Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Adrenal Cortical Tumors. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 1: VMA is elevated in which of the following condition?
- A. Tuberous sclerosis
- B. Addison disease
- C. Pheochromocytoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Conn Syndrome
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: Pheochromocytoma
- Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine).
- Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) is a breakdown product of these catecholamines [1], so its levels are elevated in the urine of patients with pheochromocytoma.
Tuberous sclerosis
- Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous non-cancerous tumors in various organs.
- While it can be associated with renal angiomyolipomas or brain lesions, it does not directly cause elevated VMA levels.
Addison disease
- Addison disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency [2], meaning the adrenal glands produce insufficient amounts of hormones like cortisol and aldosterone.
- This condition is not associated with the overproduction of catecholamines or elevated VMA.
Conn Syndrome
- Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) is due to an overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal glands, often caused by an adrenal adenoma [3].
- Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid, and its overproduction does not lead to increased catecholamine metabolism or elevated VMA levels.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 2: What is the most common adrenal incidentaloma?
- A. Aldosterone producing
- B. Pheochromocytoma
- C. Endocrine inactive tumors (Correct Answer)
- D. Cortisol producing
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: ***Endocrine inactive tumors***
- The majority, about **70-85%**, of adrenal incidentalomas are **benign, non-secretory adenomas**, which are often referred to as endocrine inactive tumors. [1]
- These tumors do not produce excess hormones and are typically discovered incidentally on imaging performed for other reasons.
*Cortisol producing*
- While **cortisol-producing adenomas** are a type of functional adrenal tumor, they represent a smaller percentage of incidentalomas, usually less than 10%.
- These can lead to **Cushing's syndrome**, but most incidentalomas causing hypercortisolism are subclinical.
*Aldosterone producing*
- **Aldosterone-producing adenomas**, which cause primary aldosteronism, are also less common than inactive tumors, accounting for about 1-5% of incidentalomas. [1]
- They are typically associated with **hypertension** and **hypokalemia**.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- **Pheochromocytomas**, which secrete catecholamines, are rare adrenal incidentalomas, making up less than 5% of cases.
- These tumors can cause **hypertension**, **tachycardia**, and other symptoms related to catecholamine excess. [1]
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 3: The most appropriate first-line imaging modality to detect adrenal metastasis due to bronchogenic carcinoma is:
- A. PET scan
- B. MRI of the abdomen
- C. Adrenal radionuclide scan
- D. Contrast Enhanced CT abdomen (Correct Answer)
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: **Contrast Enhanced CT abdomen**
- **Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen** is generally considered the most sensitive and cost-effective imaging modality for detecting **adrenal metastases**.
- It allows for detailed visualization of adrenal gland morphology, including size, shape, and enhancement patterns, which can help differentiate benign from malignant lesions.
*PET scan*
- While **PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scans** are highly sensitive for detecting metabolically active metastatic disease, they are often used as a secondary imaging modality to characterize indeterminate lesions found on CT or MRI.
- **PET scans** can have false positives in benign adrenal tumors (e.g., adenomas rich in fat) and are less readily available or higher in cost for initial screening compared to CT.
*MRI of the abdomen*
- **MRI of the abdomen** can be very useful for further characterization of adrenal masses, especially for distinguishing between lipid-rich adenomas and metastases.
- However, for initial detection, especially in the context of screening for distant metastases from bronchogenic carcinoma, **CT is generally preferred due to its wider availability, speed, and lower cost**.
*Adrenal radionuclide scan*
- **Adrenal radionuclide scans** (e.g., using MIBG or iodocholesterol) are primarily used for functional imaging of adrenal glands, typically to detect specific types of tumors like pheochromocytomas or aldosteronomas.
- These scans are **not sensitive for detecting adrenal metastases** from bronchogenic carcinoma, as the metastatic lesions do not typically exhibit the specific uptake patterns targeted by these radiotracers.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 4: Which of the following is false about pheochromocytoma?
