Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Ecthyma. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 1: What is the diagnosis of an umbilicated, pearly white, asymptomatic skin lesion?
- A. EBV
- B. HSV
- C. Molluscum contagiosum (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Ecthyma Explanation: ***Molluscum contagiosum***
- This **viral skin infection** typically presents with **multiple, small (2-5 mm), firm, pearly, dome-shaped papules** that have a **central umbilication**.
- The lesions are usually **asymptomatic**, as described, though they can occasionally be itchy or inflamed.
- Caused by a **poxvirus** and is highly contagious through direct contact.
*EBV*
- **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)** is primarily associated with **infectious mononucleosis**, which presents with fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy, not umbilicated skin lesions.
- EBV can cause oral hairy leukoplakia in immunocompromised individuals, which is a white lesion, but it is **not pearly, umbilicated, or dome-shaped**.
*HSV*
- **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** causes lesions that are typically **grouped vesicles on an erythematous base** that evolve into erosions or ulcers.
- HSV lesions are often **painful or itchy** and **do not appear as pearly, umbilicated papules**.
*None of the options*
- This is incorrect because **Molluscum contagiosum** perfectly matches the clinical description of umbilicated, pearly white, asymptomatic skin lesions.
- The classic **central umbilication** is the pathognomonic feature that distinguishes molluscum from other viral skin infections.
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 2: An 18-year-old man has facial and upper back lesions that have waxed and waned for the past 6 years. On physical examination, there are 0.3- to 0.9-cm comedones, erythematous papules, nodules, and pustules most numerous on the lower face and posterior upper trunk. Other family members have been affected by this condition at a similar age. The lesions worsen during a 5-day cruise to the Adriatic. Which of the following organisms is most likely to play a key role in the pathogenesis of these lesions?
- A. Propionibacterium acnes (Correct Answer)
- B. Herpes simplex virus type 1
- C. Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus
- D. Mycobacterium leprae
Ecthyma Explanation: ***Propionibacterium acnes*** (now *Cutibacterium acnes*)
- The presence of **comedones, papules, nodules, and pustules** on the face and upper back in an 18-year-old is classic for **acne vulgaris**.
- **_P. acnes_** is a commensal bacterium that proliferates in clogged hair follicles, contributing to inflammation and lesion formation in acne due to its lipolytic activity and immune-activating properties.
*Herpes simplex virus type 1*
- **HSV-1** typically causes **oral herpes (cold sores)** or **genital herpes**, characterized by painful vesicles and ulcers.
- The described lesions (comedones, papules, nodules, pustules) are not characteristic of HSV-1 infection.
*Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus*
- **Group A Strep** causes infections like **pharyngitis (strep throat)**, **impetigo**, or **cellulitis**, which are typically acute and rapidly spreading.
- Its presence is not associated with chronic, polymorphic lesions characteristic of acne.
*Mycobacterium leprae*
- **_M. leprae_** is the causative agent of **leprosy**, presenting with skin lesions, nerve damage, and other systemic effects.
- The skin lesions of leprosy are typically macules, papules, or nodules with sensory loss, not the comedones and pustules seen in acne.
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 3: A patient, a resident of Himachal Pradesh, presented with a series of ulcers in a row on his right leg. The biopsy from the affected area was taken and cultured on Sabouraud's dextrose agar. What is the most likely causative organism?
- A. Cladosporium spp.
- B. Pseudoallescheria boydii
- C. Nocardia brasiliensis
- D. Sporothrix schenckii (Correct Answer)
Ecthyma Explanation: ***Sporothrix schenckii***
- The presentation of "ulcers in a row" on the leg is highly suggestive of **lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis**, a characteristic finding where the infection spreads via lymphatic drainage.
- This fungus is endemic in certain regions including parts of **Himachal Pradesh**, and is typically acquired through contact with contaminated soil or plant material (e.g., rose thorns, sphagnum moss).
- Grows well on **Sabouraud's dextrose agar**, producing characteristic colonies.
*Cladosporium spp.*
- While *Cladosporium* can cause **phaeohyphomycosis** or allergic fungal sinusitis, it does not typically present with the classic lymphocutaneous lesions described.
- These fungi are common environmental contaminants and their infections are usually associated with chronic skin lesions, not a linear spread of ulcers.
*Pseudoallescheria boydii*
- *Pseudoallescheria boydii* is a common cause of **mycetoma** (Madura foot), characterized by chronic, destructive lesions with granulomas and sinus tracts that discharge grains.
