Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 1: A GSP4 woman comes for routine sonography for the first time. She has four daughters and expresses a desire for a boy this time, asking for sex determination. To abide by ethical guidelines, what should you do?
- A. Check routine ANC and sex for developmental abnormalities and do not reveal gender to the patient (Correct Answer)
- B. Check routine ANC and sex for developmental abnormalities and do reveal gender to the patient
- C. Do reveal gender if a girl
- D. Check only routine ANC, do not check sex
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***Check routine ANC and sex for developmental abnormalities and do not reveal gender to the patient***
- It is **illegal** and **unethical** to reveal the sex of the fetus in many countries, including India, to prevent **sex-selective abortions**.
- The primary purpose of a routine antenatal ultrasound is to assess fetal **health** and **developmental abnormalities**, not to determine sex for parental preference.
*Check routine ANC and sex for developmental abnormalities and do reveal gender to the patient*
- Revealing the gender to the patient directly facilitates **sex-selective abortion**, which is medically unethical and illegal due to the potential for harm to the fetus and society.
- This practice would violate the **Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act** in India, which prohibits gender determination.
*Do reveal gender if a girl*
- Revealing the gender, regardless of whether it is a boy or a girl, can lead to **gender-biased selective abortions**, particularly in cultures with a strong preference for male offspring.
- This action undermines the ethical principles of **non-maleficence** and **justice** by potentially facilitating harm based on gender preference.
*Check only routine ANC, do not check sex*
- While the primary focus is routine antenatal care, avoiding the assessment of fetal sex entirely could lead to **missing potential developmental abnormalities** that might be identifiable through observation of external genitalia.
- A thorough ultrasound examination routinely includes a visual check of fetal anatomy, which can incidentally reveal gender, but this information should not be shared with the parents for selection purposes.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 2: What are the established thresholds for permanent sterility in women for prepubertal and premenopausal exposure to radiation?
- A. 20 Gy and 6 Gy, respectively (Correct Answer)
- B. 6 Gy and 2 Gy, respectively
- C. 0.5 to 2 Gy and 20 Gy, respectively
- D. 1 Gy and 0.2 Gy, respectively
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***20 Gy and 6 Gy, respectively***
- The threshold for **permanent sterility** in prepubertal girls is approximately **20 Gy** or higher due to their larger follicular reserve and greater radioresistance of immature ovaries.
- The threshold for **permanent sterility** in premenopausal women is significantly lower, around **6 Gy** (range 6-12 Gy, age-dependent), as their ovaries have fewer follicles and are more radiosensitive.
- These thresholds represent single-dose or fractionated-equivalent exposures that result in complete and irreversible loss of ovarian function.
*12 Gy and 2 Gy, respectively*
- **12 Gy** is below the threshold for permanent sterility in prepubertal girls; it may cause temporary ovarian damage but usually not permanent sterility.
- **2 Gy** typically causes temporary amenorrhea in premenopausal women but not permanent sterility; permanent damage requires higher doses (≥6 Gy).
*0.5 to 2 Gy and 20 Gy, respectively*
- The **0.5-2 Gy** range is far too low to cause permanent sterility in prepubertal girls; this range may cause temporary effects in adults.
- While **20 Gy** is an appropriate threshold, it is incorrectly assigned to the premenopausal group rather than the prepubertal group; premenopausal women develop permanent sterility at much lower doses (6-12 Gy).
*6 Gy and 2 Gy, respectively*
- **6 Gy** is the lower threshold for premenopausal women, not prepubertal girls; prepubertal ovaries can tolerate much higher doses (≥20 Gy) before permanent sterility occurs.
- **2 Gy** is insufficient to cause permanent sterility in premenopausal women; this dose typically causes only temporary amenorrhea.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 3: Which of the following can be considered as grounds of divorce under matrimonial law?
- A. Sterility
- B. Frigidity
- C. Impotence developing after the marriage (Correct Answer)
- D. Temporary Mental illness
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***Impotence developing after the marriage***
- **Impotence** (inability to consummate the marriage) can constitute a ground for **nullity** if it existed **at the time of marriage** and was not disclosed.
