Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Molecular Oncology. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 1: Gastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Over expression of C-met
- B. Inactivation of p53
- C. Over expression of C-erb
- D. Activation of RAS (Correct Answer)
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Activation of RAS***
- **RAS mutations** are relatively uncommon in gastric carcinoma compared to other gastrointestinal malignancies. While KRAS mutations can occur in approximately 10-15% of gastric cancers (particularly intestinal type), they are **far less frequent** than in **pancreatic adenocarcinoma** (~90%) or **colorectal carcinoma** (~40%).
- In the context of gastric carcinoma, RAS pathway alterations are **not considered a major oncogenic driver** compared to the other molecular changes listed, making this the **LEAST characteristically associated** alteration.
*Inactivation of p53*
- **Inactivation of the p53 tumor suppressor gene** is one of the most frequent molecular events in gastric carcinoma, occurring in approximately **50-60% of cases**.
- Loss of p53 function leads to genomic instability, uncontrolled cell proliferation, and resistance to apoptosis, contributing significantly to **tumorigenesis** and **poor prognosis**.
*Over expression of C-met*
- **Overexpression of C-MET**, a receptor tyrosine kinase for hepatocyte growth factor (HGF), is commonly observed in gastric carcinoma (30-40% of cases) and is strongly linked to **tumor growth**, **invasion**, and **metastasis**.
- C-MET amplification and overexpression promote cell proliferation, survival, migration, and angiogenesis, making it an important **therapeutic target** in advanced gastric cancer.
*Over expression of C-erb*
- **Overexpression of C-erbB-2 (HER2/neu)** is found in approximately **10-20% of gastric adenocarcinomas**, particularly the intestinal type.
- HER2 amplification or overexpression is a significant **prognostic and predictive biomarker**, and is specifically targeted by **trastuzumab** (Herceptin) therapy in HER2-positive advanced gastric cancer, improving survival outcomes.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 2: Which gene mutation is commonly associated with malignant melanoma?
- A. MYCN
- B. CDKN2A (Correct Answer)
- C. RET
- D. BRAF
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***CDK2A***
- CDK2A mutations are implicated in malignant melanoma as they disrupt the **cell cycle regulation**, contributing to uncontrolled cell growth [1].
- Loss of CDK2A function leads to reduced **p16INK4A**, a crucial inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinases involved in **G1/S phase transition** [1,3].
- Germline mutations of p16 (CDKN2A) are present in 25% of melanoma-prone kindreds [2], and germline mutations in CDKN2A are associated with familial forms of melanoma [3].
*RET*
- RET mutations are primarily associated with **medullary thyroid carcinoma** and **multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2**, not melanoma.
- It is involved in the signaling pathways but does not have a direct link to melanoma pathogenesis.
*None*
- Suggesting "none" misrepresents the reality that specific mutations do occur in malignant melanoma, including **CDK2A** and **BRAF**.
- This option fails to recognize the importance of genetic alterations in cancer development and progression.
*N-myc*
- N-myc mutations are primarily associated with **neuroblastoma** and not typically linked to malignant melanoma.
- In melanoma, mutations of this gene do not play a significant role in its pathophysiology compared to another tumor suppressor gene like **CDK2A**.
**References:**
[1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, pp. 1150-1151.
[2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 297-298.
[3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 305-306.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 3: Molecular genetic testing is used to detect all of the following except?
- A. Deletion
- B. Translocation (Correct Answer)
- C. Amplification
- D. Point mutation
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Translocation***
- **Translocations** are chromosomal rearrangements that were historically detected primarily by **cytogenetic methods** (karyotyping, conventional FISH), rather than by traditional molecular genetic testing methods focused on DNA sequencing [3].
- While modern molecular techniques like **RT-PCR for fusion transcripts** (e.g., BCR-ABL), **NGS-based fusion detection**, and **targeted breakpoint sequencing** can now detect translocations, the classic distinction is that translocations involve large-scale structural chromosomal changes better visualized by cytogenetics [2], [3].
