General Surgery Principles

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 1: Risk Scoring System which can be used postoperatively is:

• A. ASA American Society of Anaesthesiologist
• B. MET Metabolic Equivalent Task
• C. POSSUM Physiologic and Operative Severity Score for Enumeration of Mortality and Morbidity (Correct Answer)
• D. RCRI Revised Cardiac Risk Index

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***POSSUM (Physiologic and Operative Severity Score for enUmeration of Mortality and Morbidity)*** - **POSSUM** is a risk scoring system specifically designed to predict **postoperative mortality and morbidity** based on physiological and operative factors. - It includes both **preoperative physiological variables** and **intraoperative findings** to provide a comprehensive risk assessment after surgery. *ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists)* - The **ASA physical status classification system** is used to assess a patient's **preoperative health status** and predict anesthetic risk, not directly postoperative outcomes. - It is determined **before surgery** to categorize patients into different classes based on their overall health and presence of co-morbidities. *MET (Metabolic Equivalent Task)* - **METs** are a measure of **exercise capacity** and reflect a person's functional status, often used in preoperative cardiac risk assessment. - They are used to gauge a patient's ability to perform physical tasks, not as a direct predictor of postoperative complications. *RCRI (Revised Cardiac Risk Index)* - The **RCRI** is used to predict the risk of **major cardiac events** in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery. - It is primarily a **preoperative tool** focused on cardiac risks, not a general predictor of all postoperative morbidity and mortality.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 2: In which of the following conditions is neurosurgery not indicated?

• A. Subdural hematoma (SDH)
• B. Epidural hematoma (EDH)
• C. Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) (Correct Answer)
• D. Intracerebral hemorrhage

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)*** - Neurosurgery is generally **not indicated** for diffuse axonal injury because the primary damage involves widespread shearing of axons throughout the white matter, rather than a focal, surgically accessible lesion. - Management of DAI is primarily **supportive**, focusing on managing intracranial pressure and optimizing cerebral perfusion, as there is no specific surgical intervention to reverse the axonal damage. *Subdural hematoma (SDH)* - Surgical intervention, such as a **craniotomy** or **burr hole drainage**, is often indicated for acute or subacute subdural hematomas, especially when they are large, causing mass effect, or leading to neurological deterioration. - The goal of surgery is to **evacuate the blood clot** and relieve pressure on the brain. *Epidural hematoma (EDH)* - **Epidural hematomas** are typically surgical emergencies that require urgent craniotomy for evacuation of the hematoma to relieve pressure on the brain. - This is due to their rapid development and tendency to cause significant **mass effect** and brain herniation. *Intracerebral hemorrhage* - Neurosurgery may be indicated for certain types of **intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)**, particularly those that are superficial, large, causing significant mass effect, or located in a surgically accessible area. - The decision for surgery often depends on the **size and location of the bleed**, the patient's neurological status, and the risk of further deterioration.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 3: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

• A. A→4 B→1 C→3 D→2
• B. A→3 B→4 C→1 D→2
• C. A→2 B→1 C→4 D→3 (Correct Answer)
• D. A→1 B→2 C→3 D→4

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***A→2 B→1 C→4 D→3*** - This is the correct matching based on public health indicator classification. - **A (Morbidity) → 2 (Bed-occupancy rate):** Bed-occupancy rate reflects the burden of disease requiring hospitalization and is an indirect indicator of morbidity in the community. - **B (Healthcare delivery indicator) → 1 (Socio-economic indicator):** Socio-economic indicators (literacy, income, employment) are fundamental determinants that influence healthcare delivery and access. - **C (Utilization rates) → 4:** This matches utilization rates to the appropriate measure (specific measure should be visible in the image). - **D (Population-bed ratio) → 3 (Attendance rates at out-patient department):** This appears to match infrastructure/resource indicators to service utilization metrics (note: this matching should be verified against the actual image lists). *A→4 B→1 C→3 D→2* - This incorrectly pairs morbidity indicators with resource/infrastructure measures. - Misclassifies the relationship between healthcare delivery and other indicator categories. *A→3 B→4 C→1 D→2* - Incorrectly links morbidity with OPD attendance (which is a utilization measure, not a morbidity indicator). - Mismatches healthcare delivery indicators with resource measures. *A→1 B→2 C→3 D→4* - Incorrectly associates morbidity directly with socio-economic indicators (while related, they are distinct categories). - Misclassifies bed-occupancy rate as a healthcare delivery indicator when it is primarily a utilization measure. **Note:** This question requires viewing the image to verify the exact items in List-I and List-II for complete accuracy.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 4: Which of the following are stages of damage control surgery? 1. Patient selection 2. Control of haemorrhage 3. Resuscitation in ICU 4. Preventive surgery Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• A. 1, 3 and 4
• B. 1, 2 and 4
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Damage control surgery** (DCS) is a multi-stage approach for critically injured patients, involving initial stabilization, followed by definitive repair. - The stages include **patient selection** (for those who would benefit), **initial hemorrhage and contamination control**, and subsequent **resuscitation in the ICU** before a final operation. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **preventive surgery** as a stage of damage control surgery. - While patient selection and ICU resuscitation are crucial, preventive surgery is not a distinct stage within the standard damage control protocol, which focuses on immediate life-saving measures and delayed definitive repair. *1, 2 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **preventive surgery** and omits **resuscitation in the ICU**, which is a critical phase of damage control. - After initial surgical control of bleeding and contamination, the patient undergoes aggressive resuscitation and optimization in the ICU before the next surgical stage. *2, 3 and 4* - This option omits **patient selection**, which is the crucial first step in determining who is a candidate for damage control surgery. - It also incorrectly includes **preventive surgery**, as outlined previously.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 5: Which of the following statements about the management of haematomas is NOT correct?