- However, **impotence developing after marriage** may be considered under certain legal frameworks as inability to fulfill marital obligations, though its status varies by jurisdiction.
- In the context of medical jurisprudence, **sexual incapacity** affecting the continuation of marriage is recognized as a potential ground in matrimonial disputes.
- This is the **most appropriate answer** among the given options as it relates to inability to fulfill a fundamental aspect of marriage.
*Sterility*
- **Sterility** (inability to conceive children) is generally **not considered a ground for divorce** under most matrimonial laws.
- It does not prevent consummation of marriage or fulfillment of other marital duties.
- While it may cause personal distress, legal systems distinguish between inability to conceive and inability to engage in sexual relations.
*Frigidity*
- **Frigidity** (lack of sexual desire or responsiveness) is typically **not a sufficient ground for divorce** on its own.
- If the spouse is physically capable of consummating the marriage, lack of desire alone does not constitute legal grounds.
- It may overlap with other marital issues but has weaker legal standing compared to actual physical incapacity.
*Temporary Mental illness*
- **Temporary mental illness** is generally **not a ground for divorce** because it implies a recoverable condition.
- For mental disorder to constitute grounds for divorce under Indian matrimonial law (Hindu Marriage Act Section 13), it must be:
- **Incurable** or of such nature that cohabitation becomes unreasonable
- **Continuous or intermittent** mental disorder of sufficient severity
- A **temporary** condition that can be cured does not meet these criteria.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 4: The MTP Act was introduced in:
- A. 1961
- B. 1971 (Correct Answer)
- C. 1975
- D. 1974
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***1971***
- The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act** was enacted in **1971** in India.
- This legislation was a significant step towards legalizing and regulating abortion services in the country under specific conditions.
- The Act came into force on **April 1, 1972**.
*1961*
- This year is not associated with the introduction of the MTP Act.
- Other significant legislative changes may have occurred, but not related to medical termination of pregnancy.
*1975*
- The year **1975** is incorrect as the MTP Act was already in effect from 1971.
- This year marked a different period in India's legal and social history.
*1974*
- The year **1974** is also incorrect; the MTP Act was passed and came into force before this date.
- No major amendments to the MTP Act were introduced in 1974.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 5: Which of the following is NOT used as an emergency contraceptive?
- A. RU 486
- B. Danazol (Correct Answer)
- C. Copper T
- D. OCpill
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***Danazol***
- **Danazol** is an **androgen derivative** primarily used to treat **endometriosis** and **fibrocystic breast disease**, not for emergency contraception.
- Its mechanism involves suppressing **ovarian function** and creating an anovulatory state, which is not suitable for immediate post-coital intervention.
*RU 486*
- **RU 486 (Mifepristone)** is a **progesterone receptor modulator** that can be used as an emergency contraceptive, especially at higher doses.
- It acts by **blocking progesterone receptors**, preventing implantation or inducing abortion if pregnancy has already occurred.
*Copper T*
- The **Copper T (intrauterine device - IUD)** is a highly effective method of emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse.
- It works by causing a **spermicidal effect** and preventing fertilization or implantation by inducing an inflammatory reaction in the uterus.
*OCpill*
- **OCPills (oral contraceptive pills)**, usually a combination of estrogen and progestin, can be used as emergency contraception when taken in higher doses.
- This method, known as the **Yuzpe regimen**, involves taking two doses of combined oral contraceptives within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to inhibit ovulation or fertilization.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 6: A 14-year-old victim of sexual assault with 22 weeks gestation has been brought for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP). Which of the following statements is true?
- A. One doctor is involved
- B. MTP done in 2nd trimester only when mother's life is in danger
- C. MTP can be carried out up to 24 weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. MTP cannot be more than 20 weeks
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***MTP can be carried out up to 24 weeks***
- The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021**, allows termination of pregnancy up to **24 weeks** for certain vulnerable groups, including survivors of sexual assault and minors.
