Orthopaedics & MSK — Flashcards
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What is a late sign in Cauda Equina Syndrome _____
The inheritance pattern of Otosclerosis is _____
_____ are the preferred treatment/definitive management for patients who have chronic vestibular neuronitis
Otosclerosis describes the replacement of normal bone by _____
Notable adverse effect of Aromastase inhbitors is _____
An area of rapidly worsening painful eczema is an early sign of _____
Treatment for Fingal nail infection caused by dermatophyte infection is _____
Quinine is an _____ also used for nocturnal leg cramps known to causes tinnitus
Molluscum Contagiosum characteristically presents with _____ with a central umbilication
Hint: primary morphology
There is a positive _____ in Otosclerosis
Orthopaedics & MSK UK Medical PG Flashcards - Medical Study Cards
Master Orthopaedics & MSK with OnCourse flashcards. These spaced repetition flashcards are designed for medical students preparing for NEET PG, USMLE Step 1, USMLE Step 2, MBBS exams, and other medical licensing examinations.
Orthopaedics & MSK Flashcard Deck - 636 Cards
Flashcard 1: What is a late sign in Cauda Equina Syndrome _____
Answer: Urinary Incontinence
Flashcard 2: The inheritance pattern of Otosclerosis is _____
Answer: Autosomal dominant
Flashcard 3: _____ are the preferred treatment/definitive management for patients who have chronic vestibular neuronitis
Answer: Vestibular Rehab Exercises
Flashcard 4: Otosclerosis describes the replacement of normal bone by _____
Answer: vascular spongy bone
Flashcard 5: Notable adverse effect of Aromastase inhbitors is _____
Answer: Osteoporosis
Flashcard 6: An area of rapidly worsening painful eczema is an early sign of _____
Answer: eczema herpeticum
Flashcard 7: Treatment for Fingal nail infection caused by dermatophyte infection is _____
Answer: Oral Terbinafine
Flashcard 8: Quinine is an _____ also used for nocturnal leg cramps known to causes tinnitus
Answer: Anti-malarial drug
Flashcard 9: Molluscum Contagiosum characteristically presents with _____ with a central umbilication
Answer: pinky/pearly white papules
Flashcard 10: There is a positive _____ in Otosclerosis
Answer: family history
Flashcard 11: What MSK Differentials could cause Falls? 2
Answer: • Arthritis • Disuse atrophy due to a lack of physical activity and mechanical load on muscles
Flashcard 12: • Sensineural hearing loss • Difficulty hearing high-pitched sounds Diagnosis?
Answer: Presbycusis (age-related hearing loss)
Flashcard 13: What will present as a sudden painless loss of vision, severe retinal haemorrages on fundoscopy?
Answer: • Central retinal vein occlusion
Flashcard 14: What medication is used for dermatophyte nail infections?
Answer: • Oral terbinafine
Flashcard 15: What diagnosis is associated with distortion of line perception?
Answer: • Age related macular degeneration
Flashcard 16: Describe a typical BPPV history
Answer: Vertigo triggered by head movement (e.g. rolling in bed), nausea, episodes lasting 10–20 seconds
Flashcard 17: What manoeuvre is diagnostic for BPPV?
Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Flashcard 18: Otitis media with effusion is also known as _____
Answer: glue ear
Flashcard 19: NICE recommend that children with otitis media with effusion are investigated with _____ and tympanometry
Answer: audiometry
Flashcard 20: Children are more likely to develop acute otitis media if there is a _____ in the household and if they are formula-fed
Answer: smoker
Flashcard 21: Otitis media with effusion is usually _____
Answer: asymptomatic
Flashcard 22: Hearing loss may manifest as _____ in young children
Answer: speech and language developmental delay
Flashcard 23: Otitis media with effusion may present with a feeling of _____ in the ear and conductive hearing loss
Answer: pressure
Flashcard 24: _____ is an effusion of the middle ear WITHOUT infection, typically seen in children (<5)
Answer: Otitis media with effusion
Flashcard 25: Otitis media with effusion usually occurs in children with _____ dysfunction - e.g. Downs Syndrome or Cleft palate
Answer: eustachian tube
Flashcard 26: What is the managment in Guttate Psoriasis?
