Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Cervical Lymphadenopathy. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 1: Anterior Mediastinal nodes are included in which level of lymph nodes?
- A. I
- B. V
- C. VI (Correct Answer)
- D. VII
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***VI***
- Level VI lymph nodes are the **prevascular and retrotracheal nodes** located in the **anterior mediastinum** [1].
- According to the **IASLC (International Association for the Study of Lung Cancer)** lymph node mapping system, Level 6 nodes are specifically classified as anterior mediastinal nodes [1].
- These include nodes anterior to the superior vena cava and ascending aorta, and nodes between the trachea and esophagus [1].
*I*
- Level I lymph nodes are located in the **low cervical, supraclavicular, and sternal notch** regions.
- These are **extra-thoracic nodes** and not part of the mediastinal compartments.
- They represent the highest mediastinal, supraclavicular, and sternal notch nodes [1].
*V*
- Level V lymph nodes are the **subaortic (aortopulmonary window)** nodes [1].
- These are located in the space between the **aorta and pulmonary artery**, lateral to the ligamentum arteriosum [1].
- While mediastinal, they are specifically in the aortopulmonary window, not classified as anterior mediastinal.
*VII*
- Level VII lymph nodes are the **subcarinal nodes** located below the carina in the **middle mediastinum** [1].
- These nodes are positioned in the space beneath where the trachea bifurcates into the main bronchi [1].
- They are classified as middle mediastinal nodes, not anterior mediastinal nodes.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 2: A 4-year-old child presented with fever for 6 days, generalized rash and cervical lymphadenopathy with strawberry tongue. What could be the diagnosis?
- A. Kimura disease
- B. Scarlet fever
- C. Kawasaki disease (Correct Answer)
- D. Rosai-Dorfman disease
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***Kawasaki disease***
* Kawasaki disease is a **vasculitis** affecting medium-sized arteries, predominantly in children.
* **Persistent fever** for more than 5 days, **generalized rash**, **cervical lymphadenopathy**, and **strawberry tongue** are key diagnostic criteria.
* The child's age (4 years) is also consistent with the typical presentation of Kawasaki disease.
*Kimura disease*
* Kimura disease is a **rare chronic inflammatory condition** primarily affecting the head and neck, characterized by subcutaneous nodules and enlarged lymph nodes.
* It typically presents with **painless subcutaneous masses**, often in young adults of Asian descent, and does not commonly include a generalized rash or strawberry tongue.
*Scarlet fever*
* Scarlet fever is caused by **Group A Streptococcus** and typically presents with a **fine, sandpaper-like rash**, **strawberry tongue**, and fever.
* While a strawberry tongue and rash are present, the rash of Kawasaki disease is more polymorphous, and cervical lymphadenopathy is often more pronounced and less generalized than in scarlet fever.
*Rosai Dorfman disease*
* Rosai-Dorfman disease, also known as **sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy**, is characterized by striking, often **painless and massive lymph node enlargement**, predominantly in the cervical region.
* Systemic symptoms like fever and rash can occur, but the classic presentation does not typically include a "strawberry tongue" or the specific constellation of symptoms seen in Kawasaki disease.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 3: Which of the following is not an AIDS defining illness?
- A. Cervical cancer
- B. Hodgkin's lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Primary CNS lymphoma
- D. Kaposi sarcoma
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***Hodgkin's lymphoma***
- While patients with HIV are at an increased risk of developing **Hodgkin's lymphoma**, it is not officially classified as an **AIDS-defining illness** by the CDC [3].
- AIDS-defining conditions primarily include certain opportunistic infections and specific malignancies [4].
*Cervical cancer*
- **Invasive cervical cancer** is an AIDS-defining illness in HIV-positive women, indicating severe immunosuppression [4].
- This is because HIV infection can accelerate or worsen the progression of **HPV-related cervical dysplasia** to invasive cancer [4].
*Primary CNS lymphoma*
- **Primary CNS lymphoma** (brain lymphoma) is an AIDS-defining illness, particularly when associated with **Epstein-Barr virus** [2].
- Its presence indicates a significant degree of **immunodeficiency** in HIV-infected individuals.
*Kaposi sarcoma*
- **Kaposi sarcoma** is a well-known and common AIDS-defining malignancy, caused by **Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)** [1].
- It presents as vascular lesions on the skin, mucous membranes, internal organs, and lymph nodes [1].
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 4: A mother brings her 5-year-old boy to see you as a General Physician. On examination, he has red eyes, dry, cracked lips and a rash on his hands and feet. He also has cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most important investigation to rule out a serious complication of this condition?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. ECG
- C. Echocardiography (Correct Answer)
- D. Blood tests for autoantibodies
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***Echocardiography***
- The constellation of symptoms (red eyes, cracked lips, rash on hands and feet, cervical lymphadenopathy in a 5-year-old) is highly suggestive of **Kawasaki disease**.