- As a 14-year-old victim of sexual assault, she falls under the category which permits MTP up to 24 weeks.
*One doctor is involved*
- For pregnancies between 12 and 20 weeks, the opinion of **two registered medical practitioners** is required for MTP.
- Beyond 20 weeks up to 24 weeks, as in this case, the opinion of **two registered medical practitioners** is also mandatory.
*MTP done in 2nd trimester only when mother's life is in danger*
- While danger to the mother's life is a valid reason for MTP, the **MTP Act 2021** has expanded the grounds for MTP in the second trimester (beyond 12 weeks) to include other categories like **sexual assault survivors** and **minors**, even if the mother's life is not immediately in danger.
- The primary consideration here is the **vulnerability** of the pregnant person, not solely imminent danger to life.
*MTP cannot be more than 20 weeks*
- This statement is incorrect as per the **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021**.
- The Act raised the upper gestation limit from 20 to **24 weeks** for specific categories of women, including victims of sexual assault and minors, aligning with the current case.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 7: The mechanism of action of emergency contraception includes the following except:
- A. Degeneration of corpus luteum (Correct Answer)
- B. Prevention of implantation of fertilized egg.
- C. Inhibition of fertilization
- D. By preventing or delaying ovulation
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***Degeneration of corpus luteum***
- Emergency contraception primarily works by interfering with ovulation and fertilization. It does **not directly cause degeneration of the corpus luteum**.
- The **corpus luteum** forms after ovulation, and its degradation is a natural process (luteolysis) if pregnancy does not occur. Emergency contraception acts earlier in the reproductive process and does not target the corpus luteum.
- This is the **correct answer** as it is NOT a mechanism of emergency contraception.
*By preventing or delaying ovulation*
- This is the **primary mechanism** of action for most forms of emergency contraception, particularly those containing **levonorgestrel (LNG)** and **ulipristal acetate (UPA)**.
- By delaying the release of an egg from the ovary, it prevents the possibility of fertilization.
- This is the most established and clinically significant mechanism.
*Inhibition of fertilization*
- Emergency contraception may affect fertilization by altering **cervical mucus** thickness, making it less penetrable to sperm.
- Some evidence suggests effects on **sperm motility** or function, though this mechanism is less well-established than ovulation inhibition.
- This represents a possible secondary mechanism.
*Prevention of implantation of fertilized egg*
- **Current evidence does NOT support this as a mechanism** for levonorgestrel or ulipristal acetate emergency contraception.
- Studies by **WHO, ACOG, FIGO, and ICMR** have shown that LNG-EC is ineffective once fertilization has occurred.
- The **copper IUD** used for emergency contraception may have some anti-implantation effects due to its inflammatory action on the endometrium.
- However, for hormonal EC (the most common form), prevention of implantation is **not an established mechanism** based on current medical evidence.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 8: The contraceptive choice for a 38 year old woman with chronic hypertension and history of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia (malignancy ruled out) is:
- A. Copper intrauterine device
- B. Sterilization
- C. Combined oral contraceptive pills
- D. Levonorgestrel intrauterine device (Correct Answer)
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***Levonorgestrel intrauterine device***
- The **Levonorgestrel IUD** is an excellent choice as it provides effective contraception while also treating menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea due to its local progesterone release.
- It is safe for women with **hypertension** as it is a **non-estrogen-containing method**, avoiding the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen.
*Copper intrauterine device*
- While an effective non-hormonal contraceptive, the **copper IUD** can worsen **dysmenorrhea** and **menorrhagia**, which are existing concerns for the patient.
- It does not offer any therapeutic benefits for her heavy and painful periods.
*Sterilization*
- Although it provides permanent and highly effective contraception, **sterilization** does not address the patient's symptoms of **dysmenorrhea** and **menorrhagia**.
- It is an irreversible procedure and typically considered when no further childbearing is desired and symptomatic relief is not a primary concern for the contraceptive method itself.
*Combined oral contraceptive pills*
- **Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs)** are generally contraindicated or used with caution in women with uncontrolled **hypertension** due to the estrogen component, which can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including thrombosis.
