Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Managing incidental findings. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 1: A 27-year-old man comes to the physician because of worsening abdominal pain over the last several months. He has also had recent feelings of sadness and a lack of motivation at work, where he is employed as a computer programmer. He denies suicidal thoughts. He has a history of multiple kidney stones. He has a family history of thyroid cancer in his father and uncle, who both underwent thyroidectomy before age 30. His temperature is 37°C (98°F), blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 87/min. Physical examination shows diffuse tenderness over the abdomen and obesity but is otherwise unremarkable. Serum studies show:
Na+ 141 mEq/L
K+ 3.6 mEq/L
Glucose 144 mg/dL
Ca2+ 12.1 mg/dL
Albumin 4.1 g/dL
PTH 226 pg/mL (normal range 12–88 pg/mL)
Results of a RET gene test return abnormal. The physician refers him to an endocrine surgeon. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
- A. Thyroidectomy
- B. Urine 5-HIAA
- C. Urine metanephrines (Correct Answer)
- D. Midnight salivary cortisol
- E. Serum gastrin
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***Urine metanephrines***
- The patient's presentation, including **abdominal pain**, **constipation** (implied by pain, mood changes, and high calcium), **hypertension**, **hypercalcemia** with **elevated PTH**, and a family history of **thyroid cancer** with an **abnormal RET gene test**, is highly suggestive of **MEN 2A** (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2A).
- **MEN 2A** is characterized by **medullary thyroid carcinoma** (MTC), **pheochromocytoma**, and **primary hyperparathyroidism**. Given the strong suspicion of MEN 2A and the presence of hypertension, screening for **pheochromocytoma** with **urine metanephrines** is crucial before any surgical intervention (e.g., thyroidectomy) due to the risk of a hypertensive crisis.
*Thyroidectomy*
- While a **thyroidectomy** is indicated for **medullary thyroid carcinoma** (strongly suggested by the family history of thyroid cancer and abnormal RET gene), it should **not be the immediate next step** before ruling out **pheochromocytoma**.
- Performing a thyroidectomy in a patient with an undiagnosed pheochromocytoma can lead to a **life-threatening hypertensive crisis** during surgery.
*Urine 5-HIAA*
- **Urine 5-HIAA** (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid) is a test for **carcinoid syndrome**, which presents with flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm.
- These symptoms are **not consistent** with the patient's presentation, and carcinoid syndrome is **not a component of MEN 2A**.
*Midnight salivary cortisol*
- **Midnight salivary cortisol** is used to screen for **Cushing's syndrome**, which is characterized by symptoms such as central obesity, moon facies, striae, and muscle weakness.
- While the patient is obese, his other symptoms and laboratory findings are **not suggestive of Cushing's syndrome**, and it is not typically associated with MEN 2A.
*Serum gastrin*
- **Serum gastrin** levels are measured to diagnose **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome**, characterized by severe peptic ulcer disease and diarrhea due to a gastrinoma.
- While gastrinomas can occur in **MEN 1**, they are **not a feature of MEN 2A**, and the patient's symptoms are more consistent with other endocrine dysfunctions.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 2: A scientist in Boston is studying a new blood test to detect Ab to the parainfluenza virus with increased sensitivity and specificity. So far, her best attempt at creating such an exam reached 82% sensitivity and 88% specificity. She is hoping to increase these numbers by at least 2 percent for each value. After several years of work, she believes that she has actually managed to reach a sensitivity and specificity even greater than what she had originally hoped for. She travels to South America to begin testing her newest blood test. She finds 2,000 patients who are willing to participate in her study. Of the 2,000 patients, 1,200 of them are known to be infected with the parainfluenza virus. The scientist tests these 1,200 patients’ blood and finds that only 120 of them tested negative with her new test. Of the following options, which describes the sensitivity of the test?
- A. 82%
- B. 86%
- C. 98%
- D. 90% (Correct Answer)
- E. 84%
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***90%***
- **Sensitivity** is calculated as the number of **true positives** divided by the total number of individuals with the disease (true positives + false negatives).
- In this scenario, there were 1200 infected patients (total diseased), and 120 of them tested negative (false negatives). Therefore, 1200 - 120 = 1080 patients tested positive (true positives). The sensitivity is 1080 / 1200 = 0.90, or **90%**.
*82%*
- This value was the **original sensitivity** of the test before the scientist improved it.
- The question states that the scientist believes she has achieved a sensitivity "even greater than what she had originally hoped for."