Answer: • Most cases resolve spontaneously within 2-3 months • Topical agents as per psoriasis • UVB phototherapy
Flashcard 27: What skin condition can Sarcoidosis present on the shins in?
Answer: • Erythema nodosum
Flashcard 28: In diabetic retinopathy, cotton wool spots represent?
Answer: • Areas of retinal infarction • Caused by pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion
Flashcard 29: What is seen on fundoscopy for Central Retinal Vein Occlusion?
Answer: • Widespread hyperaemia • Severe retinal haemorrhages - 'stormy sunset'
Flashcard 30: Management for Optic Neuritis?
Answer: High Dose Steroids
Flashcard 31: What is used to investigate refractive error?
Answer: A pinhole occluder
Flashcard 32: Investigation for Optic Neuritis?
Answer: MRI of brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast
Flashcard 33: How is macular oedema treated in retinal vein occlusion? 2
Answer: • Anti-VEGF therapy • Dexamethasone intravitreal implant
Flashcard 34: What is Wet Wrapping
Answer: A method to administer emollients and topical steroids, particularly overnight, to maximise their therapeutic effects. In the managment of paediatric eczema
Flashcard 35: What are the features of Optic Neuritis? 5
Answer: 1. Unilateral decrease in visual acuity over hours or days 2. Poor discrimination of colours, ‘red desaturation’ 3. Pain worse on eye movements 4. RAPD 5. Central Scotoma
Flashcard 36: Features of Episcleritis?
Answer: • Red Eye • NOT Painful • Injected vessels are mobile when gentle pressure is applied to sclera
Flashcard 37: What does Herpes Simplex keratitis commonly present with?
Answer: • Dendritic Corneal Ulcer
Flashcard 38: How is neovascularisation prevented in Retinal vein occlusion?
Answer: • Laser photocoagulation
Flashcard 39: What does management for Retinal Vein Occlusion aim to treat?
Answer: • Macular oedema • Prevent neovascularisation
Flashcard 40: What is a side effect of topical corticosteroids in darker skin?
Answer: May cause patchy depigmentation in patients with darker skin
Flashcard 41: What is the management of a nondisplaced humerus fracture? _____
Answer: Closed reduction w/splinting
Flashcard 42: _____ fractures occur in children who fall onto a hyperextended outstretched arm
Answer: Supracondylar
Flashcard 43: _____ fractures present with pain on palpation of the anatomical snuffbox
Answer: Scaphoid
Flashcard 44: What is the management of a open/unstable/significantly displaced/neurovascularly comprimised clavicle fracture ? _____
Answer: Surgical; Open Reduction & Internal Fixation (ORIF)
Flashcard 45: A fracture of the _____ clavicle is the most common clavicle fracture
Answer: middle third
Flashcard 46: What is the initial management of a Colles / Smith's fracture? _____
Answer: Immobilisation with a backslab splint
Flashcard 47: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Supracondylar fracture
Flashcard 48: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Colles fracture
Flashcard 49: The _____ nerve may be injured in a(n) proximal humerus fracture causing loss of sensation to the "regimental badge" & weakness of the deltoid muscle
Answer: axillary
Flashcard 50: What major structures can be injured in a distal radius fracture? _____ Radial artery
Answer: Median nerve
Flashcard 51: Scaphoid injury most commonly occurs in _____ who are male
Answer: young adults
Flashcard 52: Boxer's fracture are typically seen in the _____ & 5th metacarpal necks
Answer: 4th
Flashcard 53: _____ fracture of the distal radius = dorsal displacement of the distal fragment Smith's fracture of the distal radius = volar displacement of the distal fragment