- This presentation is distinct from the linear ulcerative lesions described in the patient.
*Nocardia brasiliensis*
- *Nocardia brasiliensis* is a bacterium (an actinomycete) that causes **actinomycetoma**, characterized by chronic, suppurative lesions with sinus tracts discharging grains.
- The characteristic **"ulcers in a row"** (lymphocutaneous spread pattern) is **not typical** of Nocardia infection, which presents as localized mycetoma rather than ascending lymphatic involvement.
- While Nocardia can grow on some fungal media, the clinical presentation is the key distinguishing feature here.
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 4: A young child of 7 years of age is seen with indurated ulcers, lymphadenopathy and fever. The likely treatment is:
- A. Excise the lesion
- B. Symptomatic treatment
- C. I.V. fluids
- D. Systemic antibiotics (Correct Answer)
Ecthyma Explanation: ***Systemic antibiotics***
- This clinical triad of **indurated ulcers, lymphadenopathy, and fever** in a child is highly suggestive of **ulceroglandular tularemia** (Francisella tularensis), **cat-scratch disease** (Bartonella henselae), or **atypical mycobacterial infection**.
- **Tularemia** presents with a painful ulcer at the inoculation site with regional lymphadenopathy and systemic symptoms - treated with **streptomycin or gentamicin**.
- **Cat-scratch disease** may present similarly after feline contact - treated with **azithromycin**.
- **Atypical mycobacteria** (M. marinum) cause "swimming pool granuloma" with similar features - requiring **clarithromycin and rifampicin**.
- **Systemic antibiotic therapy is essential** to prevent complications and disease progression.
*Symptomatic treatment*
- **Symptomatic treatment alone is inadequate** for bacterial infections presenting with indurated ulcers and lymphadenopathy.
- While fever and pain management may be adjunctive, **definitive antimicrobial therapy is required** for these infectious conditions.
- Failure to treat appropriately can lead to **systemic dissemination** and serious complications.
*Excise the lesion*
- **Surgical excision is not the primary treatment** for infectious ulcers with lymphadenopathy.
- Excision may be considered for **localized atypical mycobacterial lymphadenitis** that fails medical therapy, but is not first-line.
- The presence of **systemic symptoms (fever)** indicates need for medical rather than surgical management.
*I.V. fluids*
- **Intravenous fluids are supportive therapy** for dehydration, not definitive treatment.
- The clinical presentation requires **antimicrobial therapy**, not just hydration.
- IV fluids may be needed as adjunctive therapy if the child is unable to maintain oral hydration, but do not address the underlying infection.
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 5: Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split.
Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
- A. Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
- C. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- D. Statement 1 is incorrect
Ecthyma Explanation: ***Correct: Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1***
**Analysis of Statement 1:**
- A 59-year-old patient with **flaccid bullae** and **suprabasal acantholytic split** on histopathology is the classic presentation of **Pemphigus vulgaris**
- The flaccid (easily ruptured) nature of bullae distinguishes it from tense bullae seen in bullous pemphigoid
- The suprabasal location of the split (just above the basal layer) with acantholysis (loss of cell-to-cell adhesion) is pathognomonic
- **Statement 1 is CORRECT** ✓
**Analysis of Statement 2:**
- The **"row of tombstones" or "tombstone appearance"** is indeed a diagnostic histopathological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris
- This appearance results from basal keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane while suprabasal cells separate due to acantholysis
- The intact basal cells standing upright resemble a row of tombstones
- **Statement 2 is CORRECT** ✓
**Does Statement 2 explain Statement 1?**
- Statement 2 describes a **histopathological appearance** (tombstone pattern) that is a **consequence** of the suprabasal split
- However, it does NOT explain the **underlying cause** of the flaccid bullae or the suprabasal split
- The true explanation involves **IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and desmoglein 1)**, which attack intercellular adhesion structures (desmosomes), causing **acantholysis**
- Therefore, **Statement 2 does NOT explain Statement 1** ✗
*Incorrect: Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1*
- While both statements describe features of Pemphigus vulgaris, the tombstone appearance is a descriptive finding, not an explanatory mechanism
*Incorrect: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect*
- Both statements are medically accurate descriptions of Pemphigus vulgaris features
*Incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect*
- Statement 1 correctly describes the cardinal clinical and histopathological features of Pemphigus vulgaris
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 6: Which of the following conditions is caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
- A. Corynebacterium minutissimum infection
- B. Haemophilus ducreyi infection
- C. Propionibacterium acnes infection
- D. Bullous impetigo (Correct Answer)
Ecthyma Explanation: ***Bullous impetigo***
- Bullous impetigo is a superficial skin infection characterized by **blisters (bullae)**, and is specifically caused by **Staphylococcus aureus** producing exfoliative toxins.