*86%*
- This value is not directly derivable from the given data for the new test's sensitivity.
- It might represent an intermediate calculation or an incorrect interpretation of the provided numbers.
*98%*
- This would imply only 24 false negatives out of 1200 true disease cases, which is not the case (120 false negatives).
- A sensitivity of 98% would be significantly higher than the calculated 90% and the initial stated values.
*84%*
- This value is not derived from the presented data regarding the new test's performance.
- It could be mistaken for an attempt to add 2% to the original 82% sensitivity, but the actual data from the new test should be used.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 3: A 51-year-old woman presents for her annual wellness visit. She says she feels healthy and has no specific concerns. Past medical history is significant for bipolar disorder, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus type 2, managed with lithium, lisinopril, and metformin, respectively. Her family history is significant for hypertension and diabetes mellitus type 2 in her father, who died from lung cancer at age 67. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse 97/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 120/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Mammogram findings are labeled breast imaging reporting and data system-3 (BIRADS-3) (probably benign). Which of the following is the next best step in management in this patient?
- A. Follow-up mammogram in 6 months (Correct Answer)
- B. Follow-up mammogram in 1 year
- C. Treatment
- D. Biopsy
- E. Breast MRI
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***Follow-up mammogram in 6 months***
- A **BIRADS-3** (Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System 3) classification indicates a **probably benign finding**, with a less than 2% chance of malignancy.
- The recommended management for BIRADS-3 is a **short-interval follow-up mammogram in 6 months** to assess for stability or changes.
*Follow-up mammogram in 1 year*
- This follow-up interval is typically recommended for **BIRADS-1 (negative)** or **BIRADS-2 (benign)** findings, not for BIRADS-3.
- Waiting a full year would delay the detection of any potential malignancy in a BIRADS-3 lesion.
*Treatment*
- Treatment is indicated for confirmed malignancy, typically after a biopsy has confirmed cancerous cells.
- Starting treatment at the BIRADS-3 stage would be premature given the low probability of malignancy.
*Biopsy*
- A biopsy is generally warranted for **BIRADS-4 (suspicious)** or **BIRADS-5 (highly suggestive of malignancy)** lesions.
- While biopsy can be considered for BIRADS-3 if there are high-risk factors or patient preference, **short-interval follow-up** is the standard and preferred initial approach.
*Breast MRI*
- Breast MRI is often used for high-risk patients, for **staging known breast cancer**, or to evaluate **dense breast tissue**.
- It is not the standard next step for a BIRADS-3 finding in a patient with no specific high-risk indications beyond the mammogram result.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 4: A medical research study is beginning to evaluate the positive predictive value of a novel blood test for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The diagnostic arm contains 700 patients with NHL, of which 400 tested positive for the novel blood test. In the control arm, 700 age-matched control patients are enrolled and 0 are found positive for the novel test. What is the PPV of this test?
- A. 400 / (400 + 0) (Correct Answer)
- B. 700 / (700 + 300)
- C. 400 / (400 + 300)
- D. 700 / (700 + 0)
- E. 700 / (400 + 400)
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***400 / (400 + 0) = 1.0 or 100%***
- The **positive predictive value (PPV)** is calculated as **True Positives / (True Positives + False Positives)**.
- In this scenario, **True Positives (TP)** are the 400 patients with NHL who tested positive, and **False Positives (FP)** are 0, as no control patients tested positive.
- This gives a PPV of 400/400 = **1.0 or 100%**, indicating that all patients who tested positive actually had the disease.
*700 / (700 + 300)*
- This calculation does not align with the formula for PPV based on the given data.
- The denominator `(700+300)` suggests an incorrect combination of various patient groups.
*400 / (400 + 300)*
- The denominator `(400+300)` incorrectly includes 300, which is the number of **False Negatives** (patients with NHL who tested negative), not False Positives.
- PPV focuses on the proportion of true positives among all positive tests, not all diseased individuals.
*700 / (700 + 0)*
- This calculation incorrectly uses the total number of patients with NHL (700) as the numerator, rather than the number of positive test results in that group.
- The numerator should be the **True Positives** (400), not the total number of diseased individuals.
*700 / (400 + 400)*
- This calculation uses incorrect values for both the numerator and denominator, not corresponding to the PPV formula.
