes Guillain-Barré syndrome
- E. Causes necrosis of Peyer patches of distal ileum
Proteus species Explanation: ***Grows well in medium with pH of 9***
- The clinical presentation with **profuse watery diarrhea** after travel to Southeast Asia, along with the finding of **gram-negative, oxidase-positive, curved rods** with a **single polar flagellum**, is highly suggestive of **_Vibrio cholerae_**.
- _Vibrio cholerae_ is known for its ability to **grow well in alkaline environments**, such as a medium with a pH of 9, which distinguishes it from many other enteric pathogens.
*Acts by activation of guanylate cyclase*
- This mechanism of action is characteristic of **heat-stable enterotoxins (ST)** produced by **enterotoxigenic _Escherichia coli_ (ETEC)**, which cause traveler's diarrhea.
- While ETEC can cause watery diarrhea, _Vibrio cholerae_ primarily acts by activating **adenylate cyclase** through its cholera toxin, not guanylate cyclase.
*Forms spores in unfavorable environment*
- The ability to form **spores** is a characteristic feature of certain **Gram-positive bacteria**, notably _Bacillus_ and _Clostridium_ species.
- **Gram-negative rods** like _Vibrio cholerae_ do not form spores as a survival mechanism in unfavorable conditions.
*Infection commonly precedes Guillain-Barré syndrome*
- **_Campylobacter jejuni_** infection is a well-known precursor to **Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)** due to molecular mimicry between _Campylobacter_ lipo-oligosaccharides and gangliosides in peripheral nerves.
- While _Campylobacter_ can cause watery diarrhea and is a curved rod, the description of **profuse watery diarrhea** and good growth in alkaline conditions points more strongly to _Vibrio cholerae_ rather than _Campylobacter_.
*Causes necrosis of Peyer patches of distal ileum*
- **Necrosis of Peyer patches** in the distal ileum is a characteristic pathological feature of **typhoid fever**, caused by **_Salmonella Typhi_**.
- The presentation of **profuse watery diarrhea** and the microbiological description do not align with typhoid fever, which typically presents with fever, malaise, and constipation or pea-soup diarrhea.
Proteus species US Medical PG Question 10: An 83-year-old male presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. The patient’s vitals signs are as follows: temperature is 100.7 deg F (38.2 deg C), blood pressure is 143/68 mmHg, heart rate is 102/min, and respirations are 22/min. The caretaker states that the patient is usually incontinent of urine, but she has not seen any soiled adult diapers in the past 48 hours. A foley catheter is placed with immediate return of a large volume of cloudy, pink urine. Which of the following correctly explains the expected findings from this patient’s dipstick urinalysis?
- A. Detection of an enzyme produced by white blood cells
- B. Detection of urinary nitrate conversion by gram-negative pathogens (Correct Answer)
- C. Detection of an enzyme produced by red blood cells
- D. Detection of urinary nitrate conversion by gram-positive pathogens
- E. Direct detection of white blood cell surface proteins
Proteus species Explanation: ***Detection of urinary nitrate conversion by gram-negative pathogens***
- The presence of **nitrites** on a urine dipstick is a highly specific indicator of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)** caused by **gram-negative bacteria**.
- **Gram-negative bacteria** like *E. coli* possess an enzyme, **nitrate reductase**, which converts urinary nitrates (normally present from dietary intake) into nitrites.
- This is the **most specific finding** for gram-negative UTI and directly explains the expected dipstick result in this patient with cloudy urine and clinical signs of infection.
*Detection of an enzyme produced by white blood cells*
- This refers to the detection of **leukocyte esterase**, an enzyme released by neutrophils (white blood cells) in response to infection or inflammation.
- While **leukocyte esterase** would likely be positive in this case of UTI, it is **less specific** than nitrite detection because it can be positive in any inflammatory condition of the urinary tract, not just bacterial infections.
- The **nitrite test** is more specific for identifying **gram-negative bacterial** infections, which are the most common cause of UTIs.
*Detection of an enzyme produced by red blood cells*
- This refers to the detection of **hemoglobin**, which can be indirectly detected by dipstick due to its peroxidase-like activity. While the patient has **pink urine** (indicating hematuria), this finding is less specific for a **bacterial UTI** than nitrites and does not explain the *cause* of the infection.
- Hematuria can be caused by various factors, including irritation from infection, kidney stones, trauma, or malignancy, and doesn't directly point to the type of pathogen.
*Detection of urinary nitrate conversion by gram-positive pathogens*
- **Gram-positive pathogens**, such as *Staphylococcus saprophyticus* or *Enterococcus faecalis*, which can cause UTIs, typically **do not convert urinary nitrates to nitrites** because they lack nitrate reductase enzyme.
- Therefore, a positive nitrite test generally rules out a gram-positive infection as the sole cause of the positive dipstick finding.
*Direct detection of white blood cell surface proteins*
- The dipstick test for **leukocytes** (white blood cells) detects **leukocyte esterase**, an enzyme *released by* neutrophils, not their surface proteins directly.
- While **leukocyte esterase** would likely be positive in this case, a positive **nitrite** test is more specific to the type of bacterial infection (gram-negative) responsible for the majority of UTIs.
More Proteus species US Medical PG questions available in the OnCourse app. Practice MCQs, flashcards, and get detailed explanations.