- While COCs can improve dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia, the cardiovascular risks in a 38-year-old with chronic hypertension outweigh these benefits.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 9: What is the most distinctive functional characteristic of the barrier method shown?
- A. Can be retained in vagina for extended periods (Correct Answer)
- B. More effective than male condom
- C. Must be inserted immediately after coitus
- D. Consists of nonoxynol-9 impregnated latex
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ***Can be retained in vagina for extended periods***
- The image displays a **contraceptive sponge**, which can be inserted up to 24 hours before intercourse and provides continuous protection for that duration, allowing for multiple acts of coitus.
- It must be left in place for at least **6 hours after the last intercourse** but not for more than **30 hours in total**.
- This extended retention capability is a **distinctive feature** of the contraceptive sponge compared to other barrier methods.
*More effective than male condom*
- The **contraceptive sponge** has a **higher failure rate** (typical use: 12-24% for parous women, 9-12% for nulliparous women) compared to male condoms (typical use failure rate of 13%).
- Male condoms are generally **more effective** in preventing pregnancy and provide additional protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
*Must be inserted immediately after coitus*
- The contraceptive sponge is designed for **pre-coital insertion**, not post-coital use.
- It should be inserted **before intercourse** to be effective, as its mechanism relies on trapping sperm and releasing spermicide continuously.
- It remains effective for multiple acts of intercourse within the 24-hour insertion window.
*Consists of nonoxynol-9 impregnated polyurethane*
- While this statement is **technically accurate** (the contraceptive sponge is made of polyurethane foam impregnated with 1000mg of nonoxynol-9), it describes the **composition** rather than a functional characteristic.
- The most **clinically distinctive** feature of the sponge is its extended retention time, making Option A the **best answer** among the choices provided.
- This distinguishes the sponge from other barrier methods like diaphragms or cervical caps, which also use spermicide but have different insertion timing requirements.
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Indian Medical PG Question 10: After an initial pregnancy resulted in a spontaneous loss in the first trimester, your patient is concerned about the possibility of this recurring. What is the chance of recurrence?
- A. Depends on the genetic makeup of the prior abortus
- B. Is no different than it was prior to the miscarriage (Correct Answer)
- C. Is increased to approximately 50%
- D. Is increased most likely to greater than 50%
Ethical Aspects of Contraception and Sterilization Explanation: ### Explanation
**Correct Answer: B. Is no different than it was prior to the miscarriage**
**1. Why Option B is Correct:**
Spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) is a common event, occurring in approximately 10–15% of clinically recognized pregnancies. The vast majority (up to 50–70%) of isolated first-trimester losses are due to **sporadic chromosomal abnormalities** (e.g., autosomal trisomies), which are random events. Statistically, after a **single** spontaneous loss, the risk of a subsequent miscarriage remains approximately **15–20%**, which is essentially the same as the baseline risk for the general population. The risk only begins to rise significantly after two or more consecutive losses.
**2. Why Other Options are Wrong:**
* **Option A:** While the genetic makeup of the abortus explains *why* that specific pregnancy failed, it does not dictate the recurrence risk for the next pregnancy unless a parental balanced translocation is present (which is rare and not the default assumption after a single loss).
* **Options C & D:** These options overestimate the risk. A 50% recurrence risk is not reached even after three consecutive losses. After two losses, the risk rises to ~25–30%, and after three, it reaches ~33–45%.
**3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Most common cause of first-trimester abortion:** Fetal genetic factors (Chromosomal anomalies).
* **Most common specific chromosomal anomaly:** Autosomal Trisomy (Trisomy 16 is the most common specific trisomy).
* **Recurrent Pregnancy Loss (RPL):** Defined by the ASRM as **two or more** failed clinical pregnancies. Investigations for RPL are generally not indicated after a single isolated loss.
* **Prognosis:** Even after 3 losses, the most likely outcome for the next pregnancy is a live birth (approx. 60–70% success rate without intervention).
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