- The numerator 700 represents the total number of patients with the disease, not those who tested positive, and the denominator incorrectly sums up values that don't represent the proper PPV calculation.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 5: A 45-year-old woman presents to her physician with a four-month history of headache. Her headache is nonfocal but persistent throughout the day without any obvious trigger. She was told that it was a migraine but has never responded to sumatriptan, oxygen, or antiemetics. She takes amlodipine for hypertension. She does not smoke. She denies any recent weight loss or constitutional symptoms. Her temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 15/min. She is obese with posterior cervical fat pads and central abdominal girth. Her neurological exam is unremarkable. In her initial laboratory workup, her fasting blood glucose level is 200 mg/dL. The following additional lab work is obtained and is as follows:
Serum:
Na+: 142 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.1 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 135 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.3 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.0 mg/dL
AST: 8 U/L
ALT: 8 U/L
24-hour urinary cortisol: 500 µg (reference range < 300 µg)
Serum cortisol: 25 µg/mL (reference range 5-23 µg/dL)
24-hour low dose dexamethasone suppression test: Not responsive
High dose dexamethasone suppression test: Responsive
Adrenocorticotropin-releasing hormone (ACTH): 20 pg/mL (5-15 pg/mL)
Imaging reveals a 0.5 cm calcified pulmonary nodule in the right middle lobe that has been present for 5 years but an otherwise unremarkable pituitary gland, mediastinum, and adrenal glands. What is the best next step in management?
- A. Pituitary resection
- B. CT-guided biopsy of the pulmonary nodule
- C. Inferior petrosal sinus sampling (Correct Answer)
- D. Pulmonary nodule resection
- E. Repeat high dose dexamethasone suppression test
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***Inferior petrosal sinus sampling***
- The patient exhibits clear signs of **Cushing's syndrome** (hypertension, obesity with central fat distribution, hyperglycemia, elevated cortisol, lack of suppression with low-dose dexamethasone).
- The elevated ACTH and suppression with high-dose dexamethasone point towards **Cushing's disease** (pituitary ACTH overproduction). However, with an unremarkable pituitary MRI, **inferior petrosal sinus sampling (IPSS)** is crucial to differentiate ectopic ACTH production (e.g., from a bronchial carcinoid, lung nodule) from pituitary disease.
*Pituitary resection*
- This is a treatment for **Cushing's disease** (pituitary adenoma), but it should only be performed after definitive localization of the ACTH-producing tumor.
- Since the pituitary gland appears unremarkable on imaging and the patient has a lung nodule, **IPSS** is needed to confirm the source of ACTH overexpression before surgery.
*CT-guided biopsy of the pulmonary nodule*
- While the patient has a calcified pulmonary nodule, it has been stable for 5 years and calcified, suggesting it is likely **benign**.
- Without evidence that this nodule is the source of **ectopic ACTH production** (which IPSS would help determine), a biopsy is premature and may not yield a definitive answer for the Cushing's presentation.
*Pulmonary nodule resection*
- Resection is a treatment for **ectopic ACTH-producing tumors**, typically **carcinoid tumors** in the lung.
- However, the nodule is calcified and stable, making it unlikely to be the cause of Cushing's syndrome, and further, the diagnosis of ectopic ACTH needs to be confirmed with **IPSS** before considering such an invasive procedure.
*Repeat high dose dexamethasone suppression test*
- The results already indicate responsiveness to the high-dose dexamethasone suppression test, suggesting a **pituitary source** of ACTH.
- Repeating the test would not add more diagnostic value and would only delay the necessary localization studies like **IPSS** or imaging.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 6: A 60-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. Five years ago, he underwent a colonoscopy, which was unremarkable. He has no history of serious illness except for an episode of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis at the age of 10 years. His father died of bladder carcinoma at the age of 55 years. The patient works at a rubber factory. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 25 years. He drinks 1–2 cans of beer per day. He takes no medications. He has never received any pneumococcal vaccination. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Digital rectal examination shows mild symmetrical enlargement of the prostate with no masses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Recommend colonoscopy
- B. Obtain renal ultrasound
- C. Obtain CT urography
- D. Administer pneumococcal conjugate vaccination (Correct Answer)
- E. Discuss PSA assessment with patient
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***Administer pneumococcal conjugate vaccination***
- This 60-year-old patient is a **current smoker** (25 pack-years), which is a specific indication for pneumococcal vaccination in adults aged 19-64 years according to **ACIP guidelines**.
- He has **never received pneumococcal vaccination**, making this a clear preventive care gap that should be addressed.
- Smoking significantly increases the risk of invasive pneumococcal disease, and vaccination is a concrete, evidence-based intervention.
