Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 1: Intravenous regional anesthesia is suitable for :
- A. Caesarian section
- B. Head and neck surgery
- C. Orthopedic manipulation on the upper limb (Correct Answer)
- D. Vascular surgery on the lower limb
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***Orthopedic manipulation on the upper limb***
- **Intravenous regional anesthesia (IVRA)**, also known as a Bier block, is ideal for **short-duration procedures on the extremities**, especially the upper limb.
- The technique involves isolating the limb with a **tourniquet** and injecting a local anesthetic intravenously, making it suitable for procedures like **orthopedic manipulations** that are typically less than an hour.
*Caesarian section*
- A Caesarian section requires **widespread anesthesia** to the lower abdomen and uterus, which cannot be achieved with IVRA.
- It is typically performed under **spinal or epidural anesthesia**, or general anesthesia.
*Head and neck surgery*
- **IVRA** is a regional technique limited to the extremities below the tourniquet; it cannot provide anesthesia for the **head and neck region**.
- Procedures in this area usually require **general anesthesia** or sometimes regional blocks like cervical plexus blocks.
*Vascular surgery on the lower limb*
- While IVRA can be used on the lower limb, **vascular surgery** often involves **longer durations** and may require more profound muscle relaxation and sensory blockade than IVRA can reliably provide.
- Additionally, the use of a **tourniquet for extended periods** in vascular surgery patients can be contraindicated due to potential ischemic complications.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 2: In a patient with multiple fractures, what is the most important initial management step?
- A. Intravenous fluids
- B. Open reduction of fractures
- C. Blood transfusion
- D. Airway maintenance (Correct Answer)
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***Airway maintenance***
- In any trauma patient, ensuring a **patent airway** is the absolute priority to prevent hypoxia and brain damage.
- This is part of the primary survey (**ABCDE**) in trauma management, where life-threatening issues are addressed first.
*Intravenous fluids*
- While essential for managing **hypovolemia** due to blood loss in polytrauma, fluid resuscitation comes after securing the airway and ensuring adequate breathing.
- Administering fluids to a patient who cannot breathe effectively will not resolve the primary issue.
*Blood transfusion*
- **Blood transfusion** is necessary for significant hemorrhage and can be life-saving, but it is not the *initial* management step.
- Airway, breathing, and circulation (which includes addressing significant hemorrhage) collectively precede the decision and initiation of blood transfusions.
*Open reduction of fractures*
- **Open reduction of fractures** is a definitive treatment for musculoskeletal injuries that is performed much later, after the patient has been stabilized.
- It is an elective procedure in the context of initial trauma management and is not a life-saving measure in the acute phase.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 3: Steps in review of patient's history during secondary survey of trauma care can be summarised as
- A. TRIAGE
- B. ABCDE
- C. AMPLE (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***AMPLE***
- The **AMPLE history** is a mnemonic used during the **secondary survey** in trauma care to gather crucial patient information
- It stands for **Allergies, Medications, Past medical history/Pregnancy, Last meal, and Events** surrounding the injury.
*TRIAGE*
- **Triage** is the process of prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition and the likelihood of benefit from immediate treatment.
- It is an initial assessment done to determine the urgency of care, not a detailed historical review for a single patient.
*ABCDE*
- The **ABCDE approach** (**Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure**) is part of the **primary survey** in trauma care.
- It focuses on identifying and managing immediate life-threatening conditions.
*None of the options*
- This option is incorrect because **AMPLE** specifically describes the historical review process during the secondary survey.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 4: A patient scheduled for elective inguinal hernia surgery has a history of myocardial infarction (MI) and underwent coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). What should be included in the preoperative assessment?
- A. History + c/e + routine labs + V/Q scan
- B. History + c/e + routine labs
- C. History + c/e + routine labs + stress test (Correct Answer)
- D. History + c/e + routine labs + angiography to assess graft patency
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***History + c/e + routine labs + stress test***
- A **stress test** is crucial in patients with a history of MI and CABG to assess **myocardial ischemia** and functional capacity, guiding perioperative management.
- This evaluation helps determine the patient's **cardiac risk** for non-cardiac surgery and the need for further cardiac optimization.
*History + c/e + routine labs + angiography to assess graft patency*
- **Coronary angiography** is an invasive procedure and is generally not indicated as a routine preoperative assessment unless there are new, significant cardiac symptoms or signs of **graft dysfunction**.
- Assessing graft patency through angiography carries risks and would only be justified if there were strong clinical indications suggesting acute or severe **cardiac ischemia**.
*History + c/e + routine labs*
- While critical for any preoperative assessment, **routine history, physical examination, and basic laboratory tests** are insufficient for a patient with a significant cardiac history like MI and CABG.