Answer: Colles
Flashcard 54: top: _____ fracture middle: humerus shaft fracture bottom: distal humerus / supracondylar fracture
Answer: proximal humerus
Flashcard 55: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Humerus midshaft fracture
Flashcard 56: What is the management of a open/displaced/neurovascularly comprimised humerus fracture? _____
Answer: Surgical → e.g. ORIF
Flashcard 57: Clavicle fractures may cause "_____" of the skin overlying the fracture indicating significant angulation/displacement of the fracture
Answer: tenting
Flashcard 58: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Proximal humerus fracture
Flashcard 59: Scaphoid fractures typically have ↓ _____ strength
Answer: grip
Flashcard 60: What is the management for a simple boxer's fracture? _____
Answer: Conservative; immobilise with a splint/cast
Flashcard 61: A Colles fracture refers to a fracture of the _____ that presents with a "dinner fork deformity"
Answer: distal radius
Flashcard 62: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Smith's fracture
Flashcard 63: _____ fracture is most commonly caused by a(n) direct fall on the shoulder (e.g. cyclist falling off their bike)
Answer: Clavicle
Flashcard 64: What is the management of nondisplaced scaphoid fractures? _____
Answer: Immobilise in a cast (~6-8 weeks)
Flashcard 65: Clavicle fractures more commonly occur in _____
Answer: adolescents & young adults
Flashcard 66: Colles fracture is caused by FOOSH with a(n) _____ wrist Smith's fracture is caused by FOOSH with a(n) dorsiflexed wrist
Answer: extended
Flashcard 67: What is the management of displaced, proximal pole, & unstable scaphoid fractures? _____
Answer: Surgical
Flashcard 68: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Flashcard 69: What is the mechanism of a scaphoid fracture? _____
Answer: FOOSH with wrist extension & radial deviation (localising the force into the scaphoid)
Flashcard 70: Scaphoid fractures can be assessed by pain on _____ of the thumb
Answer: longitudinal compression
Flashcard 71: What is the initial investigation for scaphoid fractures? _____
Answer: X-rays
Flashcard 72: _____ fracture is commonly caused by direct trauma with a clenched fist to an object
Answer: Boxer's
Flashcard 73: What investigation is done if X-rays are -ve but there is ↑ high clinical suspicion for a scaphoid fracture? _____
Answer: MRI or CT
Flashcard 74: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: left clavicle fracture; comminuted
Flashcard 75: What is the management of a Colles / Smith's fracture with neurovascular comprimise? Immediate _____ If it persists → CT & refer to orthopaedic surgery for an ORIF
Answer: closed reduction
Flashcard 76: The _____ nerve may be injured in a(n) humerus midshaft fracture causing wrist drop
Answer: radial
Flashcard 77: In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus, anteromedial displacement of the proximal fracture fragment can result in damage to the _____ & brachial artery
Answer: median nerve
Flashcard 78: Scaphoid fractures occur at the _____ ~70-80%
Answer: waist (middle third)
Flashcard 79: What is the management of a typical middle third clavicle fracture? _____
Answer: Conservative; Sling/figure-of-8 sling, rest & ice
Flashcard 80: _____ fractures occur with direct trauma to the humerus
Answer: Humeral shaft
Flashcard 81: What is the investigation for clavicle fractures? _____
Answer: X-rays; AP & cephalic tilt views
Flashcard 82: A female with osteoporosis presents after a FOOSH with wrist pain, swelling, & ↓ movement. What is the likely diagnosis? _____ (pretend this is an elderly women's hand...)