- For adults <65 with smoking history, **PCV15 or PCV20** should be administered, followed by PPSV23 if using PCV15.
*Discuss PSA assessment with patient*
- While this patient has risk factors for prostate cancer (age 60, mild prostatic enlargement), **USPSTF gives PSA screening a Grade C recommendation** (individual decision) for men aged 55-69.
- Shared decision-making about PSA is reasonable but not more urgent than addressing the clear vaccination gap in a smoker.
- The decision to screen should be individualized based on patient preferences, but it's not the most immediate preventive priority.
*Recommend colonoscopy*
- The patient had an **unremarkable colonoscopy 5 years ago**. For individuals with average risk, the recommended interval is **every 10 years**.
- There are no new symptoms or high-risk features (e.g., family history of early-onset colorectal cancer) to warrant an earlier repeat colonoscopy.
*Obtain renal ultrasound*
- The patient had poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis at age 10, but this is **remote history** (50 years ago) with no current sequelae.
- He has **normal blood pressure** and no symptoms suggesting kidney dysfunction (no edema, proteinuria mentioned).
- Routine renal imaging is not indicated without clinical evidence of current kidney disease.
*Obtain CT urography*
- CT urography evaluates the **urinary tract for masses, stones, or hematuria**, typically when bladder cancer is suspected.
- Despite his father's bladder cancer history and occupational exposure (rubber factory workers have increased bladder cancer risk), there are **no current symptoms** such as hematuria to warrant this invasive, radiation-exposing study.
- Screening for bladder cancer in asymptomatic individuals is not recommended even with risk factors.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 7: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of nocturia and a weak urinary stream. These symptoms began 1 year ago, but have progressively worsened over the past 6 months. He now wakes up 3–5 times every night to urinate. He has hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril. The patient has smoked a half-pack of cigarettes daily for the past 30 years. He appears well. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 77/min, and blood pressure is 128/77 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. His abdomen is soft and nontender. Digital rectal examination shows a diffusely enlarged prostate with a firm nodule in the right posterior lobe. Urinalysis is within normal limits. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 6.5 ng/mL (N = 0–4). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy (Correct Answer)
- B. Simple prostatectomy
- C. Cystoscopy
- D. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- E. Repeat PSA level in one year
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***Transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy***
- The presence of a **firm nodule** on digital rectal examination (DRE) and an **elevated PSA level (6.5 ng/mL)** in this patient are highly suspicious for **prostate cancer**.
- A definitive diagnosis requires **histological examination** of prostate tissue, which is obtained via **transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy**.
*Simple prostatectomy*
- This procedure is a treatment for **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)**, not for suspected prostate cancer.
- While the patient has symptoms consistent with BPH, the DRE finding and elevated PSA necessitate ruling out malignancy first.
*Cystoscopy*
- **Cystoscopy** allows direct visualization of the urethra and bladder but is not the primary diagnostic tool for evaluating a suspicious prostate nodule.
- It would not provide the tissue sample needed for a definitive cancer diagnosis.
*CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis*
- A **CT scan** is typically used for **staging prostate cancer** (once diagnosed) to assess for local invasion or distant metastasis.
- It is not the initial diagnostic step for confirming the presence of prostate cancer.
*Repeat PSA level in one year*
- Given the highly suspicious DRE finding (firm nodule) and the significantly **elevated PSA level (6.5 ng/mL)**, waiting one year to repeat the PSA would be an inappropriate delay in diagnosis.
- Such findings warrant immediate investigation for prostate cancer.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 8: A 65-year-old man is admitted to the hospital because of a 1-month history of fatigue, intermittent fever, and weakness. Results from a peripheral blood smear taken during his evaluation are indicative of possible acute myeloid leukemia. Bone marrow aspiration and subsequent cytogenetic studies confirm the diagnosis. The physician sets aside an appointed time-slot and arranges a meeting in a quiet office to inform him about the diagnosis and discuss his options. He has been encouraged to bring someone along to the appointment if he wanted. He comes to your office at the appointed time with his daughter. He appears relaxed, with a full range of affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate opening statement in this situation?
- A. Your lab reports show that you have an acute myeloid leukemia
- B. What is your understanding of the reasons we did bone marrow aspiration and cytogenetic studies? (Correct Answer)
- C. You must be curious and maybe even anxious about the results of your tests.
- D. I may need to refer you to a blood cancer specialist because of your diagnosis. You may need chemotherapy or radiotherapy, which we are not equipped for.