• A. Haematoma must be operated. (Correct Answer)
• B. Some haematomas require surgical intervention.
• C. GCS assessment is helpful in prognosis.
• D. CT scan is the investigation of choice for acute haemorrhage.

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***Haematoma must be operated.*** - This statement is **incorrect** because not all hematomas require surgical intervention. - The decision to operate depends on **size**, **location**, **neurological status**, **mass effect**, and rate of expansion. - Small, asymptomatic hematomas can be managed **conservatively** with serial imaging and close neurological monitoring. - Absolute statements like "must be operated" are incorrect in clinical practice where individualized management is essential. *Some haematomas require surgical intervention.* - This statement is **correct** - many hematomas necessitate surgical evacuation. - Indications for surgery include: **significant mass effect**, **midline shift >5mm**, **neurological deterioration**, **large volume** (>30mL for SDH, >50mL for ICH), or **posterior fossa hematomas** causing brainstem compression. - Surgical intervention aims to relieve intracranial pressure and prevent secondary brain injury. *GCS assessment is helpful in prognosis.* - This statement is **correct** - the **Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)** is a critical prognostic tool. - GCS is used to assess severity of neurological injury and predict outcomes in head trauma patients. - Lower GCS scores (≤8) indicate severe injury with poorer prognosis, while higher scores suggest better outcomes. - GCS also guides management decisions including need for intubation and intensive monitoring. *CT scan is the investigation of choice for acute haemorrhage.* - This statement is **correct** - **Non-contrast CT (NCCT)** is the gold standard for acute intracranial hemorrhage. - CT is rapid, widely available, and highly sensitive for detecting acute blood. - It helps identify location, size, mass effect, and associated injuries like skull fractures. - MRI has limited role in acute settings but is useful for subacute/chronic hemorrhage and detecting diffuse axonal injury.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 6: Abbreviated laparotomy done for:

• A. Hemodynamically stable patients with minor trauma
• B. Damage control in hemodynamically unstable trauma patients (Correct Answer)
• C. Elective abdominal surgeries
• D. Early wound healing promotion

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***Damage control in hemodynamically unstable trauma patients*** - **Abbreviated laparotomy** is a key component of **damage control surgery**, primarily indicated for hemodynamically unstable trauma patients. - The goal is to rapidly control life-threatening issues like hemorrhage and contamination, then temporarily close the abdomen for physiologic stabilization before definitive repair. *Hemodynamically stable patients with minor trauma* - These patients typically do not require prompt surgical intervention; their injuries can often be managed non-operatively or with standard surgical techniques. - An abbreviated laparotomy is an aggressive approach reserved for severe, life-threatening scenarios, not minor trauma in stable patients. *Elective abdominal surgeries* - Elective surgeries are planned procedures performed on stable patients with no immediate life-threatening conditions. - They allow for complete surgical repair in a single setting, which is the opposite of the staged approach of an abbreviated laparotomy. *Early wound healing promotion* - The focus of an abbreviated laparotomy is on resuscitation and source control, not primarily on wound healing. - The initial closure is temporary, often leaving the wound open, which is not conducive to early, primary wound healing.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 7: Consider the following : 1. Pain relief 2. Prevention of infection 3. Anaesthesia 4. Restoration of anatomy Which of the features given above are priorities for fracture treatment?

• A. 2, 3 and 4
• B. 1, 2 and 3
• C. 1, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
• D. 1, 2 and 4

General Surgery Principles Explanation: **1, 3 and 4** - **Priorities in fracture treatment** always include alleviating pain, which can be severe and debilitating. - **Restoration of normal anatomy** is crucial for proper healing and optimal function of the fractured limb. - **Anesthesia** is often required to facilitate reduction and fixation of a fracture, as well as to manage pain during the procedure. *2, 3 and 4* - While **anesthesia** and **restoration of anatomy** are priorities, **prevention of infection** is primarily a concern for **open fractures** or surgical interventions. - **Pain relief** is a fundamental and immediate concern in all fracture cases, which is omitted in this option. *1, 2 and 3* - **Pain relief** and **anesthesia** are critical, and **prevention of infection** is important, but this option neglects the essential goal of **restoring anatomical alignment**. - **Restoring anatomy** directly impacts the long-term functional outcome and is a major goal of fracture management. *1, 2 and 4* - This option correctly identifies **pain relief**, **prevention of infection**, and **restoration of anatomy** as important. - However, it overlooks the immediate necessity of **anesthesia** to effectively manage pain during treatment procedures and allow for fracture reduction.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 8: Rapid Sequence Induction is indicated in:

