Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 1: The contraindication to internal fixation -
- A. Fracture dislocation
- B. Intraarticular fracture
- C. Physeal injury
- D. Active infection (Correct Answer)
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***Active infection***
- **Active infection** is a strong contraindication to internal fixation because introducing foreign material (implants) into an infected area can spread the infection, make it chronic, and lead to implant failure, osteomyelitis, or sepsis.
- The presence of bacteria can colonize the implant surface, forming **biofilms** that are highly resistant to antibiotics and host immune responses, severely complicating treatment.
*Fracture dislocation*
- **Fracture dislocations** are often a strong *indication* for internal fixation to achieve anatomical reduction and stable fixation, allowing for early mobilization and preventing avascular necrosis or persistent instability.
- The goal is to restore joint congruity and maintain reduction, which is difficult to achieve and maintain with non-operative methods.
*Intraarticular fracture*
- **Intraarticular fractures** are frequently *managed with* internal fixation to restore articular surface congruity, minimize post-traumatic arthritis, and allow for early range of motion.
- Precise reduction and stable fixation are crucial to prevent long-term complications such as joint stiffness and osteoarthritis.
*Physeal injury*
- **Physeal injuries** (growth plate fractures) are often *treated with* surgical fixation, particularly unstable or displaced fractures, to ensure anatomical reduction and prevent growth disturbances.
- The fixation technique must be chosen carefully to avoid damaging the physis itself, often using smooth pins or screws that do not cross the growth plate.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 2: Fracture neck of femur in 80-year-old male sustained 1 week ago. The treatment of choice is -
- A. Hemiarthroplasty (Correct Answer)
- B. Closed reduction and fixation with three cancellous screws
- C. Longitudinal skin traction for 6 weeks
- D. Excision arthroplasty
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***Hemiarthroplasty***
- For an 80-year-old with a **fracture of the femoral neck**, especially if sustained a week ago, **hemiarthroplasty** is the preferred treatment to allow early mobilization and prevent complications of prolonged recumbency.
- This procedure replaces the **femoral head** and neck, minimizing the risk of **avascular necrosis** and **non-union** which are common complications in older patients with displaced femoral neck fractures.
*Excision arthroplasty*
- **Excision arthroplasty**, also known as **Girdlestone arthroplasty**, is a salvage procedure typically reserved for cases of severe infection, failed prosthetic implants, or when other options are not viable.
- It involves removing the femoral head, creating a **pseudarthrosis**, and results in a shortened, unstable limb, making it unsuitable as a primary treatment.
*Closed reduction and fixation with three cancellous screws*
- This option is generally considered for **younger patients** with undisplaced or minimally displaced **femoral neck fractures** due to better bone quality and lower risk of avascular necrosis.
- In an 80-year-old, the risks of **non-union** and **avascular necrosis** are significantly higher, and the prolonged weight-bearing restrictions associated with this method are detrimental.
*Longitudinal skin traction for 6 weeks*
- Prolonged **skin traction** is rarely used for femoral neck fractures, especially in the elderly, due to the high risk of complications such as **skin breakdown**, **deep vein thrombosis**, **pneumonia**, and **muscle atrophy**.
- It does not provide definitive fixation and is not a definitive treatment for a bony fracture.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 3: Earliest radiographic finding in rheumatoid arthritis
- A. Subluxation
- B. Erosions
- C. Periarticular osteopenia (Correct Answer)
- D. Joint space narrowing
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***Periarticular osteopenia***
- This is often the **earliest radiographic finding** in **rheumatoid arthritis**, reflecting bone demineralization around the inflamed joint.
- It results from the inflammatory processes and increased vascularity in the synovium, leading to enhanced **osteoclast activity**.
*Subluxation*
- This is a **late consequence** of extensive joint destruction and ligamentous laxity in rheumatoid arthritis.
- It indicates significant structural damage, which typically occurs **after** earlier signs like osteopenia and erosions.
*Erosions*
- While characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis, **bone erosions** are usually seen after periarticular osteopenia has developed.
- They represent focal areas of bone destruction due to the inflamed synovium invading and damaging the adjacent bone.
*Joint space narrowing*
- This finding occurs due to the gradual **destruction of articular cartilage** and is commonly seen in later stages.
- While a defining feature of chronic arthritis, it often appears **after** periarticular osteopenia and sometimes coincident with initial erosions.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 4: A child presents with painful limp and restricted hip rotation. ESR and CRP are elevated. Initial plain radiograph is normal. What is the next best imaging study?
- A. CT Scan
- B. MRI with contrast (Correct Answer)
- C. Bone Scan
- D. Plain Radiograph
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***MRI with contrast***
- An **MRI with contrast** is the most sensitive and specific imaging modality for detecting early changes in **osteomyelitis** or **septic arthritis**, which are serious conditions given the child's symptoms and elevated inflammatory markers.