- In the traditional classification, molecular genetic testing referred primarily to **sequence-based methods** (PCR, Sanger sequencing) that detect smaller-scale DNA changes rather than gross chromosomal rearrangements.
*Deletion*
- **Deletions** are readily detected by molecular genetic testing using PCR, Sanger sequencing, MLPA (Multiplex Ligation-dependent Probe Amplification), and NGS [5].
- These techniques identify missing DNA sequences by analyzing changes in fragment size, read depth, or absence of expected amplification products [2], [5].
*Amplification*
- **Amplification** (increased gene copy number) is detected by molecular methods including **quantitative PCR (qPCR)**, **digital PCR**, and **NGS-based copy number analysis** [4].
- These techniques quantify gene copy numbers to identify amplifications like HER2 amplification in breast cancer.
*Point mutation*
- **Point mutations** are the primary target of classic molecular genetic testing [1].
- Detected by **Sanger sequencing**, **allele-specific PCR**, **NGS panels**, and other sequence-based methods that identify single nucleotide changes in DNA [1], [2].
**References:**
[1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, p. 185.
[2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 185-186.
[3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 342-343.
[4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, p. 344.
[5] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 183-184.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 4: Which of the following is a primarily RNA based technique?
- A. Western blotting
- B. Northern blotting (Correct Answer)
- C. Southern blotting
- D. Sanger's technique
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Northern blotting***
- **Northern blotting** is a molecular biology technique used to study **gene expression** by detecting specific **RNA molecules** (mRNA) in a sample.
- It involves separating RNA fragments by **gel electrophoresis**, transferring them to a membrane, and then detecting specific sequences using **labeled probes**.
*Western blotting*
- **Western blotting** is a technique used to detect specific **proteins** in a sample.
- It involves separating proteins by **gel electrophoresis**, transferring them to a membrane, and then detecting specific proteins using labeled **antibodies**.
*Southern blotting*
- **Southern blotting** is a molecular biology method used for the detection of **specific DNA sequences** in DNA samples.
- It involves separating **DNA fragments** by **gel electrophoresis**, transferring them to a membrane, and then hybridizing with a labeled probe.
*Sanger's technique*
- **Sanger sequencing**, or the **dideoxy chain-termination method**, is a widely used method for **DNA sequencing**.
- It uses **dideoxynucleotides** to terminate DNA synthesis at specific bases, allowing the determination of the **DNA sequence**.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 5: Knudson two-hit hypothesis is classically exemplified by
- A. Crohn disease
- B. Ulcerative colitis
- C. Retinoblastoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Melanoma
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Retinoblastoma***
- The **Knudson two-hit hypothesis** was **originally formulated** based on studies of **retinoblastoma** by Alfred Knudson in 1971 [1].
- It posits that **two separate mutational events** are required to inactivate **both alleles** of the **Rb tumor suppressor gene** in the same cell, leading to tumor formation [1], [2].
- This explains both **hereditary** (germline mutation + somatic mutation) and **sporadic** (two somatic mutations) forms of retinoblastoma [1], [2].
- Retinoblastoma remains the **paradigmatic example** of this hypothesis and tumor suppressor gene inactivation [2].
*Crohn disease*
- This is an **inflammatory bowel disease**, not a neoplasm, with complex etiology involving genetic susceptibility, environmental factors, and immune dysregulation.
- Its pathogenesis does **not follow the Knudson two-hit hypothesis**, which specifically relates to tumor suppressor gene inactivation in cancer.
*Ulcerative colitis*
- Similar to Crohn disease, **ulcerative colitis** is an **inflammatory bowel disease** with multifactorial etiology, not a neoplastic condition.
- While chronic UC can increase colorectal cancer risk through accumulated mutations, the disease itself does **not represent the two-hit hypothesis model**.
*Melanoma*
- **Melanoma** is a skin cancer often linked to **UV radiation** and mutations in oncogenes like **BRAF** and tumor suppressors like **PTEN** and **CDKN2A**. [3]
- While some familial melanomas involve tumor suppressor genes, melanoma is **not the classic example** used to illustrate the Knudson hypothesis—**retinoblastoma holds that distinction**.
