Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Leishmaniasis. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 1: In a patient presented with a fever and a positive filarial antigen test, what is the next appropriate method of management?
- A. Bone marrow biopsy
- B. DEC provocation test
- C. Detection of microfilariae in the blood smear (Correct Answer)
- D. Ultrasound of the scrotum
Leishmaniasis Explanation: ***Detection of microfilariae in the blood smear***
- A positive **filarial antigen test** indicates the presence of adult worms, and the next step is to confirm active infection by identifying **microfilariae**. [1]
- **Nocturnal blood samples** are crucial because microfilariae of *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* exhibit **nocturnal periodicity**, meaning they are most abundant in peripheral blood between 10 PM and 2 AM. [1]
*Bone marrow biopsy*
- This procedure is typically used to diagnose **hematological disorders**, such as leukemia or lymphoma, or investigate causes of unexplained fever, but it is not indicated for filariasis.
- While filariasis can rarely lead to **eosinophilia**, a bone marrow biopsy is not a diagnostic tool for filarial infection itself.
*DEC provocation test*
- The **diethylcarbamazine (DEC) provocation test** is used to bring out microfilariae into the peripheral blood during the daytime for species that exhibit nocturnal periodicity. [1]
- However, it carries a risk of severe adverse reactions due to rapid killing of microfilariae, especially in cases of heavy infection, and is generally avoided when antigen tests are positive. [1]
*Ultrasound of the scrotum*
- Scrotal ultrasound can detect the characteristic "filarial dance sign" (motile adult worms) in the **lymphatic vessels of the scrotum and epididymis**, confirming lymphatic filariasis. [2]
- While useful for assessing advanced disease manifestations like **hydrocele**, it does not quantify microfilaremia or replace the need for microscopic confirmation of circulating microfilariae to guide treatment.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 2: Kala azar is spread by –
- A. Black–fly
- B. Sand–fly (Correct Answer)
- C. Tsetse–fly
- D. House–fly
Leishmaniasis Explanation: ***Sand–fly***
- Kala-azar, also known as **visceral leishmaniasis**, is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female **Phlebotomine sandfly**.
- The sandfly acts as a **biological vector**, harboring the **Leishmania parasites** in its gut.
*Black–fly*
- **Black flies** are vectors for **onchocerciasis** (river blindness), caused by the parasite *Onchocerca volvulus*.
- They are typically found near **fast-flowing water** and their bites often lead to skin nodules and eye lesions.
*Tsetse–fly*
- The **tsetse fly** is the vector for **African trypanosomiasis** (sleeping sickness), caused by species of *Trypanosoma*.
- This disease primarily affects central nervous system function, leading to changes in sleep patterns.
*House–fly*
- **House flies** are primarily **mechanical vectors** for various pathogens, meaning they can transfer microbes from contaminated surfaces to food.
- They are not known to transmit specific diseases like Kala-azar through a bite.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 3: 26-year-old man from Bihar presents with erythematous papules on the face and back of the neck, which are hypopigmented and normoaesthetic, with no nerve thickening. A history of prolonged fever in childhood is present. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Tuberculoid leprosy
- B. Lepromatous leprosy
- C. Lupus vulgaris
- D. Dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) (Correct Answer)
Leishmaniasis Explanation: ***Dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL)***
- PKDL presents with **erythematous papules** on the face and neck, which are **hypopigmented and normoaesthetic** (intact sensation), fitting the patient's description perfectly.
- A history of **prolonged fever in childhood** in Bihar is highly suggestive of prior **visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)**, after which PKDL typically develops (months to years post-treatment).
- The **absence of nerve thickening** and **normal sensation** are key features distinguishing PKDL from leprosy.
- Bihar is an **endemic area** for visceral leishmaniasis in India.
*Tuberculoid leprosy*
- Characterized by **hypopigmented, anaesthetic patches** with **thickened nerves** - both features are absent in this case.
- The **normoaesthetic** nature of lesions here rules out tuberculoid leprosy.
- Lesions are typically **well-demarcated** and few in number.
*Lepromatous leprosy*
- Involves widespread, symmetrical lesions that are often **erythematous nodules** or **diffuse infiltrations**, with multiple nerve involvements.
