Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Spinal Trauma. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 1: Hypotension in acute spinal injury is due to:
- A. Loss of sympathetic tone (Correct Answer)
- B. Loss of parasympathetic tone
- C. Orthostatic hypotension
- D. Vasovagal attack
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Loss of sympathetic tone***
- **Acute spinal cord injury** above T6 can interrupt the sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system.
- This leads to unopposed **parasympathetic activity**, causing **vasodilation**, **bradycardia**, and resultant **hypotension**.
*Loss of parasympathetic tone*
- Loss of parasympathetic tone would typically result in **tachycardia** and potentially **hypertension**, as sympathetic activity would be unopposed.
- This is not the primary mechanism for hypotension observed in acute spinal injury.
*Orthostatic hypotension*
- While patients with spinal cord injury can experience orthostatic hypotension, the initial acute hypotension is due to the fundamental physiological disruption of **autonomic control**.
- **Orthostatic hypotension** specifically refers to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, which is a symptom that can persist, but not the direct cause of acute neurogenic shock.
*Vasovagal attack*
- A **vasovagal attack** is typically triggered by emotional stress or pain, leading to temporary reflex-mediated bradycardia and vasodilation.
- It is not the underlying cause of sustained hypotension in the setting of acute spinal cord injury.
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 2: A 40-year-old male sustains spinal injury after an accident. His lower limb power is greater than that of upper limb and sacral sensations are present. Type of spinal cord lesion is:
- A. Complete spinal cord injury.
- B. Central cord syndrome (Correct Answer)
- C. Posterior cord syndrome
- D. Anterior cord syndrome
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Central cord syndrome***
- This syndrome is characterized by **greater motor weakness** in the **upper extremities** than in the lower extremities, along with varying degrees of sensory loss. **Sacral sparing** (preserved perineal sensation and voluntary anal contraction) is also a classic feature.
- It often results from **hyperextension injuries** of the cervical spine, leading to damage predominantly in the central gray matter and surrounding white matter.
*Complete spinal cord injury*
- This involves a total loss of **motor and sensory function** below the level of the injury, including the sacral segments.
- The presence of **sacral sensations** in the patient rules out a complete spinal cord injury.
*Posterior cord syndrome*
- This syndrome affects the **dorsal columns**, resulting in a loss of **proprioception**, **vibration sense**, and **fine touch** below the level of injury.
- Motor function and pain/temperature sensation are typically preserved, which does not match the described motor weakness.
*Anterior cord syndrome*
- This involves damage to the **anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord**, leading to a loss of **motor function** (corticospinal tracts) and **pain and temperature sensation** (spinothalamic tracts) below the injury.
- However, **proprioception** and **vibration sense** (dorsal columns) are typically preserved, and sacral sparing of sensation is not a characteristic feature, nor is greater lower limb power. [1]
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 3: The clinical manifestations of cauda equina lesion include the following EXCEPT:
- A. Saddle anesthesia
- B. Radicular pain
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Extensor plantar reflexes (Correct Answer)
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Extensor plantar reflexes***
- Extensor plantar reflexes (Babinski sign) are indicative of an **upper motor neuron lesion**, typically affecting the **corticospinal tract**, not the cauda equina [4].
- The cauda equina comprises **lower motor neurons**; therefore, a lesion here would more likely result in absent or diminished deep tendon reflexes, and a flexor plantar response or no response [4].
*Saddle anesthesia*
- This is a classic symptom of cauda equina syndrome, involving numbness or sensory loss in the **perineal and gluteal regions** due to compression of sacral nerve roots.
- It results from damage to the **sensory fibers** of the cauda equina innervating these areas [1].
*Radicular pain*
- Cauda equina syndrome often causes severe **low back pain** radiating down the legs, similar to sciatica, due to compression or irritation of the **nerve roots** [1].
- This pain can be bilateral and is a significant symptom, reflecting the involvement of multiple nerve roots [3].
*Urinary retention*
- **Bladder dysfunction**, particularly urinary retention, is a critical red flag for cauda equina syndrome, caused by damage to the **sacral nerve roots** responsible for bladder control [2], [3].
- It signifies significant neurological compromise affecting **autonomic function** [2].
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 4: Burst fracture of spine is a type of:
- A. Extension injury
- B. Rotation injury
- C. Flexion injury
- D. Compression injury (Correct Answer)
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Compression injury***
- A **burst fracture** occurs due to a high-energy axial load or significant compression force impacting the spine.