- It can visualize soft tissue and bone marrow edema, joint effusions, and abscesses, guiding immediate treatment.
*CT Scan*
- While useful for bony detail, a CT scan is **less sensitive than MRI** for detecting early bone marrow changes or soft tissue inflammation in the hip joint.
- It also involves **radiation exposure**, which should be limited in children when other effective modalities are available.
*Bone Scan*
- A bone scan using **technetium-99m** is sensitive for detecting increased bone turnover, but it is **not specific for infection** and cannot differentiate between inflammatory processes, tumors, or fractures.
- It provides less anatomical detail compared to MRI, making precise localization of an infection more challenging.
*Plain Radiograph*
- Plain radiographs are typically the **initial imaging study** for orthopedic complaints but are often **normal in early stages** of septic arthritis or osteomyelitis.
- Significant radiographic changes, such as bone erosion or joint space widening, usually appear much later in the disease process.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 5: In a functional implant, bone loss seen annually after 1 year is:
- A. 1 to 1.5 mm
- B. Less than 0.1 mm (Correct Answer)
- C. 1 to 2 mm
- D. 1.5 to 2 mm
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***Less than 0.1 mm***
- In a functional implant, **crestal bone loss** after the first year of initial healing is expected to be minimal.
- This minimal bone loss indicates successful **osseointegration** and long-term stability of the implant.
*1 to 1.5 mm*
- This amount of annual bone loss is generally considered **excessive** and may indicate issues such as peri-implantitis or improper loading.
- Such bone loss could compromise the **long-term prognosis** and stability of the dental implant.
*1 to 2 mm*
- An annual bone loss in this range would be deemed **unacceptable** for a healthy, functional implant.
- This level of bone loss suggests significant **peri-implant inflammation** or biomechanical overload, requiring intervention.
*1.5 to 2 mm*
- This degree of bone loss is a clear sign of significant **implant pathology** and would likely lead to implant failure if not addressed.
- It is far beyond the clinically acceptable limits for bone remodeling around a **stable implant**.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 6: A 70-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis of the hip presents with worsening pain and limited mobility despite conservative management. What is the next appropriate step?
- A. NSAIDs
- B. Physical therapy
- C. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections
- D. Total hip replacement (Correct Answer)
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***Total hip replacement***
- For **severe osteoarthritis (OA)** causing significant pain and **functional impairment** despite failed conservative management, **total hip replacement** is the most definitive and effective treatment.
- This procedure alleviates pain and restores **mobility**, dramatically improving the patient's quality of life.
*NSAIDs*
- **NSAIDs** are typically part of **initial conservative management** for symptomatic relief in mild to moderate OA, but they have already failed in this patient.
- Continued use in elderly patients carries risks of **gastrointestinal, renal, and cardiovascular side effects**, making it a less desirable long-term solution.
*Physical therapy*
- **Physical therapy** is a crucial component of conservative management to improve **strength, flexibility, and function**, but it often becomes insufficient in advanced OA.
- Since this patient has worsening symptoms despite conservative measures, physical therapy alone is unlikely to provide adequate relief.
*Intra-articular corticosteroid injections*
- **Corticosteroid injections** can provide temporary pain relief by reducing inflammation but do not address the underlying **structural damage** of severe OA.
- Their effectiveness diminishes over time, and repeated injections are discouraged due to potential cartilage damage.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 7: A 45-year-old was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Primary Osteoarthritis
- C. Aluminum toxicity
- D. Avascular necrosis (Correct Answer)
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***Avascular necrosis***
- Chronic **steroid use**, especially after organ transplantation, is a major risk factor for avascular necrosis (AVN) due to impaired blood supply to bone, particularly in the femoral head.
- **Hip pain** and **difficulty walking** are classic symptoms of AVN, which can lead to collapse of the femoral head if untreated.
*Tuberculosis*
- While tuberculosis can affect bones and joints (**Pott's disease**), it typically presents with more systemic symptoms like fever, weight loss, and night sweats, which are not mentioned.
- Skeletal TB often affects the spine more commonly and usually presents with granulomatous inflammation and bone destruction rather than isolated joint pain in the hips
*Primary Osteoarthritis*
- Primary osteoarthritis is typically an **age-related degenerative joint disease** occurring in older individuals, and while it causes hip pain, it is not directly linked to steroid use in a 45-year-old.
- The onset of pain in this scenario, following long-term steroid use, strongly points away from primary osteoarthritis as the primary driving factor.
*Aluminum toxicity*
- Aluminum toxicity can occur in patients with **renal failure** and can cause **osteomalacia** or **dialysis encephalopathy**.
- Its presentation typically involves bone pain, fractures, and neurological symptoms, but it does not specifically cause avascular necrosis of the femoral head as seen with steroid use.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 8: What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?