Answer: Colles fracture
Flashcard 83: Clavicle fractures present with _____ that is exacerbated by movement ± erythema, ecchymosis, & swelling
Answer: shoulder pain
Flashcard 84: Fractures to the _____ third of the clavicle have highest risk of complications (e.g. vascular injury, pneumothorax, brachial plexus injury)
Answer: medial
Flashcard 85: _____ fractures occur with low-energy falls onto an outstretched hand in older patients
Answer: Proximal humerus
Flashcard 86: The most common carpal bone fracture is of the _____
Answer: scaphoid
Flashcard 87: Clavicle fracture can occur in a newborn due to _____
Answer: shoulder dystocia
Flashcard 88: What is the most common paediatric elbow fracture? _____
Answer: Supracondylar fracture
Flashcard 89: Complications of _____ scaphoid fractures include avascular necrosis and nonunion due to retrograde blood supply
Answer: proximal
Flashcard 90: In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus, anterolateral displacement of the proximal fracture fragment can result in damage to the _____
Answer: radial nerve
Flashcard 91: What is the management of a Colles / Smith's fracture that needs realignment? _____
Answer: Closed reduction → below elbow plaster cast
Flashcard 92: What major structures can be injured in a clavicle fracture? _____ Brachial plexus Lungs (causing pneumothorax)
Answer: Subclavian artery
Flashcard 93: Loss of brachial artery supply in supracondylar fractures can result in prolonged ischaemia causing _____
Answer: Volkmanns ischaemic contracture
Flashcard 94: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: 4th metacarpal fracture
Flashcard 95: The organisation of the femoral region from lateral to medial is _____
Answer: nerve-artery-vein-empty-lymphatics (NAVeL)
Flashcard 96: The _____ comprises the nerve roots of lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal spinal nerves below the conus medullaris
Answer: cauda equina
Flashcard 97: What motor deficits present with cauda equina syndrome? _____
Answer: Asymmetric lower limb weakness/paresis
Flashcard 98: Cauda equina syndrome typically causes low back pain and _____ radicular pain
Answer: severe
Flashcard 99: Brown-sequard syndrome presents with _____lateral spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion
Answer: ipsi
Flashcard 100: Does cauda equina syndrome present with upper or lower motor neuron symptoms? _____
Answer: Lower only
Flashcard 101: What is the management for cauda equina syndrome? _____
Answer: Immediate neurosurgical referral
Flashcard 102: Cauda equina syndrome presents with _____ then develops into overflow incontinence
Answer: urinary retention
Flashcard 103: The most common cause of cauda equina is _____
Answer: lumbar disc hernation (L4/L5, L5/S1)
Flashcard 104: Brown-sequard syndrome presents with _____lateral loss of pain & temperature sensation below the level of the lesion
Answer: contra
Flashcard 105: _____ is damage/compression to the spinal roots below the level of L2
Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Flashcard 106: What is the investigation for cauda equina syndrome? _____
Answer: MRI
Flashcard 107: Cauda equina presents with _____ symptoms Conus medullaris syndrome presents with symmetric symptoms
Answer: asymmetric
Flashcard 108: Meniere's disease can cause _____ nystagmus which can be suppressed by visual fixation
Answer: horizontal
Flashcard 109: _____ refers to the collection of nerve roots located distal to the termination of the spinal cord
Answer: Cauda equina
Flashcard 110: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with gradual-onset severe radicular pain with asymmetric lower limb paresis, "saddle anaesthesia", & urinary retention? _____
Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Flashcard 111: Cauda equina syndrome may be associated with "_____"
Answer: saddle anesthesia (S3-S5)
Flashcard 112: Conus medullaris syndrome has a(n) _____ onset of bowel/bladder dysfunction compared to cauda equina syndrome
Answer: earlier
Flashcard 113: Cauda equina syndrome may present with absent _____ reflexes
Answer: knee and ankle
Flashcard 114: Cauda equina onset is typically _____
Answer: gradual
Flashcard 115: Cauda equina syndrome is a _____ medical emergency
Answer: rare
Flashcard 116: Meniere's disease is also known as _____