- A. Surgery is the treatment of choice
- B. VMA (vanillylmandelic acid) is a diagnostic test
- C. Propranolol is the preferred drug for hypertension control (Correct Answer)
- D. Catecholamines are a diagnostic test
- E. Most pheochromocytomas are benign
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: ***Propranolol is the preferred drug for hypertension control***
- Propranolol, a **beta-blocker**, is generally contraindicated as monotherapy in pheochromocytoma because blocking beta-receptors unopposed can lead to a **hypertensive crisis** due to unopposed alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction.
- **Alpha-blockers** (e.g., phenoxybenzamine) are the first-line agents for hypertension control, followed by beta-blockers once adequate alpha-blockade is established.
*Surgery is the treatment of choice*
- **Surgical resection** of the tumor is indeed the definitive treatment for pheochromocytoma once the patient has been appropriately prepared with alpha-blockade.
- This approach aims to remove the source of excessive catecholamine production and resolve the associated symptoms.
*VMA (vanillylmandelic acid) is a diagnostic test*
- **VMA** is a metabolic breakdown product of catecholamines, and its measurement in a **24-hour urine collection** is a long-standing method for diagnosing pheochromocytoma.
- Elevated VMA levels indicate overproduction of catecholamines, which is characteristic of the tumor.
*Catecholamines are a diagnostic test*
- Measuring **plasma free metanephrines** and **24-hour urinary fractionated metanephrines** (which are methylated metabolites of catecholamines) are highly sensitive and specific diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma.
- Elevated levels confirm the excessive secretion of these hormones by the tumor.
*Most pheochromocytomas are benign*
- Approximately **90% of pheochromocytomas are benign**, with only about 10% being malignant.
- The **"rule of 10s"** is a helpful mnemonic: 10% bilateral, 10% extra-adrenal, 10% malignant, 10% familial, and 10% occur in children.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 5: A 45-year-old develops dysphagia 3 months post thyroidectomy. Most likely cause?
- A. Recurrent tumor
- B. RLN palsy
- C. Adhesions (Correct Answer)
- D. Esophageal injury
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: ***Adhesions***
- **Adhesions** are the **most common cause** of delayed dysphagia occurring 3 months post-thyroidectomy.
- **Perithyroidal and periesophageal adhesions** develop as part of the healing process and can cause esophageal compression, restriction of laryngotracheal mobility, or tethering of the esophagus.
- The **3-month timeline** is classic for scar tissue maturation and adhesion formation, which peaks between 2-6 months post-operatively.
- Patients typically describe **mechanical dysphagia** (difficulty with solid foods initially) and a sensation of tightness or fullness in the neck.
- Management is usually **conservative** with time and reassurance, though severe cases may require surgical adhesiolysis.
*Esophageal injury*
- **Esophageal injury** during thyroidectomy is **extremely rare** (<0.1% incidence) due to the anatomical plane of dissection.
- If it occurs, it typically presents **immediately or within days** post-operatively with severe symptoms such as fever, mediastinitis, subcutaneous emphysema, chest pain, and sepsis.
- A **3-month delayed presentation** would be highly unusual and not the "most likely" cause in this clinical scenario.
*RLN palsy*
- **Recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) palsy** causes **hoarseness and voice changes** due to vocal cord paralysis, not dysphagia.
- While bilateral RLN injury can cause airway obstruction and aspiration, it does not typically cause true dysphagia (difficulty swallowing solids/liquids).
- RLN palsy manifests **immediately post-operatively** when the patient is extubated, not months later.
*Recurrent tumor*
- **Recurrent thyroid cancer** causing dysphagia at 3 months post-operatively is **extremely unlikely**.
- Tumor recurrence typically takes **months to years** to develop and would be accompanied by other findings such as a palpable neck mass, lymphadenopathy, or recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement.
- The short time frame makes this diagnosis improbable unless dealing with anaplastic carcinoma, which is rare.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 6: A patient has Cushing syndrome due to an adrenal tumor. Which drug should be given?
- A. Ketoconazole (Correct Answer)
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrocortisone
- D. Dexamethasone
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: ***Ketoconazole***
- **Ketoconazole** is an antifungal agent that also inhibits several enzymes involved in **steroidogenesis**, including 17α-hydroxylase and 11β-hydroxylase.