- The toxins produced by *S. aureus* cause intraepidermal cleavage, leading to the formation of the characteristic **flaccid bullae**.
*Corynebacterium minutissimum infection*
- *Corynebacterium minutissimum* causes **erythrasma**, a chronic superficial skin infection characterized by well-demarcated reddish-brown patches, often in intertriginous areas.
- It does not cause bullous impetigo and is typically diagnosed by its coral-red fluorescence under a **Wood's lamp**.
*Haemophilus ducreyi infection*
- *Haemophilus ducreyi* is the causative agent of **chancroid**, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by painful genital ulcers with a necrotic base and often accompanied by swollen, tender regional lymph nodes.
- It is not associated with skin blistering or bullous impetigo.
*Propionibacterium acnes infection*
- *Propionibacterium acnes* (now *Cutibacterium acnes*) is a bacterium commonly implicated in **acne vulgaris**, contributing to inflammation and comedone formation within hair follicles.
- It causes inflammatory lesions like papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts, rather than bullous lesions.
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 7: A 35-year-old obese woman presents with recurrent lesions in both axilla in summer season. Wood lamp examination is shown. The diagnosis is:
- A. Ecthyma
- B. Erythrasma (Correct Answer)
- C. Impetigo contagiosa
- D. Bullous impetigo
Ecthyma Explanation: ***Erythrasma***
- Erythrasma is a superficial bacterial infection caused by **Corynebacterium minutissimum**, which commonly presents as red-brown patches in intertriginous areas like the axilla, especially in obese individuals and warm, humid conditions (summer season).
- The distinctive **coral-red fluorescence under Wood's lamp** is due to porphyrin production by the bacteria, which is a classic diagnostic feature of erythrasma, as shown in the image.
*Ecthyma*
- Ecthyma is a deeper form of impetigo characterized by **ulcerative lesions with a thick, adherent crust** that extend into the dermis.
- It is typically caused by *Streptococcus pyogenes* and sometimes *Staphylococcus aureus*, and would not exhibit coral-red fluorescence under Wood's lamp.
*Impetigo contagiosa*
- Impetigo contagiosa (non-bullous impetigo) presents with **honey-colored crusted lesions**, usually on the face and extremities.
- While also a bacterial skin infection, it is typically caused by *Staphylococcus aureus* or *Streptococcus pyogenes* and does not show coral-red fluorescence under Wood's lamp.
*Bullous impetigo*
- Bullous impetigo is characterized by **flaccid bullae** (blisters) that rupture to form thin, varnish-like crusts, primarily caused by *Staphylococcus aureus* producing exfoliative toxins.
- Similar to other forms of impetigo, it does not produce the coral-red fluorescence under Wood's lamp.
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 8: What is the treatment for granuloma inguinale?
- A. Tetracycline
- B. Azithromycin (Correct Answer)
- C. Clarithromycin
- D. Streptomycin
Ecthyma Explanation: ***Azithromycin***
- **Azithromycin** is the recommended first-line treatment for **granuloma inguinale** (donovanosis) caused by *Klebsiella granulomatis*.
- Current recommended regimens: **Azithromycin 1g orally once weekly** OR **500mg daily for at least 3 weeks** (until all lesions have completely healed).
- Preferred due to excellent tissue penetration, good efficacy, and convenient dosing that improves patient compliance.
*Tetracycline*
- **Tetracycline** (500mg four times daily) was historically used but has been largely replaced by **doxycycline** (100mg twice daily) as the preferred tetracycline-class antibiotic.
- While effective against *Klebsiella granulomatis*, it requires frequent dosing leading to poor adherence.
- **Doxycycline** (not listed here) is actually considered a co-first-line option alongside azithromycin in current CDC guidelines.
*Clarithromycin*
- **Clarithromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic but is not a recommended first-line agent for granuloma inguinale.
- Limited clinical data supports its use for this condition, and it is not included in standard treatment guidelines.
- Azithromycin from the same macrolide class is preferred due to better-established efficacy.
*Streptomycin*
- **Streptomycin** is an aminoglycoside antibiotic primarily used for mycobacterial infections (e.g., tuberculosis, plague).