- This force causes the vertebral body to **shatter or "burst"** outwards, often into the spinal canal.
*Extension injury*
- **Extension injuries** typically result from hyperextension of the spine, such as in whiplash.
- This mechanism often leads to **posterior element fractures** or disc injuries, not the bursting of the vertebral body.
*Rotation injury*
- **Rotational injuries** involve twisting forces on the spine, which generally result in **facet joint dislocations** or **fracture-dislocations**.
- While they can cause instability, they do not primarily manifest as the compressive shattering seen in a burst fracture.
*Flexion injury*
- **Flexion injuries** are caused by forward bending forces, leading to **wedge fractures** or **flexion-distraction injuries**.
- These typically spare the posterior vertebral wall from bursting into the spinal canal, unlike burst fractures.
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 5: A moving vehicle hits a pedestrian on his lateral aspect of the knee and causes a fracture. The fracture line is passing through the intercondylar eminence. Which of the following structures will most likely be injured
- A. Medial collateral ligament
- B. Medial meniscus
- C. Anterior cruciate ligament (Correct Answer)
- D. Lateral collateral ligament
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Anterior cruciate ligament***
- A fracture of the **intercondylar eminence** typically involves the avulsion of the **tibial attachment** of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).
- The ACL's fibers attach to the **tibial intercondylar area**, making it highly susceptible to injury with a fracture in this region.
*Medial collateral ligament*
- The **medial collateral ligament** (MCL) originates from the medial femoral epicondyle and attaches to the medial tibia, primarily resisting valgus forces.
- While knee trauma can affect the MCL, a fracture of the intercondylar eminence specifically points to an injury involving a structure attached to that area.
*Medial meniscus*
- The **medial meniscus** is a C-shaped cartilage in the knee joint and can be injured by rotational forces or compression.
- Its injury is not directly linked to an intercondylar eminence fracture, although severe trauma can injure multiple structures.
*Lateral collateral ligament*
- The **lateral collateral ligament** (LCL) originates from the lateral femoral epicondyle and attaches to the fibular head, resisting varus forces.
- An injury to the LCL is less likely with an intercondylar eminence fracture, as the LCL does not attach to this specific tibial region.
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 6: All of the following are indications for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of fractures EXCEPT:
- A. Multiple trauma
- B. Stable closed fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Compound fracture
- D. Intra-articular fracture
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Stable closed fracture***
- A **stable closed fracture** typically does not require surgical intervention with ORIF as it can usually be managed non-surgically with casting or bracing.
- The goal of ORIF is to achieve **anatomic reduction and rigid fixation**, which is not necessary for stable fractures that maintain alignment.
*Multiple trauma*
- In patients with **multiple trauma**, early stabilization of long bone fractures using ORIF can help reduce pain, prevent further injury, and facilitate patient mobilization.
- This approach aims to reduce the risk of complications such as **ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)** and fat embolism for critically ill patients.
*Compound fracture*
- **Compound (open) fractures** involve a break in the skin, exposing the bone to the external environment, and are a classic indication for surgical management.
- ORIF in these cases helps to achieve **stabilization** after debridement, crucial for preventing infection and promoting bone healing.
*Intra-articular fracture*
- **Intra-articular fractures** involve the joint surface, and accurate anatomical reduction is critical to prevent post-traumatic arthritis and preserve joint function.
- ORIF provides the precise reduction and stable fixation needed to restore the **joint congruity**.
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 7: A patient fell off a bicycle and now complains of pain around the hip, with shortening of the affected limb. The hip is held in a position of flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Intertrochanteric fracture (IT fracture)
- B. Transcervical fracture
- C. Posterior dislocation (Correct Answer)
- D. Anterior dislocation
Spinal Trauma Explanation: **Posterior dislocation**
- **Posterior hip dislocations** typically occur after high-energy trauma (e.g., falls from height, motor vehicle accidents) and present with the affected limb in a classic position of **flexion, adduction, and internal rotation**.
- **Shortening of the limb** is also a hallmark sign, often due to the femoral head displacing posteriorly and superiorly.
*Intertrochanteric fracture (IT fracture)*
- **Intertrochanteric fractures** usually present with the affected limb in **external rotation** and shortening, which is contrary to the internal rotation described in the case.
- While pain is present, the specific rotational deformity helps differentiate it from a hip dislocation.