- This approach would **underestimate the cardiac risk** and might miss undetected ischemia, leading to adverse perioperative cardiac events.
*History + c/e + routine labs + V/Q scan*
- A **ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan** is primarily used to diagnose **pulmonary embolism** or assess regional lung function.
- It does not provide information about myocardial ischemia or cardiac functional capacity, making it **irrelevant** for assessing cardiac risk in this clinical scenario.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 5: Child with aspiration risk needs emergency surgery. Best induction sequence is:
- A. Preoxygenation-ketamine-succinylcholine
- B. Sevoflurane-propofol-succinylcholine
- C. Midazolam-propofol-rocuronium
- D. Preoxygenation-propofol-succinylcholine (Correct Answer)
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***Preoxygenation-propofol-succinylcholine***
- This sequence describes a **rapid sequence intubation (RSI)**, which is the preferred method for patients at high risk of aspiration, including children needing emergency surgery with an unknown fasting status.
- **Preoxygenation** provides an oxygen reserve during the apneic period, **propofol** offers rapid induction with good hemodynamic stability, and **succinylcholine** provides fast-onset, short-acting neuromuscular blockade, crucial for preventing aspiration.
*Preoxygenation-ketamine-succinylcholine*
- While preoxygenation and succinylcholine are appropriate for RSI, **ketamine** may not be the optimal choice for a child with aspiration risk due to its potential to increase secretions and maintain laryngeal reflexes, which could complicate intubation.
- Ketamine can also cause **emergence delirium** in some children, making it less favorable for a smooth anesthetic course compared to propofol.
*Sevoflurane-propofol-succinylcholine*
- **Sevoflurane** is an inhaled anesthetic often used for mask induction in children due to its non-pungent odor and rapid onset. However, it is generally **not suitable for RSI** in patients with aspiration risk as it has a slower induction time compared to intravenous agents and can cause coughing or laryngospasm.
- Using both sevoflurane and propofol for induction in an RSI scenario is redundant and prolongs the induction phase, increasing aspiration risk.
*Midazolam-propofol-rocuronium*
- **Midazolam** is a benzodiazepine used for anxiolysis and sedation but has a **slower onset** and longer duration of action compared to propofol for rapid induction.
- **Rocuronium** is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with a slower onset of action than succinylcholine, making it less ideal for RSI where immediate paralysis for intubation is critical to prevent aspiration.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 6: What is an absolute indication for surgery in disc prolapse?
- A. Recurrent episodes of sciatica
- B. Cauda equina syndrome (Correct Answer)
- C. Pain not relieved by complete rest
- D. Progressive motor weakness despite conservative management
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***Cauda equina syndrome***
- **Cauda equina syndrome** is a neurological emergency characterized by compression of the cauda equina nerves, leading to symptoms like **saddle anesthesia**, bowel/bladder dysfunction, and severe neurological deficits, necessitating immediate surgical decompression.
- Delay in surgery for **cauda equina syndrome** can result in permanent neurological damage, making it an *absolute indication* for surgical intervention within **48 hours**.
*Recurrent episodes of sciatica*
- While recurrent **sciatica** can be debilitating and may eventually warrant surgery, it is typically managed conservatively initially and is not considered an *absolute emergency* for surgery.
- Surgical intervention in recurrent **sciatica** is usually considered when conservative treatments fail over 6-12 weeks, but it is a *relative indication*, not an immediate requirement.
*Progressive motor weakness despite conservative management*
- **Progressive motor weakness** is a serious concern and represents a *relative indication* for surgery, especially if documented over serial examinations.
- Unlike **cauda equina syndrome**, which requires immediate surgery, progressive weakness allows for a brief period of conservative management and surgical planning, though surgery should not be unduly delayed if weakness continues to progress.
*Pain not relieved by complete rest*
- **Pain not relieved by rest** is a common symptom of disc prolapse and can be an indication for surgery after failed conservative management, but it is not an *absolute emergency* like **cauda equina syndrome**.
- This type of pain often indicates discogenic pain or nerve root compression but can often be managed with medications, physical therapy, or injections before surgical consideration.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 7: Identify the airway device shown in the image.
- A. Nasopharyngeal Airway
- B. Cuffed Endotracheal Tube
- C. Guedel Airway
- D. Laryngeal Mask Airway (Correct Answer)
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***Laryngeal Mask Airway***
- The image clearly displays a **Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)**, characterized by its inflatable, elliptical cuff designed to seal around the laryngeal inlet.
- This supraglottic device is used for airway management in anesthesia and emergencies when endotracheal intubation is not required or feasible.
*Nasopharyngeal Airway*
- A **nasopharyngeal airway** is a soft, flexible tube inserted through the nose into the posterior pharynx.