- A. Clear and straw-colored fluid
- B. Low viscosity fluid
- C. Cloudy or purulent fluid
- D. Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes (Correct Answer)
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes***
- **Septic arthritis** is characterized by an acute infection within the joint, leading to a profound inflammatory response with a significant influx of **neutrophils** (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) into the synovial fluid.
- A synovial leukocyte count greater than **50,000 cells/mm³** with over **75% neutrophils** is highly suggestive of septic arthritis.
*Clear and straw-colored fluid*
- This description typically corresponds to **normal synovial fluid** or fluid from a mild **non-inflammatory condition**, which is not consistent with bacterial infection.
- Normal synovial fluid is usually **transparent**, indicating the absence of significant cellular debris or inflammatory cells.
*Low viscosity fluid*
- While septic synovial fluid can have reduced viscosity due to the breakdown of **hyaluronic acid** by bacterial enzymes and inflammatory mediators, this characteristic alone is not the most definitive diagnostic feature.
- Reduced viscosity is also observed in other inflammatory conditions, making it less specific than direct cellular analysis for diagnosing infection.
*Cloudy or purulent fluid*
- The presence of **cloudy** or **purulent (pus-like)** fluid *is* often seen in septic arthritis, reflecting the high cell count and protein content.
- However, this is a **gross visual observation**, and a more precise and diagnostic indicator is the microscopic finding of markedly increased **polymorphonuclear leukocytes**.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 9: False about fracture of vertebrae
- A. Fracture dislocation is common in flexion rotation injury
- B. Chance fracture occurs due to flexion distraction injury
- C. Wedge compression causes flexion injury
- D. Anterior longitudinal ligament runs along the posterior surface of vertebral bodies (Correct Answer)
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: ***Anterior longitudinal ligament runs along the posterior surface of vertebral bodies***
- The **anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL)** runs along the **anterior aspect** of the vertebral bodies, preventing hyperextension.
- The **posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL)** runs along the posterior surface of the vertebral bodies, within the vertebral canal.
*Fracture dislocation is common in flexion rotation injury*
- **Flexion-rotation injuries** are highly unstable and frequently lead to **fracture-dislocations** of the vertebral column.
- The combined forces cause significant disruption of both bony and ligamentous structures, increasing the likelihood of displacement.
*Chance fracture occurs due to flexion distraction injury*
- A **Chance fracture** (or seatbelt fracture) is caused by a **flexion-distraction injury**, typically seen in individuals wearing lap belts during deceleration.
- This mechanism results in a horizontal splitting of the vertebral body and posterior elements.
*Wedge compression causes flexion injury*
- A **wedge compression fracture** is the most common type of vertebral fracture and results from a **flexion injury** (hyperflexion).
- The anterior portion of the vertebral body collapses, creating a wedge shape, while the posterior column remains intact.
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Indian Medical PG Question 10: Which of the following is considered a fenestrated hip prosthesis?
- A. Bipolar prosthesis
- B. Austin Moore prosthesis (Correct Answer)
- C. Thompson prosthesis
- D. All of the above
Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance Explanation: **Explanation:**
The correct answer is **Austin Moore prosthesis**.
In orthopaedic surgery, a **fenestrated prosthesis** refers to an implant with "windows" or openings in its stem. These holes allow for bone to grow through the prosthesis (biological fixation), providing long-term stability.
**1. Why Austin Moore is correct:**
The Austin Moore prosthesis is a unipolar hemiarthroplasty implant used for femoral neck fractures. Its defining feature is a **fenestrated stem**. During surgery, bone chips are often packed into these fenestrations; over time, bone grows through these holes (osseointegration), anchoring the prosthesis to the femoral shaft without the need for bone cement.
**2. Why the other options are incorrect:**
* **Thompson prosthesis:** This is also a unipolar prosthesis, but it has a **solid (non-fenestrated) stem**. It is designed to be used with bone cement (Polymethylmethacrylate - PMMA) for fixation.
* **Bipolar prosthesis:** This refers to an implant with two points of articulation (one at the acetabulum and one within the prosthetic head). While the stem design can vary, the term "bipolar" describes the head mechanism, not the presence of fenestrations.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Fixation:** Austin Moore = **Uncemented** (Press-fit/Biological); Thompson = **Cemented**.
* **Indications:** Austin Moore is preferred in patients with good bone quality; Thompson is preferred in osteoporotic patients where cement provides immediate stability.
* **Calcar:** The Austin Moore prosthesis has a collar that rests on the calcar femorale to prevent subsidence.
* **Complication:** A common complication of unipolar prostheses (Moore/Thompson) is **acetabular erosion** (protrusio acetabuli) because the metal head rubs directly against the native cartilage.
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