- This action helps to reduce the overproduction of **cortisol** in Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal tumor.
*Hydrocortisone*
- **Hydrocortisone** is a glucocorticoid itself and would exacerbate the symptoms of **Cushing syndrome** by adding to the already elevated cortisol levels.
- It is used for **cortisol replacement therapy** in conditions like Addison's disease, where cortisol levels are low.
*Dexamethasone*
- **Dexamethasone** is a potent synthetic glucocorticoid used to suppress **ACTH production** in cases of ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome (e.g., Cushing's disease) or to diagnose Cushing's syndrome.
- In an adrenal tumor, which is **ACTH-independent**, dexamethasone would not reduce cortisol production but could instead worsen the hypercortisolism.
*Spironolactone*
- **Spironolactone** is an **aldosterone antagonist** and a weak antiandrogen, primarily used for conditions like hyperaldosteronism, heart failure, and hirsutism.
- It has no direct effect on the overproduction of **cortisol** from an adrenal tumor in Cushing syndrome.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 7: Stab wounds of the kidneys involve other abdominal organs in a high percentage of cases. Of the organs listed, which one is least likely to be damaged in this patient?
- A. Spleen
- B. Stomach (Correct Answer)
- C. Inferior vena cava
- D. Left adrenal gland
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: ***Stomach***
- The **stomach** is located in the **intraperitoneal space**, relatively anteriorly and centrally in the abdomen, while the kidneys are **retroperitoneal** and posteriorly positioned.
- Most renal stab wounds occur from a **posterior or posterolateral approach**, making the anteriorly located stomach the **least likely** organ to be injured in conjunction with kidney trauma.
- Its high mobility and gas content also offer some degree of protection by allowing it to shift with impact or absorb some of the force without penetrating injury.
*Spleen*
- The **spleen** is located in the left upper quadrant, in close anatomical proximity to the left kidney, making it highly susceptible to injury in cases of left renal stab wounds.
- Its delicate, vascular nature makes it prone to significant bleeding even from minor trauma.
*Inferior vena cava*
- The **inferior vena cava (IVC)** lies in the retroperitoneum, anterior to the spine and medial to the kidneys, making it vulnerable to deep penetrating wounds that reach the posterior abdominal cavity.
- Injury to the IVC can lead to massive hemorrhage and is a life-threatening complication.
*Left adrenal gland*
- The **left adrenal gland** is located superior and slightly medial to the left kidney, directly in the retroperitoneal space.
- A stab wound to the left kidney has a high probability of also involving the closely associated left adrenal gland due to their anatomical proximity.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 8: Where is a bruit typically heard in the thyroid gland?
- A. Upper pole (Correct Answer)
- B. Lower pole
- C. Middle part
- D. Lateral aspect
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: **Explanation:**
The presence of a thyroid bruit is a classic clinical sign of **Graves' disease** (toxic diffuse goiter). It occurs due to the hyperdynamic circulation and significantly increased vascularity of the gland.
**Why the Upper Pole is Correct:**
The bruit is most commonly heard over the **upper pole** of the thyroid gland. This is because the **superior thyroid artery**, a direct branch of the external carotid artery, enters the gland at the upper pole. Due to its proximity to a major high-pressure arterial trunk and its relatively superficial location, the turbulent blood flow (hypervascularity) is most audible at this site.
**Analysis of Incorrect Options:**
* **Lower Pole:** While the inferior thyroid artery (from the thyrocervical trunk) supplies the lower pole, it is situated deeper and has a more tortuous course, making a bruit less likely to be localized here compared to the superior pole.
* **Middle Part & Lateral Aspect:** These areas represent the body of the lobes. While vascularity is increased throughout in Graves' disease, the primary inflow points (the poles) are the high-yield areas for auscultation.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
1. **Bruit vs. Thrill:** A bruit is an auditory sign (auscultation), whereas a **thrill** is its tactile equivalent (palpation). Both indicate Graves' disease.
2. **Differential Diagnosis:** A thyroid bruit must be distinguished from a **venous hum** (disappears with pressure over the internal jugular vein) and a **carotid bruit** (heard lateral to the gland).