Answer: endolymphatic hydrops
Flashcard 117: On examination cauda equina syndrome presents with _____ anal sphincter tone
Answer: ↓
Flashcard 118: The _____ tract is responsible for crude touch & pressure
Answer: anterior spinothalamic
Flashcard 119: What is the investigation for spinal cord injuries? _____
Answer: MRI
Flashcard 120: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: central cord syndrome
Flashcard 121: Upper motor neuron lesion has _____ which is initial resistance when the limb is moved, followed by sudden, unexpected decrease in resistance
Answer: clasp knife phenomenon
Flashcard 122: _____ is a spinal cord injury that is commonly seen in the elderly followed by forced hyperextension of the neck (rear-end collision)
Answer: Central cord syndrome
Flashcard 123: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient that presents with bilateral lower extremity paralysis, loss of pain & temperature sensation with sparing of fine touch, proprioception, & vibration following a motor vehicle accident? _____
Answer: Anterior cord syndrome
Flashcard 124: What is the initial investigation for suspected spinal fracture? _____
Answer: X-ray spine; AP & lateral view
Flashcard 125: Consider administration of _____ within 8 hours of spinal cord injury
Answer: high-dose methylprednisolone
Flashcard 126: The _____ tract is responsible for voluntary movement of the trunk & proximal muscles
Answer: anterior corticospinal
Flashcard 127: _____ spinal cord injury is loss of ALL sensory & motor function below the level of the injury
Answer: Complete
Flashcard 128: _____ spinal cord injury is partial loss of sensory & motor function below the level of the injury
Answer: Incomplete
Flashcard 129: The anterior corticospinal tract decussates at the level of the _____
Answer: spinal cord
Flashcard 130: Spinal cord injuries are most commonly caused by _____
Answer: trauma
Flashcard 131: The lateral corticospinal tract decussates at the level of the _____
Answer: medulla
Flashcard 132: Nerve roots _____ innervate the diaphragm
Answer: C3, C4, C5
Flashcard 133: High-energy trauma patient with severe back pain & spinal misalignment = _____
Answer: fracture-dislocation fracture; unstable with high neurological risk
Flashcard 134: Perform a(n) _____ on patients with spinal cord injuries
Answer: ASIA chart
Flashcard 135: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: posterior cord syndrome
Flashcard 136: Spinal fractures with underlying disease (metastases, osteomyelitis, etc) are named _____ fractures
Answer: pathological
Flashcard 137: What is the definitive management of a spinal cord injury? _____
Answer: Refer to neurosurgery to decide on conservative or surgical management
Flashcard 138: High-energy trauma patient with severe back pain and numbness/tingling down legs = _____
Answer: burst fracture; unstable with moderate neurological risk
Flashcard 139: Spinal shock is accompanied with _____; neurogenic shock, loss of bladder & bowel control, faecal incontinence, priapism
Answer: autonomic dysfunction
Flashcard 140: Upper motor neuron lesion has _____ tone below the level of the injury
Answer: ↑
Flashcard 141: _____ syndrome is caused by hemisection of the spinal cord caused by trauma or spinal cord compression
Answer: Brown-Sequard
Flashcard 142: _____ is a dilated, fluid-filled, cystic cavity within the central canal of the spinal cord
Answer: Syringomyelia
Flashcard 143: The most common cause of spinal fractures in the elderly is _____
Answer: osteoporotic compression fractures
Flashcard 144: What is the initial management of a suspected spinal fracture? _____
Answer: Immobilisation → cervical collar or/and backboard & straps
Flashcard 145: Nerve roots _____ innervates the bladder, bowel, & sexual organs that are relevant in spinal cord injury
Answer: S2-S4
Flashcard 146: Upper motor neuron lesion presents with _____reflexia below the level of the lesion
Answer: hyper
Flashcard 147: What investigation is done for spinal fractures with neurological symptoms? _____
Answer: MRI; assess spinal cord injury or nerve root compression
Flashcard 148: Upper motor neuron lesion presents with muscle _____ below the level of the lesion
Answer: weakness
Flashcard 149: Autonomic dysreflexia in spinal cord injury presents with _____