*Transcervical fracture*
- **Transcervical fractures** (femoral neck fractures) also typically present with the leg in **external rotation** and shortening.
- These fractures are common in older adults and often associated with less severe trauma or falls.
*Anterior dislocation*
- **Anterior hip dislocations** are less common and typically present with the affected limb in a position of **flexion, abduction, and external rotation**.
- This presentation is directly opposite to the adduction and internal rotation described in the question.
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 8: Pilon fracture is
- A. Bimalleolar fracture
- B. Trimalleolar fracture
- C. Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture (Correct Answer)
- D. Proximal tibia fracture
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture***
- A **pilon fracture** specifically refers to an **intra-articular fracture of the distal tibia**, involving the weight-bearing surface of the **ankle joint**.
- These fractures typically result from high-energy axial loading mechanisms, driving the talus into the plafond and causing extensive articular damage.
*Bimalleolar fracture*
- A **bimalleolar fracture** involves fractures of both the **medial malleolus** (distal tibia) and the **lateral malleolus** (distal fibula).
- While it involves the ankle, it does not necessarily involve the **tibial plafond** articular surface in the same destructive manner as a pilon fracture.
*Trimalleolar fracture*
- A **trimalleolar fracture** includes fractures of the medial, lateral, and **posterior malleolus** (a portion of the distal tibia).
- Like bimalleolar fractures, it primarily describes the involvement of the malleoli rather than the intra-articular surface load-bearing portion of the distal tibia.
*Proximal tibia fracture*
- This term refers to a fracture occurring in the **upper part of the tibia**, near the knee joint.
- It does not involve the **distal end of the tibia** or the ankle joint, which is characteristic of a pilon fracture.
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 9: A patient came with history of fall and on examination there was tenderness between the extensor pollicis longus and brevis. The likely lesion is
- A. 1st metacarpal fracture
- B. Scaphoid fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Trapezoid fracture
- D. Lower end of radius fracture
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Scaphoid fracture***
- Tenderness in the **anatomical snuffbox**, which is the area between the **extensor pollicis longus** and **extensor pollicis brevis** tendons, is a classic sign of a scaphoid fracture.
- A fall on an **outstretched hand** is a common mechanism of injury for scaphoid fractures.
*1st metacarpal fracture*
- This type of fracture would typically present with tenderness and swelling over the **base of the thumb** or the body of the first metacarpal bone, not specifically the anatomical snuffbox.
- While a fall can cause it, the precise location of tenderness points away from the first metacarpal.
*Trapezoid fracture*
- Fractures of the trapezoid bone are **rare** and often occur in conjunction with other carpal injuries.
- Tenderness would be located more proximally and centrally in the wrist, not primarily in the anatomical snuffbox.
*Lower end of radius fracture*
- This injury, often a **Colles' fracture**, presents with pain, swelling, and deformity (dinner fork deformity) near the **wrist joint**, proximal to the carpal bones.
- The tenderness would be more widespread and not confined to the anatomical snuffbox.
Spinal Trauma Indian Medical PG Question 10: Palpable femur head on per rectal exam is a feature of which of the following conditions?
- A. Inferior hip dislocation
- B. Central hip dislocation
- C. Posterior hip dislocation (Correct Answer)
- D. Anterior hip dislocation
Spinal Trauma Explanation: ***Posterior hip dislocation***
- In **posterior hip dislocation**, the femoral head is displaced posteriorly and superiorly, often lying in the **gluteal region**.
- A palpable femoral head on **per rectal exam** suggests the head has displaced medially enough to be felt through the rectal wall, which can occur in severe posterior dislocations where the head impinges on the pelvis.
*Inferior hip dislocation*
- In **inferior hip dislocation**, the femoral head displaces **inferiorly and anteriorly**, often lying below the acetabulum.
- The femoral head would typically be palpable in the **perineum** or groin, not via per rectal exam.
*Central hip dislocation*
- **Central hip dislocation** involves the femoral head pushing through the **acetabular floor** into the pelvis.
- This type of dislocation causes internal displacement, but the femoral head would not typically be palpable per rectally as it remains contained within the acetabular breach, rather it would be the **pelvic fracture** that would be palpable.
*Anterior hip dislocation*
- In **anterior hip dislocation**, the femoral head displaces **anteriorly**, often into the obturator foramen or pubic region.
- The femoral head would be palpable in the **groin** or anterior thigh, not through a per rectal exam.
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