- It does not have an inflatable cuff or the broad, mask-like structure seen in the image.
*Cuffed Endotracheal Tube*
- A **cuffed endotracheal tube (ETT)** is a long, narrow tube inserted directly into the trachea, featuring a balloon cuff near the distal end for tracheal sealing.
- The device in the image has a much broader, mask-like structure designed to sit above the larynx, not within the trachea.
*Guedel Airway*
- A **Guedel airway** (or oropharyngeal airway) is a rigid, curved device inserted into the mouth to prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway.
- It is typically made of plastic and lacks any inflatable components or the sophisticated design of the device shown.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 8: Emergence delirium is associated with –
- A. Halothane
- B. Pentothal sodium
- C. Droperidol
- D. Ketamine (Correct Answer)
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***Ketamine***
- **Ketamine**, an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, is known to cause **emergent delirium** or **psychotic reactions** during recovery from anesthesia due to its dissociative properties.
- This adverse effect is more common in adults and can manifest as **hallucinations**, **vivid dreams**, and **confusion**, particularly when used as a sole anesthetic agent.
*Halothane*
- **Halothane** is an inhalational anesthetic that was associated with relatively slow emergence, but not typically with **delirium** as a prominent feature.
- Its primary concern was **hepatotoxicity** (halothane hepatitis) and **malignant hyperthermia**, rather than emergence delirium.
*Pentothal sodium*
- **Pentothal sodium** (thiopental) is a short-acting barbiturate used for induction of anesthesia, known for rapid onset and offset.
- While it can cause some **post-operative drowsiness**, it is not primarily associated with **emergent delirium**; instead, it provides a smooth and calm recovery.
*Droperidol*
- **Droperidol** is an antipsychotic and antiemetic agent often used to prevent post-operative nausea and vomiting, and can cause **sedation**.
- It is known to **reduce** the incidence of emergence delirium caused by other agents, rather than causing it itself.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 9: A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paresthesia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except :
- A. Tourniquet pressure
- B. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
- C. A tight cast or dressing
- D. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics (Correct Answer)
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics***
- This typically presents with **acute neurological symptoms** (e.g., seizures, metallic taste, tinnitus) or **cardiovascular collapse** during or immediately after local anesthetic administration.
- Persistent numbness and paresthesia on the second postoperative day are **not characteristic** of systemic local anesthetic toxicity, which is a transient effect.
*Tourniquet pressure*
- **Prolonged or excessively high tourniquet pressure** can lead to nerve ischemia and damage, causing paresthesia and numbness in the limb distal to the tourniquet.
- These symptoms often persist for some time post-operatively, consistent with the patient's presentation.
*Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves*
- The initial **roadside accident** involving a severely injured limb could directly cause **nerve lacerations or crush injuries**, leading to immediate and persistent neurological deficits like numbness and paresthesia.
- Such direct nerve trauma would manifest immediately and continue post-operatively, aligning with the patient's complaints.
*A tight cast or dressing*
- A **tight cast or dressing** applied to the forearm can compress nerves, leading to **ischemia and neuropathy**.
- This mechanical compression can cause persistent numbness and paresthesia, which might become more noticeable as swelling increases post-surgery.
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG Question 10: 80-year-old patient is admitted for open reduction and internal fixation of a fracture of the femur. Which one of the following techniques is the ideal anesthetic technique for this patient?
- A. Local infiltration
- B. Regional anesthesia (Correct Answer)
- C. General anesthesia
- D. Paracervical block
Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Explanation: ***Regional anesthesia***
- **Regional anesthesia** offers advantages in elderly patients undergoing hip fracture repair, including reduced risks of **postoperative cognitive dysfunction** and **cardiovascular complications**.
- It provides **effective pain control** during and after surgery, potentially leading to faster recovery and fewer opioid-related side effects.
*Local infiltration*
- **Local infiltration** alone is typically inadequate for surgical pain control during an **open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured femur**.
- It would not provide sufficient **muscle relaxation** or **sensory block** for such an invasive procedure.
*General anesthesia*
- While an option, **general anesthesia** in an 80-year-old patient carries a higher risk of **postoperative delirium** and **cardiopulmonary complications** compared to regional techniques.
- It may also prolong recovery time and increase the need for **postoperative ventilation**.
*Paracervical block*
- A **paracervical block** is primarily used for **gynecological procedures**, such as cervical dilation and uterine procedures, due to its localized anesthetic effect around the cervix.
- It is completely unsuitable for **femur fracture surgery**, as it would not provide any pain relief or surgical anesthesia to the lower limb.
More Anesthesia for Orthopedic Emergencies Indian Medical PG questions available in the OnCourse app. Practice MCQs, flashcards, and get detailed explanations.