Answer: uncontrolled hypertension
Flashcard 150: What is the definitive management of a spinal fracture? _____
Answer: Refer to neurosurgery / orthopaedics to decide on conservative or surgical management
Flashcard 151: After spinal shock, the first reflex to return is the _____
Answer: bulbocavernosus reflex
Flashcard 152: In patients with traumatic spinal cord injury, _____ placement can assess for urinary retention and prevent acute bladder distention/damage
Answer: urinary catheter
Flashcard 153: The _____ tract is responsible for pain & temperature sensation
Answer: lateral spinothalamic
Flashcard 154: The anterior spinothalamic tract decussates ate the level of the _____
Answer: spinal cord
Flashcard 155: Features of spinal cord injuries occur _____-6 weeks after injury when spinal shock begins to resolve
Answer: 4
Flashcard 156: The dorsal column medial lemniscus tract decussates at the level of the _____
Answer: medulla
Flashcard 157: _____ presents with bilateral loss of pain & temperature sensation in a(n) "cape-like" distribution
Answer: Syringomelia
Flashcard 158: Resolution of spinal shock is identified when _____
Answer: reflexes begin to return
Flashcard 159: The _____ tract is responsible for voluntary movement of the limbs (distal muscles)
Answer: lateral corticospinal
Flashcard 160: The lateral spinothalamic tract decussates ate the level of the _____
Answer: spinal cord
Flashcard 161: The _____ tract is responsible for fine touch, vibration, & proprioception
Answer: dorsal column medial lemniscus
Flashcard 162: _____ is a spinal cord injury that is seen in occlusion of the anterior spinal artery
Answer: Anterior cord syndrome
Flashcard 163: _____ is a state of flaccidity and loss of reflexes occurring immediately after spinal cord injury for the first ~48 hours
Answer: Spinal shock
Flashcard 164: In the acute phase of spinal cord injury, patients can develop _____ with absent reflexes & flaccid paralysis
Answer: spinal shock
Flashcard 165: _____ is a condition in which the spinal cord is damaged, commonly due to traumatic causes
Answer: Spinal cord injury
Flashcard 166: Upper motor neuron lesion presents with _____ which is a series of rapid, rhythmic contractions of a muscle in response to a sudden stretch
Answer: clonus
Flashcard 167: The most common cause of spinal fractures in younger adults is _____
Answer: high-energy trauma (e.g. RTA, falls, extreme sports)
Flashcard 168: _____ presents with unilateral or bilateral loss of proprioception, fine touch, & vibration below the level of the lesion
Answer: Posterior cord syndrome
Flashcard 169: Elderly, osteoporotic patient with pin-point vertebral pain = _____
Answer: compression fracture; stable with minimal neurological risk
Flashcard 170: A _____ is a break ± dislocation in ≥ 1 vertebrae, often caused by trauma, osteoporosis, or pathological disease
Answer: spinal fracture
Flashcard 171: What is the initial mangement of spinal cord injuries? _____
Answer: Immobilisation (cervical spine) & stabilisation (A-E)
Flashcard 172: Patient in a car accident causing sudden excessive flexion of the spine resulting in back pain = _____
Answer: flexion-distraction fracture; unstable with moderate to high neurological risk
Flashcard 173: The posterior spinal artery affects the _____lateral dorsal column
Answer: ipsi
Flashcard 174: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: anterior cord syndrome
Flashcard 175: Brown-sequard syndrome presents with _____lateral loss of fine touch, proprioception, & vibration below the level of the lesion
Answer: ipsi
Flashcard 176: Spinal cord injury above nerve root _____ can cause autonomic dysreflexia
Answer: T6
Flashcard 177: Pelvic fractures often results from _____-energy trauma (e.g. road traffic accidents, high falls) and ~60% also have polytrauma
Answer: high
Flashcard 178: Which anatomical bone fracture has the highest mortality? _____
Answer: Pelvic fractures
Flashcard 179: Spot Diagnosis = _____
Answer: Pathological fracture (fracture traverses a lytic lesion involving the surgical neck of the humerus)
Flashcard 180: What is the gold-standard investigation for pelvic fractures? _____
Answer: CT scan with IV contrast
Flashcard 181: Pathological fractures are most commonly caused by _____ & metastatic bone disease