- Not indicated for granuloma inguinale as *Klebsiella granulomatis* responds well to macrolides (azithromycin) and tetracyclines (doxycycline).
- Requires parenteral administration and has significant toxicity concerns (ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity).
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 9: A patient presents with multiple hypopigmented and hypesthetic patches on the lateral aspect of the forearm, with abundant acid-fast bacilli (AFB) and granulomatous inflammation on histology. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tuberculoid leprosy
- B. Intermediate leprosy
- C. Borderline leprosy (Correct Answer)
- D. Lepromatous leprosy
Ecthyma Explanation: ### Explanation
The correct answer is **Borderline leprosy (C)**.
#### 1. Why Borderline Leprosy is Correct
The diagnosis of leprosy is based on the Ridley-Jopling classification, which correlates clinical features with the host's immune response.
* **Clinical Presentation:** The presence of multiple hypopigmented and **hypesthetic** (reduced sensation) patches is characteristic of the borderline spectrum.
* **Histopathology:** The mention of **abundant acid-fast bacilli (AFB)** alongside **granulomatous inflammation** is the key differentiator. In the borderline spectrum (specifically Borderline Lepromatous - BL), the cell-mediated immunity is low enough to allow significant bacillary multiplication (high Bacterial Index), yet high enough to still form organized granulomas.
#### 2. Why Other Options are Incorrect
* **A. Tuberculoid leprosy (TT):** Characterized by high immunity. Clinically, there are very few lesions (1-3) with complete anesthesia. Histologically, granulomas are well-formed, but **AFB are absent** (paucibacillary).
* **B. Intermediate leprosy:** This is an early, transitory stage. It usually presents as a single, ill-defined macule with vague sensory loss. It does not show abundant AFB or well-developed granulomatous inflammation.
* **D. Lepromatous leprosy (LL):** Characterized by negligible immunity. While AFB are extremely abundant (globi), the histology shows **diffuse histiocytic infiltration** (Virchow cells/foam cells) rather than organized granulomatous inflammation.
#### 3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls
* **Pathognomonic sign:** Asymmetrical nerve enlargement is typical of Borderline Leprosy.
* **Bacterial Index (BI):** TT (0), BT (0-1+), BB (3-4+), BL (4-5+), LL (5-6+).
* **Lepromin Test:** Strongly positive in TT, negative in LL. It measures delayed-type hypersensitivity (prognostic, not diagnostic).
* **Treatment:** WHO MDT for Multibacillary (MB) leprosy (including Borderline and LL) lasts 12 months, whereas Paucibacillary (PB) lasts 6 months.
Ecthyma Indian Medical PG Question 10: Erysipelas is caused by which bacterium?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Staphylococcus albus
- C. Streptococcus pyogenes (Correct Answer)
- D. Haemophilus
Ecthyma Explanation: ### Explanation
**Correct Answer: C. Streptococcus pyogenes**
**Medical Concept:**
Erysipelas is a distinct clinical variant of superficial cellulitis. It is primarily caused by **Group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococci (GABHS)**, most commonly ***Streptococcus pyogenes***. The infection involves the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics. Characteristically, it presents as a well-demarcated, fiery-red, edematous, and tender plaque. The "sharp borders" are a hallmark feature because the infection is superficial, allowing for a clear distinction between involved and uninvolved skin.
**Analysis of Incorrect Options:**
* **A. *Staphylococcus aureus*:** While *S. aureus* is the most common cause of **Cellulitis** (which involves the deeper dermis and subcutaneous fat), it is rarely the primary cause of classic Erysipelas. *S. aureus* is more associated with purulent infections like furuncles and abscesses.
* **B. *Staphylococcus albus*:** Now known as *Staphylococcus epidermidis*, this is a commensal organism of the skin flora and is generally non-pathogenic unless it involves prosthetic implants or biofilms.
* **C. *Haemophilus*:** *Haemophilus influenzae* was historically a common cause of facial cellulitis in children, but its incidence has significantly decreased due to the Hib vaccine. It does not typically cause the classic clinical picture of erysipelas.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Milian’s Ear Sign:** Erysipelas can involve the pinna (ear) because the skin is tightly adherent to the cartilage with no subcutaneous fat. Cellulitis cannot involve the pinna.
* **Clinical Distinction:** Unlike cellulitis, erysipelas has **raised, sharply defined borders**.
* **Common Site:** The lower limbs are the most frequent site, followed by the face (butterfly distribution).
* **Treatment of Choice:** Penicillin is the first-line treatment for *Streptococcus pyogenes*.
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