**References:**
[1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, p. 300.
[2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 227-228.
[3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 297-298.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 6: What is the mechanism of action of Bevacizumab?
- A. Anti VEGF antibody (Correct Answer)
- B. Histone deacetylase inhibitor
- C. HER2 neu inhibitor
- D. Proteasome inhibitor
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Anti VEGF antibody***
- **Bevacizumab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that specifically targets and binds to vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF).
- By inhibiting VEGF, bevacizumab prevents the formation of new blood vessels (**angiogenesis**) that tumors need to grow and metastasize.
*Histone deacetylase inhibitor*
- **Histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors** influence gene expression by modifying chromatin structure, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in cancer cells.
- They are used in certain hematologic malignancies and solid tumors but do not directly interfere with angiogenesis.
*Proteasome inhibitor*
- **Proteasome inhibitors** like bortezomib block the action of proteasomes, leading to an accumulation of ubiquitinated proteins and induction of apoptosis in cancer cells.
- This mechanism is distinct from blocking new blood vessel formation.
*HER2 neu inhibitor*
- **HER2 neu inhibitors** (e.g., trastuzumab) specifically target the HER2/neu receptor, which is overexpressed in certain breast and gastric cancers.
- Their action primarily involves blocking growth signals transmitted through this receptor, not inhibiting VEGF or angiogenesis.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 7: What is the treatment for HER-2 positive trastuzumab resistant breast cancer?
- A. Sorafenib
- B. Lapatinib (Correct Answer)
- C. Vemurafenib
- D. Erlotinib
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Lapatinib***
- Lapatinib is a **dual tyrosine kinase inhibitor** that targets both **HER-2** and **epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)**, acting as a **small molecule inhibitor** that binds to the intracellular domain of these receptors.
- Unlike trastuzumab (a monoclonal antibody targeting the extracellular domain), Lapatinib's **intracellular mechanism of action** allows it to overcome common mechanisms of trastuzumab resistance, such as receptor truncation or masking of the extracellular epitope.
- It is specifically approved for the treatment of **HER-2 positive metastatic breast cancer** in combination with capecitabine after progression on trastuzumab-containing regimens.
*Sorafenib*
- Sorafenib is a **multi-kinase inhibitor** primarily targeting RAF, VEGFR, and PDGFR, and is used in renal cell carcinoma and hepatocellular carcinoma.
- It does not specifically target HER-2 and is **not indicated** for HER-2 positive trastuzumab-resistant breast cancer.
*Vemurafenib*
- Vemurafenib is a **BRAF inhibitor** used for treating BRAF V600E mutation-positive melanoma.
- This drug has no direct indications or demonstrated efficacy for **HER-2 positive breast cancer** and does not address trastuzumab resistance mechanisms.
*Erlotinib*
- Erlotinib is an **EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor** primarily used for non-small cell lung cancer with activating EGFR mutations.
- While it targets EGFR, it does **not effectively target HER-2** and lacks the dual inhibition necessary to overcome trastuzumab resistance in HER-2 positive breast cancer.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 8: Molecular genetic testing is used to detect all of the following except?
- A. Translocation (Correct Answer)
- B. Point mutation
- C. Amplification
- D. Deletion
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Translocation***
- This is the **intended answer** for this question, based on a distinction between traditional molecular genetic testing and cytogenetic methods.
- Historically, **large-scale chromosomal translocations** were primarily identified by **conventional cytogenetic methods** like **karyotyping**.
- However, in modern practice, translocations **can be detected** by molecular techniques including **FISH (fluorescence in situ hybridization)**, **RT-PCR** for specific fusion genes (e.g., BCR-ABL), and **next-generation sequencing** [3], [4].
- The distinction is becoming less clear as molecular cytogenetic techniques bridge both fields.
*Point mutation*
- **Single nucleotide changes** (point mutations) are the **classic target** of molecular genetic testing [1].
- Readily detected by **Sanger sequencing**, **next-generation sequencing**, **PCR-based methods**, and **allele-specific assays** [3].