- **Coronary artery aneurysms** are the most serious complication of Kawasaki disease, making echocardiography crucial for early detection and management.
*Blood pressure*
- While important in any pediatric assessment, **blood pressure measurement** is not specific for diagnosing or monitoring the most critical complication of Kawasaki disease.
- Hypertensive or hypotensive episodes are not classic features and do not directly assess **coronary artery involvement**.
*ECG*
- An **ECG** can detect arrhythmias or signs of myocardial ischemia, which might occur with **coronary artery pathology**.
- However, it is less sensitive and specific than **echocardiography** for directly visualizing and quantifying **coronary artery aneurysms**.
*Blood tests for autoantibodies*
- Kawasaki disease is not an autoimmune condition primarily diagnosed by **autoantibodies**; it is a **vasculitis** of unknown etiology.
- Blood tests for autoantibodies would not be the most important investigation to rule out its most serious complication.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 5: A 35-year-old lady who presented with a 6-month painless fluctuant, non-transilluminant swelling with a thin watery discharge. Clinical diagnosis is?
- A. Brachial cyst
- B. Secondaries
- C. Lymphoma
- D. TB (Correct Answer)
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***TB***
- **Tuberculosis (TB)** lymphadenopathy often presents as a **painless, fluctuant, non-transilluminant cervical swelling** (scrofula) with possible **thin, watery discharge** from a sinus tract [1].
- The 6-month duration indicates a **chronic process**, consistent with the indolent nature of TB infection [1].
*Brachial cyst*
- A **branchial cleft cyst** typically presents as a **smooth, movable, and sometimes fluctuant neck mass**, but it is usually **transilluminant** unless infected.
- While it can discharge, the fluid is often mucoid, and the discharge is less commonly described as thin and watery; also it typically develops during childhood or early adulthood.
*Secondaries*
- **Metastatic lymph nodes (secondaries)** are generally **firm, non-fluctuant, and non-tender**, and do not typically discharge thin watery fluid unless there is necrosis or ulceration of the overlying skin.
- The absence of associated primary malignancy symptoms also makes this less likely.
*Lymphoma*
- **Lymphoma** presents as often **painless rubbery, firm, and non-fluctuant lymph node enlargement**, and discharge is not a typical feature unless there is skin involvement or ulceration in advanced stages.
- The described fluctuance and watery discharge are not characteristic of simple lymphoma.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 6: Most common presentation in nasopharyngeal carcinoma is with:
- A. Cervical lymphadenopathy (Correct Answer)
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Hoarseness of voice
- D. Nasal stuffiness
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***Cervical lymphadenopathy***
- **Cervical lymphadenopathy** is the most frequent initial symptom, with over 75% of patients presenting with a palpable neck mass, often a **painless, firm mass** in the upper deep cervical chain.
- This is due to the rich lymphatic drainage of the nasopharynx to the cervical lymph nodes, leading to early metastasis.
*Epistaxis*
- While **epistaxis** (nosebleeds) can occur in nasopharyngeal carcinoma, it is generally not the most common presenting symptom.
- It usually presents as recurrent, mild **epistaxis** or bloody discharge rather than severe bleeding.
*Hoarseness of voice*
- **Hoarseness of voice** is typically associated with laryngeal involvement or recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which is a less common and usually later manifestation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
- Primary nasopharyngeal tumors do not directly cause hoarseness unless they extend significantly or metastasize to structures affecting vocal cord function.
*Nasal stuffiness*
- **Nasal stuffiness** or obstruction can be a symptom due to tumor growth within the nasopharynx.
- However, it is a less specific symptom and often overshadowed by the more prominent presentation of cervical lymphadenopathy.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 7: What is the most appropriate initial investigation for a solitary thyroid nodule (STN)?
- A. I-123 scan
- B. Ultrasound (Correct Answer)
- C. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy
- D. Thyroid function tests (TFTs)
- E. CT scan of the neck
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***Ultrasound***
- **Ultrasound** is the initial investigation of choice for a solitary thyroid nodule (STN) because it can differentiate between **solid, cystic, or mixed lesions**, assess nodule size, and identify suspicious features (e.g., microcalcifications, irregular margins, internal vascularity).
- It also helps to determine if there are other nodules not palpable on physical examination, allowing for a more complete assessment of the **thyroid gland**.
*Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy*
- **FNA biopsy** is the most accurate diagnostic tool for evaluating the malignant potential of a thyroid nodule, but it is typically performed *after* an initial ultrasound has characterized the nodule.
- It requires guidance (often by ultrasound) to obtain an adequate sample for cytological analysis, making ultrasound a prerequisite for optimal FNA performance.
*Thyroid function tests (TFTs)*
- **TFTs (TSH, T3, T4)** are important for assessing the functional status of the thyroid gland (e.g., hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism) and can provide context for the nodule.
- However, TFTs do not directly evaluate the **morphology or malignant potential** of the nodule itself, making them less appropriate as an initial, stand-alone investigation for an STN.