3. **Significance:** The presence of a bruit is highly specific for Graves' disease and helps differentiate it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis, such as toxic multinodular goiter or thyroiditis.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 9: Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding medullary cancer of the thyroid?
- A. Secrete Calcitonin
- B. 20-25% are familial
- C. Diarrhea is seen in 30%
- D. These cancers take up Radioactive Iodine (Correct Answer)
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: ### Explanation
**Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC)** arises from the **parafollicular C-cells**, which are neuroendocrine cells derived from the neural crest. This fundamental embryological origin is the key to understanding its clinical behavior and management.
**Why Option D is the Correct (False) Statement:**
Radioactive Iodine (RAI) uptake depends on the expression of the Sodium-Iodide Symporter (NIS), which is exclusive to follicular epithelial cells. Since MTC originates from C-cells (not follicular cells), these tumors **do not take up radioactive iodine**. Consequently, RAI ablation is not a therapeutic option for MTC, unlike papillary or follicular thyroid cancers.
**Analysis of Other Options:**
* **Option A (True):** C-cells naturally produce **Calcitonin**. Elevated serum calcitonin is a highly sensitive and specific tumor marker for MTC, used for both diagnosis and monitoring recurrence.
* **Option B (True):** Approximately **20–25%** of MTC cases are familial, occurring as part of **MEN 2A, MEN 2B**, or Familial MTC (FMTC) syndromes, usually due to germline **RET proto-oncogene** mutations. The remaining 75–80% are sporadic.
* **Option C (True):** Diarrhea occurs in about **30%** of patients, particularly in advanced or metastatic disease. It is caused by the hypersecretion of calcitonin, prostaglandins, or serotonin, which increases intestinal motility.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Amyloid Stroma:** Histologically, MTC is characterized by nests of cells separated by amyloid deposits (stained by Congo Red).
* **CEA:** Carcinoembryonic Antigen is another important tumor marker for MTC.
* **Screening:** All patients diagnosed with MTC must be screened for **RET mutations** and **Pheochromocytoma** (before surgery) to rule out MEN 2.
* **Treatment:** The primary treatment is Total Thyroidectomy with central compartment neck dissection.
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Indian Medical PG Question 10: Which type of thyroid carcinoma is associated with hypocalcemia?
- A. Follicular carcinoma
- B. Medullary carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Anaplastic carcinoma
- D. Papillary carcinoma
Adrenal Cortical Tumors Explanation: **Explanation:**
**Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC)** is the correct answer because of its unique cellular origin. Unlike other thyroid cancers that arise from follicular cells, MTC originates from the **Parafollicular C-cells** of the thyroid gland. These cells are responsible for the secretion of **Calcitonin**.
In MTC, there is a pathological hypersecretion of Calcitonin. Calcitonin acts as a physiological antagonist to Parathyroid Hormone (PTH); it lowers serum calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption (osteoclast activity) and increasing renal calcium excretion. While clinical hypocalcemia is rare in MTC patients due to compensatory mechanisms, the biochemical association with calcium-lowering hormones makes it the characteristic answer for this question.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
* **Papillary and Follicular Carcinoma:** These are "Differentiated Thyroid Cancers" (DTC) arising from follicular cells. They secrete Thyroglobulin, not Calcitonin, and have no direct effect on calcium metabolism.
* **Anaplastic Carcinoma:** This is an undifferentiated, highly aggressive tumor. While it can cause local invasion (leading to hoarseness or dysphagia), it does not produce hormones that regulate calcium.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Tumor Marker:** Calcitonin is used for both diagnosis and monitoring recurrence in MTC. Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) is also often elevated.
* **Genetics:** Approximately 25% of MTC cases are familial, associated with **MEN 2A and 2B** syndromes (RET proto-oncogene mutation).
* **Amyloid Stroma:** Histologically, MTC is characterized by polygonal cells with **amyloid deposits** (derived from pro-calcitonin) that stain with Congo Red.
* **Spread:** MTC spreads via both lymphatic and hematogenous routes.
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