- These tests specifically identify alterations in individual DNA bases.
*Amplification*
- **Gene amplifications** (increased copy number) are routinely detected using molecular genetic techniques.
- Methods include **quantitative PCR (qPCR)**, **digital PCR**, **FISH**, and **array comparative genomic hybridization (aCGH)** [2].
- Example: HER2 amplification testing in breast cancer.
*Deletion*
- **Deletions** ranging from single nucleotides to whole genes are readily detectable by molecular genetic testing [1].
- Techniques include **multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification (MLPA)**, **aCGH**, **next-generation sequencing**, and **deletion-specific PCR** [2], [3].
- Small and large deletions are both within the scope of modern molecular diagnostics [1], [3].
**References:**
[1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 183-184.
[2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 186-187.
[3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 185-186.
[4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 342-343.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 9: Which technique is used for protein separation based on molecular size?
- A. Affinity chromatography
- B. Gel filtration chromatography (Correct Answer)
- C. HPLC
- D. Salting out
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Gel filtration chromatography***
- Also known as **size-exclusion chromatography**, this method separates proteins by passing them through a porous matrix. **Larger proteins** elute first as they cannot enter the pores, while smaller proteins get trapped and elute later.
- This technique effectively separates proteins based solely on their **hydrodynamic radius**, which is closely related to their molecular size.
*Affinity chromatography*
- This method separates proteins based on their **specific binding affinity** to a ligand immobilized on a stationary phase, not molecular size.
- It is used for purifying proteins that bind to a specific molecule, such as an antibody or substrate.
*HPLC*
- **High-performance liquid chromatography** is a general technique that can use various separation mechanisms (e.g., reverse-phase, ion-exchange, size-exclusion) under high pressure.
- While it *can* be used for size-exclusion, HPLC itself describes the *method* of chromatographic performance rather than a specific separation principle based on molecular size alone.
*Salting out*
- This technique separates proteins based on their **solubility** in high salt concentrations.
- As salt concentration increases, the proteins lose their hydration shells and precipitate out of solution, with different proteins precipitating at different salt concentrations.
Molecular Oncology Indian Medical PG Question 10: A patient with recurrent abortion is diagnosed to have antiphospholipid syndrome. What will be the treatment?
- A. Aspirin alone
- B. Aspirin, Low molecular weight Heparin, and Prednisolone
- C. No treatment required
- D. Aspirin and Low molecular weight Heparin (Correct Answer)
Molecular Oncology Explanation: ***Aspirin and Low molecular weight Heparin***
- The combination of **low-dose aspirin (75-100 mg daily)** and **low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)** is the **standard of care** for pregnant women with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) to prevent recurrent pregnancy loss.
- **Aspirin** inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces thrombosis, while **LMWH** provides anticoagulation to prevent placental thrombosis and improve pregnancy outcomes.
- This combination has been shown to **increase live birth rates** from approximately 40% (untreated) to **70-80%** in women with APS.
*Aspirin alone*
- While aspirin is part of the treatment regimen, **aspirin monotherapy is insufficient** for preventing recurrent pregnancy loss in patients with established APS.
- Randomized controlled trials have demonstrated that adding heparin to aspirin **significantly improves live birth rates** compared to aspirin alone.
*Aspirin, Low molecular weight Heparin, and Prednisolone*
- **Corticosteroids (prednisolone)** are **not recommended** as routine treatment for recurrent pregnancy loss in APS patients due to potential maternal complications (gestational diabetes, hypertension, infection) and fetal risks.
- Corticosteroids might be considered only in specific cases with coexisting autoimmune conditions (e.g., SLE), but they are **not first-line therapy** for APS-related pregnancy loss.
*No treatment required*
- **Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)** is a significant cause of recurrent pregnancy loss due to placental thrombosis and impaired placental function.
- **Untreated APS** carries a **high risk** (>70%) of pregnancy loss, along with increased risks of fetal growth restriction, preeclampsia, and preterm delivery, making treatment **essential** for a successful pregnancy outcome.
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