- E. Would you like to know all the details of your diagnosis, or would you prefer I just explain to you what our options are?
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***"What is your understanding of the reasons we did bone marrow aspiration and cytogenetic studies?"***
- This **open-ended question** allows the patient to express their current knowledge and perceptions, which helps the physician tailor the discussion.
- It establishes a **patient-centered approach**, respecting the patient's existing understanding and preparing them for further information.
*"You must be curious and maybe even anxious about the results of your tests."*
- While empathic, this statement makes an **assumption about the patient's feelings** rather than inviting them to share their own.
- It is often better to ask directly or use more open-ended questions that allow the patient to express their true emotions, especially given their **relaxed demeanor**.
*"I may need to refer you to a blood cancer specialist because of your diagnosis. You may need chemotherapy or radiotherapy, which we are not equipped for.”"*
- This statement immediately introduces **overwhelming and potentially alarming information** (referral, chemotherapy, radiotherapy) without first establishing the diagnosis or assessing the patient's readiness to receive it.
- It prematurely jumps to treatment and logistics, potentially causing **unnecessary distress** before the patient has processed the core diagnosis.
*"Would you like to know all the details of your diagnosis, or would you prefer I just explain to you what our options are?""*
- While it attempts to assess the patient's preference for information, this question is a **closed-ended "either/or" choice** that might limit the patient's ability to express nuanced needs.
- It also prematurely introduces the idea of "options" without first explaining the diagnosis in an understandable context.
*"Your lab reports show that you have an acute myeloid leukemia"*
- This is a **direct and blunt delivery of a serious diagnosis** without any preparatory context or assessment of the patient's existing knowledge or emotional state.
- Delivering such news abruptly can be shocking and overwhelming, potentially **hindering effective communication** and rapport building.
Managing incidental findings US Medical PG Question 9: A 43-year-old male with a history of thyroid cancer status post total thyroidectomy presents to his primary care physician after repeated bouts of headaches. His headaches are preceded by periods of anxiety, palpitations, and sweating. The patient says he is unable to pinpoint any precipitating factors and instead says the events occur without warning. Of note, the patient's father and uncle also have a history of thyroid cancer. On exam his vitals are: T 36.8 HR 87, BP 135/93, RR 14, and O2 Sat 100% on room air. The patient's TSH is within normal limits, and he reports taking his levothyroxine as prescribed. What is the next best step in diagnosing this patient's chief complaint?
- A. 24-hour urine free cortisol
- B. Plasma aldosterone/renin ratio
- C. Abdominal CT scan with and without IV contrast
- D. Plasma fractionated metanephrines (Correct Answer)
- E. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
Managing incidental findings Explanation: ***Plasma fractionated metanephrines***
- The patient's symptoms of **anxiety, palpitations, sweating, and headaches** occurring in discrete "attacks" are classic for a **pheochromocytoma**, a tumor that secretes catecholamines.
- Given the patient's and his family's history of **thyroid cancer**, specifically likely **medullary thyroid cancer** due to the familial link, there is a high suspicion for **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 (MEN2)**, which commonly includes pheochromocytoma. **Plasma fractionated metanephrines** are the most sensitive screening test for pheochromocytoma.
*24-hour urine free cortisol*
- This test is used to detect **Cushing's syndrome**, which involves excessive cortisol production.
- Although Cushing's can cause **hypertension**, the paroxysmal symptoms of anxiety, palpitations, and sweating are not typical of Cushing's syndrome.
*Plasma aldosterone/renin ratio*
- This ratio is used to screen for **primary hyperaldosteronism**, a cause of secondary hypertension.
- While the patient has **hypertension (135/93 mm Hg)**, his symptom complex of episodic anxiety, palpitations, and sweating is not characteristic of primary hyperaldosteronism.
*Abdominal CT scan with and without IV contrast*
- An abdominal CT scan can visualize adrenal masses, but it is typically performed *after* biochemical confirmation of a pheochromocytoma to localize the tumor.
- Performing imaging before biochemical testing risks incidentalomas or missing a biochemically active but small tumor, and it is not the most appropriate *next step* in diagnosis given the strong clinical suspicion.
*High dose dexamethasone suppression test*
- This test is specifically used to differentiate between **Cushing's disease** (pituitary ACTH excess) and other causes of Cushing's syndrome.
- The patient's symptoms are not consistent with excessive cortisol production, making this test inappropriate for his chief complaint.
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