*I-123 scan*
- An **I-123 scan** (radioactive iodine uptake and scan) is used to determine if a nodule is "hot" (hyperfunctioning/benign) or "cold" (non-functioning/potentially malignant).
- It is typically reserved for cases where **TSH levels are suppressed**, suggesting a hyperfunctioning nodule, and is not the first-line imaging modality for initial characterization of all STNs.
*CT scan of the neck*
- **CT scan** can visualize thyroid nodules and assess for extrathyroidal extension or lymphadenopathy, but it is **not recommended as an initial investigation** for STN.
- It involves **radiation exposure**, is more expensive than ultrasound, and provides **less detailed characterization** of nodule morphology compared to ultrasound, making it a less appropriate first-line modality.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 8: A middle aged male patient presents with painless slow growing neck swelling. On examination, lymph nodes are positive. Surgery is done and biopsy is shown in the image below. Which of the following is false regarding the HPE findings?
- A. Spread is through lymphatics
- B. Nuclear features are the characteristic of this tumor
- C. FNAC is not diagnostic (Correct Answer)
- D. It has excellent prognosis
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) is not diagnostic***
- FNAC can often provide significant insights, but in cases of **specific malignancies** or certain lesions, it may not yield definitive diagnoses [1].
- Diagnostic challenges arise as **cellular architecture** or certain **nuclear features** may not be appreciated in FNAC samples [1].
*It spreads quickly via lymphatics*
- This condition can indeed spread via lymphatics, making it **aggressive** in nature [1].
- **Lymphatic spread** is a common pathway for many head and neck conditions, particularly malignancies [1].
*Excellent prognosis is associated with this condition*
- While some conditions may have favorable prognoses, many midline neck lesions can have **serious implications** depending on their nature [1].
- Prognosis often varies widely and may not always be classified as **excellent** based solely on initial presentation [1].
*Nuclear characteristics are used for the identification*
- Nuclear morphology is critical for identifying various **neoplastic conditions**, aiding in differentiation from benign lesions [1][2].
- Many pathologies, especially those involving **malignancy**, rely heavily on **nuclear features** for accurate diagnosis [1][2].
**References:**
[1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1101-1102.
[2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1100-1101.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 9: Which cancer has maximum propensity to spread to cervical lymph nodes?
- A. Carcinoma of soft palate
- B. Carcinoma of hard palate
- C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Carcinoma of mandible
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***Nasopharyngeal carcinoma***
- This cancer is notorious for presenting with **cervical lymph node metastasis** in over 80% of patients, often as the first clinical sign, due to the rich lymphatic drainage of the nasopharynx.
- Its hidden location deep within the head makes early detection difficult, leading to diagnosis at a later stage when regional spread has already occurred.
*Carcinoma of soft palate*
- While it can metastasize to cervical nodes, especially levels II and III, its propensity is generally lower than nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
- The lymphatic drainage is more localized compared to the extensive network of the nasopharynx.
*Carcinoma of hard palate*
- This cancer has a relatively **low rate of regional nodal metastasis**, typically ranging from 10-20%.
- Lymphatic drainage is primarily to submandibular and jugulodigastric nodes, but less aggressively than other head and neck cancers.
*Carcinoma of mandible*
- Mandibular cancers, especially those involving the oral mucosa, can metastasize to cervical lymph nodes (e.g., submental, submandibular, jugulodigastric).
- However, the overall frequency and extent of cervical lymph node involvement are less pronounced compared to nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Indian Medical PG Question 10: Skin TB which involves skin after involving lymph nodes –
- A. Scrofuloderma (Correct Answer)
- B. Lupus erythematosus
- C. Lupus pernio
- D. Lupus vulgaris
Cervical Lymphadenopathy Explanation: ***Scrofuloderma***
- This form of **cutaneous tuberculosis** results from the direct extension of underlying **tuberculosis** affecting structures such as **lymph nodes**, bones, or joints to the overlying skin.
- The skin lesion often appears as an **ulcer** or **sinus tract** with **purulent discharge**, reflecting the underlying infection communicating with the surface.
*Lupus erythematosus*
- Lupus erythematosus is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect the skin, but it is not a form of **tuberculosis**.
- Skin manifestations range from acute malar rashes to chronic discoid lesions, which are distinct from **tuberculous ulcers**.
*Lupus pernio*
- This is a cutaneous manifestation of **sarcoidosis**, characterized by **violaceous plaques** and nodules typically on the face (nose, cheeks), ears, and fingers.
- It is not a form of **tuberculosis** and does not result from the direct extension of an underlying local infection.
*Lupus vulgaris*
- This is a chronic and progressive form of **cutaneous tuberculosis** that directly affects the skin in individuals with high immunity to the **tubercle bacillus**.
- It presents as **reddish-brown plaques** with an **apple-jelly** nodule appearance on diascopy, and does not typically arise from an underlying lymph node infection extending to the skin.
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