Answer: osteoporosis
Flashcard 182: A posterior urethral injury is seen more commonly with _____
Answer: pelvic fractures
Flashcard 183: What is the initial imaging for pelvic fractures? _____
Answer: X-rays; AP
Flashcard 184: Pelvic fractures can be life-threatening due to major _____
Answer: blood loss
Flashcard 185: Pelvic fracture with loss of hip flexion, leg extension & loss of sensation of anterior thigh and medial leg & loss of patellar reflex = _____ nerve damage
Answer: femoral
Flashcard 186: What is the initial management of pelvic instability/haemorrhage? _____
Answer: Pelvic binder
Flashcard 187: What is the surgical management of femoral shaft fractures? _____
Answer: Intramedullary nailing
Flashcard 188: What is the management of stable pelvic fractures? _____
Answer: Non-weight bearing with crutches/walker
Flashcard 189: Pathological fractures typically occur in the _____, proximal humerus, & vertebral body (vertebral compression fractures)
Answer: proximal femur
Flashcard 190: What is the most common presenting symptom for an adult bone metastasis? _____
Answer: Pathological fracture
Flashcard 191: Spot Diagnosis = _____
Answer: Pelvic fracture Red arrows → fractures of the superior (in two places) & inferior pubic rami on R side. Individual has prior hip replacements.
Flashcard 192: Hip rocking causing crepitus, pain, haematuria and limited mobility is indicative of a _____ fracture
Answer: pelvic
Flashcard 193: Pelvic fractures can cause _____ shock due to intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal blood loss
Answer: haemorrhagic
Flashcard 194: What is the management of pathological fractures if Mirel scoring system is > 33%? _____
Answer: Prophylactic fixation (internal fixation)
Flashcard 195: Pathological fractures occur _____ or with minimal trauma
Answer: spontaneously
Flashcard 196: A _____ fracture occurs because of abnormal bone weakness from metabolic disease, metastases, & primary malignancies
Answer: pathological
Flashcard 197: Risk of fracture in pathological fractures is determined using the _____
Answer: Mirel Scoring system
Flashcard 198: What is the preferred definitive management of unstable pelvic fractures? _____
Answer: Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)
Flashcard 199: _____ prophylaxis is important in patients with a pelvic fracture
Answer: DVT
Flashcard 200: Upon initial assessment of a fracture, it is vital to assess for _____
Answer: neurovascular comprimise
Flashcard 201: Using the Ottawa ankle rules, an ankle X-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone, plus one of the following: Tenderness at the _____ of either the medial or lateral malleolus OR Inability to bear weight
Answer: posterior border/tip
Flashcard 202: Hip fractures in younger adults are typically caused by _____
Answer: high-energy trauma
Flashcard 203: Fractures are pain_____
Answer: ful!!
Flashcard 204: Fractures present _____ and swollen
Answer: erythematous
Flashcard 205: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: femoral shaft fracture (displaced oblique mid-shaft fracture)
Flashcard 206: What is the management of subtrochanteric fractures (extracapsular)? _____
Answer: Intramedullary nail
Flashcard 207: What is the management of displaced neck of femur fracture? Old & previously immobile: _____ Young & previously mobile: total hip replacement
Answer: hemiarthroplasty
Flashcard 208: What is the general management of fractures? _____
Answer: **Look below
Flashcard 209: On palpation of a fracture, a _____ may be felt
Answer: step-off
Flashcard 210: What is the management of a stable ankle fracture (e.g. isolated malleolar #)? _____ or ankle motion walker boot
Answer: Conservative → short leg cast
Flashcard 211: What is the management of intertrochanteric fractures (extracapsular)? _____
Answer: Dynamic hip screw
Flashcard 212: _____capsular hip fractures comprimise of femoral neck fractures and rarely femoral head fractures
Answer: Intra
Flashcard 213: Femoral neck fractures can be further classified with the _____ classification
Answer: Garden
Flashcard 214: _____capsular hip fractures comprimise of intertrochanteric fractures and subtrochanteric fractures
Answer: Extra
Flashcard 215: Hip fractures affect _____ in a 3:1 ratio **bonus, why?