- Would show **nerve thickening** and eventual sensory loss, which are not present here.
- The clinical picture does not match lepromatous leprosy.
*Lupus vulgaris*
- A form of **cutaneous tuberculosis** presenting as red-brown plaques with an **"apple-jelly" appearance** on diascopy.
- While it can occur on the face, there is no history of fever or connection to visceral leishmaniasis.
- The morphology (papules vs plaques) and epidemiological context favor PKDL.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 4: Hot spot in heart is seen in which scan
- A. Thallium
- B. Gallium
- C. Albumin labelled
- D. Tc pyrophosphate scan (Correct Answer)
Leishmaniasis Explanation: ***Tc pyrophosphate scan***
- A **technetium-99m pyrophosphate (Tc-PYP) scan** demonstrates a "hot spot" in the heart in cases of **acute myocardial infarction** due to the tracer binding to calcium deposits in necrotic cardiomyocytes.
- This hot spot indicates recent myocardial damage and is particularly useful in diagnosing **amyloidosis** (specifically transthyretin cardiac amyloidosis) where the tracer binds to amyloid fibrils.
*Thallium*
- **Thallium-201** is used in myocardial perfusion imaging to assess areas of reduced blood flow or infarction, creating a "cold spot" (decreased uptake).
- It acts as a potassium analog and is taken up by viable myocardial cells, thus areas of ischemia or necrosis appear as defects rather than hot spots.
*Gallium*
- **Gallium-67** scans are primarily used to detect infection and inflammation, as well as certain tumors.
- While it can accumulate in areas of inflammation in the heart (e.g., myocarditis), it does not create a characteristic "hot spot" associated with acute myocardial infarction.
*Albumin labelled*
- **Technetium-99m labeled albumin** (e.g., Technetium-99m macroaggregated albumin, MAA) is typically used for lung perfusion scans to diagnose pulmonary embolism or for gastrointestinal bleeding studies.
- It is not used for direct assessment of myocardial damage or to create a "hot spot" in the heart for ischemic events.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 5: A 42-year-old Bengali male presents with painless nodules over the face. The face is erythematous, and the surface of some of the large nodules is discolored. He gives a history of an insect bite in the past while he went to the jungle for work. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Chronic Fungal infections
- B. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Cutaneous tuberculosis
- D. Leprosy
Leishmaniasis Explanation: ***Cutaneous Leishmaniasis***
- The presentation of **painless erythematous nodules** on the face, especially in a person with a history of **insect bites** and exposure to a **jungle environment** (where sandflies, vectors of Leishmania, are common), strongly suggests cutaneous leishmaniasis.
- The discoloration of the surface of large nodules is also consistent with the typical appearance of **chronic cutaneous leishmaniasis lesions**.
*Chronic Fungal infections*
- While chronic fungal infections can cause skin nodules, they typically present with features like **scaling, itching, or satellite lesions**, which are not described here.
- The specific history of **insect bites** and geographical context points away from common fungal etiologies.
*Cutaneous tuberculosis*
- Cutaneous tuberculosis can manifest as nodules (**lupus vulgaris** or **scrofuloderma**), but these are often associated with other signs of tuberculosis, such as **pulmonary involvement** or **lymph nodal enlargement**, and typically have a slower progression.
- The history of **insect bite** is not a primary risk factor for cutaneous tuberculosis.
*Leprosy*
- Leprosy, particularly **lepromatous leprosy**, can cause extensive facial nodules, but these are often associated with **nerve involvement** leading to sensory loss, and the lesions tend to be diffusely infiltrative rather than discrete, discolored nodules.
- The rapid onset or history of a single insect bite is less characteristic of leprosy, which has a very **long incubation period**.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 6: The burrow in scabies is in
- A. S. corneum (Correct Answer)
- B. Malpighian layer
- C. S. germinatum
- D. S. granulosum
Leishmaniasis Explanation: ***S. corneum***
- The **burrow** created by the *Sarcoptes scabiei* mite is specifically found within the **stratum corneum** of the epidermis.
- This superficial location allows the mite to feed on **keratinocytes** and deposit eggs, leading to the characteristic rash and intense itching.
- The burrow appears as a **serpiginous tract** and is a pathognomonic finding in scabies.