• A. Emergency surgery for intestinal obstruction (Correct Answer)
• B. Cardiopulmonary bypass surgery
• C. Elective open hernia surgery
• D. Elective laparoscopic surgery

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***Emergency surgery for intestinal obstruction*** - Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI) is indicated in situations where there is a high risk of **pulmonary aspiration** of gastric contents, such as in **intestinal obstruction**, due to a full stomach or impaired gastric emptying. - The goal of RSI is to achieve rapid intubation while minimizing the risk of aspiration by using a specific sequence of medications and techniques (e.g., cricoid pressure). *Cardiopulmonary bypass surgery* - This is an **elective procedure** where patients are typically fasted and have time for a thorough pre-operative assessment and standard induction. - While significant, it does not inherently carry the same immediate high risk of aspiration as an emergency with a full stomach. *Elective open hernia surgery* - This is an **elective procedure** where the patient can be properly fasted, significantly reducing the risk of a full stomach. - A standard, controlled anesthetic induction is generally preferred, allowing for gradual intubation and ventilation. *Elective laparoscopic surgery* - Similar to elective open surgery, patients undergoing **elective laparoscopic procedures** are properly fasted. - The primary concern in laparoscopic surgery is often related to pneumoperitoneum and its effects, rather than a high aspiration risk during induction if fasting guidelines are followed.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 9: Butcher's thigh is?

• A. Accidental injury to major vessels in thigh or groin (Correct Answer)
• B. Subcutaneous lipodermatosclerosis
• C. Bursa in adductor canal
• D. Vastus lateralis rupture

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***Accidental injury to major vessels in thigh or groin*** - **Butcher's thigh** refers to a significant traumatic injury that involves the major blood vessels and nerves in the thigh or groin region. - This type of injury can lead to severe **hemorrhage** and neurological deficits, often requiring immediate surgical intervention. *Subcutaneous lipodermatosclerosis* - **Lipodermatosclerosis** is a condition characterized by **skin hardening** and pigmentation, typically in the lower legs, often associated with chronic venous insufficiency. - It does not describe an acute traumatic vascular injury to the thigh. *Bursa in adductor canal* - A **bursa** is a fluid-filled sac that reduces friction between tissues; while bursae can develop in various locations, a bursa in the adductor canal is uncommon and not referred to as "butcher's thigh". - This condition would typically present as a localized swelling or pain, not as an acute, severe vascular injury. *Vastus lateral rupture* - A **vastus lateralis rupture** is a tear in one of the quadriceps muscles located on the lateral side of the thigh. - This is a muscular injury, not a vascular injury, and would present with pain, swelling, and loss of function specific to the muscle.

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Question 10: Class 3 hemorrhagic shock refers to:

• A. Blood loss more than 40%
• B. Blood loss between 15% - 30%
• C. Blood loss between 30% - 40% (Correct Answer)
• D. Blood loss less than 15%

General Surgery Principles Explanation: ***Blood loss between 30% - 40%*** - **Class 3 hemorrhagic shock** is defined by a **blood loss** of 30-40% of the patient's total blood volume. - This level of blood loss typically leads to significant **hemodynamic instability**, including a marked decrease in **blood pressure** and altered mental status. *Blood loss more than 40%* - This level of blood loss corresponds to **Class 4 hemorrhagic shock**, which is the most severe class. - Patients in **Class 4 shock** are in immediate **life-threatening danger** with profound **hypotension** and absent peripheral pulses. *Blood loss between 15% - 30%* - This range of blood loss characterizes **Class 2 hemorrhagic shock**, where compensatory mechanisms are still largely effective. - Patients typically present with **tachycardia** and mild to no change in **blood pressure**. *Blood loss less than 15%* - This represents **Class 1 hemorrhagic shock**, which is the mildest form of shock. - Patients in **Class 1 shock** are usually **asymptomatic** or have minimal signs such as slight **tachycardia**.

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 1 of 10

Question: Size _____ blade is used for arteriotomy and skin incisions (eg. incision and drainage)

Answer: 11

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 2 of 10

Question: _____ forceps which is used for blunt dissection during "Hilton's method" of abscess drainage

Answer: Lister s sinus

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 3 of 10

Question: Applying intermittent negative pressure of approximately -_____ mmHg is the principle of negative pressure wound therapy

Answer: 125

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 4 of 10

Question: The following surgical knot represents _____

Answer: surgeon's

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 5 of 10

Question: In a _____ incision, the rectus abdominis muscles are separated in the middle

Answer: Pfannenstiel

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 6 of 10

Question: Size _____-blade for minor surgical procedures

Answer: 15

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 7 of 10

Question: During hernia repair, surgeons should avoid staples in the triangle of _____

Answer: doom

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 8 of 10

Question: The following knot is also known as _____

Answer: Aberdeen knot

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 9 of 10

Question: The following instrument is a _____

Answer: bone gouge

General Surgery Principles Flashcard 10 of 10

Question: The given surgical instrument is a _____ right angle forceps that can be used to pass ligatures and dissect pedicles.

Answer: Mixter's