*Malpighian layer*
- The **Malpighian layer** encompasses the **stratum basale** and **stratum spinosum**, which are deeper layers of the epidermis.
- The scabies mite does not burrow into these deeper, metabolically active layers.
*S. germinatum*
- **Stratum germinativum** is another term for the **stratum basale**, the deepest epidermal layer responsible for cell division.
- The scabies mite creates burrows at a much more superficial level in the stratum corneum.
*S. granulosum*
- The **stratum granulosum** lies between the stratum spinosum and stratum corneum.
- While closer to the surface than the Malpighian layer, scabies burrows are specifically located in the more superficial **stratum corneum**, not the granulosum layer.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 7: Adult scabies is characterized by which of the following?
- A. Involvement of palms and soles (Correct Answer)
- B. Involvement of the face
- C. Involvement of the anterior abdomen
- D. All of the above
Leishmaniasis Explanation: **Explanation:**
Scabies is a contagious skin infestation caused by the mite *Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis*. The distribution of lesions is the most critical diagnostic feature in NEET-PG questions.
**1. Why Option A is Correct:**
In **adult scabies**, the "Circle of Hebra" defines the classic distribution. This includes the interdigital spaces, wrists, elbows, axillae, periumbilical area, and genitalia. While traditionally taught that palms and soles are spared in adults compared to infants, modern clinical dermatology (and standard textbooks like IADVL) recognizes that **palms and soles** are frequently involved in adults, especially in cases of high mite burden or crusted scabies. Among the given options, it is the most characteristic site of involvement.
**2. Why Options B and C are Incorrect:**
* **Option B (Face):** The face and scalp are characteristically **spared** in adult scabies. This is because adults have a higher density of sebaceous glands; the sebum is thought to be inhibitory to the mites. Facial involvement is a hallmark of **infantile scabies** or **crusted (Norwegian) scabies**.
* **Option C (Anterior Abdomen):** While the periumbilical area is involved, "anterior abdomen" is too broad and less specific than the involvement of the palms/soles or the web spaces.
**Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Infantile Scabies:** Unlike adults, infants show involvement of the **face, scalp, palms, and soles** with common secondary vesicopustules.
* **Pathognomonic Sign:** The **Burrow** (a S-shaped track) is the clinical hallmark, most commonly found on the finger webs and wrists.
* **Nocturnal Pruritus:** Itching is worst at night due to a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mite, its eggs, and scybala (feces).
* **Treatment of Choice:** Topical **Permethrin (5%)** is the gold standard. Oral Ivermectin (200 µg/kg) is an alternative or adjunct for crusted scabies.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 8: An 8-month-old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms, and soles. The siblings also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the treatment of choice?
- A. Systemic ampicillin
- B. Topical permethrin (Correct Answer)
- C. Systemic prednisolone
- D. Topical betamethasone
Leishmaniasis Explanation: ### Explanation
**Diagnosis: Infantile Scabies**
The clinical presentation of itchy, exudative lesions involving the **palms and soles**, combined with a **positive family history** (siblings affected), is pathognomonic for Scabies. In infants, unlike adults, the lesions frequently involve the face, scalp, palms, and soles and often present as vesicles or pustules due to secondary eczematization.
**1. Why Topical Permethrin is Correct:**
* **Permethrin (5% cream)** is the **drug of choice** for scabies in infants older than 2 months.
* **Mechanism:** It acts by disrupting the sodium channel currents in the neurons of the *Sarcoptes scabiei* mite, leading to paralysis and death.
* **Application:** It should be applied from head to toe in infants (including the face and scalp, avoiding eyes/mouth) and washed off after 8–12 hours.
**2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:**
* **Systemic Ampicillin:** While lesions may appear "exudative" due to secondary bacterial infection (impetiginization), the primary pathology is parasitic. Antibiotics alone will not cure the underlying infestation.
* **Systemic Prednisolone & Topical Betamethasone:** These are corticosteroids. Using steroids in scabies is contraindicated as they mask the symptoms ("Scabies Incognito") and can worsen the infestation by suppressing the local immune response against the mites.
**3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:**
* **Drug of Choice in Pregnancy/Lactation:** Permethrin 5%.
* **Ivermectin:** Oral ivermectin (200 µg/kg) is an alternative but is generally **avoided in children weighing <15 kg** or pregnant women.
* **Nodular Scabies:** Characterized by reddish-brown itchy nodules in the axilla and genitalia; treated with intralesional steroids.
* **Crusted (Norwegian) Scabies:** Seen in immunocompromised patients; characterized by thousands of mites and minimal itching. Requires combination therapy (Oral Ivermectin + Topical Permethrin).
* **Key Management Rule:** Always treat all close contacts simultaneously, even if asymptomatic, to prevent re-infestation.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 9: Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by:
- A. A. braziliense (Correct Answer)
- B. Toxocara canis
- C. Strongyloides
- D. Necator americanus
Leishmaniasis Explanation: **Explanation:**
**Cutaneous Larva Migrans (CLM)**, also known as "creeping eruption," is a zoonotic infestation caused by the larvae of animal hookworms.
1. **Why A is correct:** The most common causative agent is **Ancylostoma braziliense** (the hookworm of cats and dogs). Humans are accidental "dead-end" hosts. When larvae from soil contaminated with animal feces penetrate human skin, they lack the enzymes necessary to penetrate the basement membrane and enter the circulation. Consequently, they remain confined to the epidermis, migrating aimlessly and creating the characteristic **serpiginous, erythematous, pruritic tracks**.
2. **Why the other options are incorrect:**
* **Toxocara canis:** Causes **Visceral Larva Migrans (VLM)** or Ocular Larva Migrans. The larvae migrate through internal organs rather than the skin.
* **Strongyloides stercoralis:** Causes **Larva Currens**. This is distinguished by its extreme speed of migration (up to 5–10 cm/hour) and typically starts near the perianal region.
* **Necator americanus:** This is a human hookworm. Unlike animal hookworms, it can penetrate the dermis and enter the bloodstream to complete its life cycle, causing systemic hookworm disease rather than localized CLM.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Most common site:** Feet (due to walking barefoot on beaches or moist soil).
* **Rate of migration:** 1–2 cm per day (much slower than Larva Currens).
* **Löffler’s Syndrome:** Can rarely occur if larvae reach the lungs (transient pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophilia).
* **Treatment of choice:** **Albendazole** (400 mg for 3–5 days) or a single dose of **Ivermectin** (200 μg/kg). Topical Thiabendazole is also an option.
Leishmaniasis Indian Medical PG Question 10: An infant presents with papulovesicular lesions on the palms, soles, face, and trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Scabies (Correct Answer)
- B. Atopic dermatitis
- C. Urticaria
- D. Seborrheic dermatitis
Leishmaniasis Explanation: ### Explanation
**Correct Answer: A. Scabies**
The clinical presentation of papulovesicular lesions involving the **palms, soles, and face** in an infant is classic for **Infantile Scabies**. While scabies in adults typically spares the head and neck (due to the distribution of sebaceous glands), infants are an exception. In this age group, the infestation is often generalized, frequently involving the face, scalp, palms, and soles. The lesions are often inflammatory, presenting as vesicles, pustules, or nodules rather than the classic burrows seen in adults.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
* **Atopic Dermatitis:** While common in infants, it typically presents as erythematous, itchy, scaly patches on the cheeks and extensor surfaces. It rarely involves the palms and soles.
* **Urticaria:** Presents as transient, evanescent wheals (hives) that migrate. It does not present as persistent papulovesicular lesions.
* **Seborrheic Dermatitis:** Characterized by "cradle cap" (greasy yellow scales) on the scalp and involvement of skin folds (intertriginous areas). It is generally non-pruritic and does not affect the palms and soles.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Pathogen:** *Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis*.
* **Hallmark Sign:** The **Burrow** (S-shaped track), most commonly found in finger webs and wrist creases.
* **Infantile Scabies Key Difference:** Involvement of the **face, scalp, palms, and soles** is a high-yield diagnostic pointer.
* **Treatment of Choice:** Topical **Permethrin (5%)** cream. For infants under 2 months, **Precipitated Sulfur (6-10%)** is often preferred due to safety profiles.
* **Nodular Scabies:** Persistent itchy nodules in the axilla or genitalia, representing a hypersensitivity reaction.
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