Answer: females
Flashcard 216: What is the initial imaging for a fracture? _____
Answer: X-ray (at least 2 planes/views)
Flashcard 217: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Neck of femur fracture (subcapital fracture with complete displacement of the neck from the head)
Flashcard 218: Hip fractures in older adults are typically caused by _____
Answer: low-energy injuries (often with underlying osteoporosis)
Flashcard 219: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Ankle fracture; lateral malleolus
Flashcard 220: What is the second-line imaging for fractures? _____
Answer: CT
Flashcard 221: Garden classification III & IV for means the blood supply is disrupted to the femoral neck resulting in _____
Answer: avascular necrosis
Flashcard 222: leg is "externally rotated and shortened" = quick diagnosis _____
Answer: neck of femur fracture
Flashcard 223: What is the initial investigation for hip fractures? _____
Answer: X-ray; AP & lateral views
Flashcard 224: What is the management of a unstable ankle fracture (e.g. displaced / bimalleolar / trimalleolar #)? _____
Answer: Open reduction & internal fixation (ORIF)
Flashcard 225: A _____ is a partial or complete break in the continuity of bone
Answer: fracture
Flashcard 226: The femoral neck is the most commonly fractured bone following mild trauma (fall from standing) in _____
Answer: severe osteoporosis
Flashcard 227: _____ fractures present with severe pain, swollen thigh, inability to weight bear, & shortening/deformity
Answer: Femoral shaft
Flashcard 228: Femoral shaft fractures most commonly occur in younger adults are typically caused by _____
Answer: high-energy trauma
Flashcard 229: What is the initial investigation for femoral shaft fractures? _____
Answer: X-ray; AP & lateral views
Flashcard 230: Patient with a "twisted ankle" leading to pain, swelling, and inability to bear weight: _____
Answer: Ankle fracture
Flashcard 231: ~60-70% _____ fracture caused by high-energy impact or force ~20-30% Fragility fracture caused by low-energy impact from osteoporosis/osteopenia ~2-5% Pathological fracture due to weakening of bone (e.g. metastasis, osteomyelitis, Paget's disease)
Answer: Traumatic
Flashcard 232: Post-bone related trauma, respiratory distress, altered mental status and petechial rash (axilla, chest wall, conjunctiva) is suggestive of _____
Answer: fat embolism
Flashcard 233: The _____ of the ankle is the most common fracture, if severe enough it can affect the medial malleolus and syndesmosis
Answer: lateral malleolus
Flashcard 234: Pain at _____ edge of lateral or medial malleolus = get an x-ray to rule out fracture
Answer: posterior
Flashcard 235: Forced external rotation combined with inversion of the foot most commonly causes a fracture of the _____
Answer: lateral malleolus
Flashcard 236: What is the management of undisplaced neck of femur fracture? _____
Answer: Internal fixation
Flashcard 237: Hip fractures can be classed anatomically; _____ & extracapsular fractures
Answer: intracapsular
Flashcard 238: What is the leading cause of blindness in patients with diabetic retinopathy? _____
Answer: Diabetic macular oedema
Flashcard 239: What is the management for diabetic macular oedema? _____ Intravitreal steroids (refractory cases)
Answer: Laser photocoagulation and/or anti-VEGF therapy
Flashcard 240: Diabetic macular oedema can occur at _____ in diabetic retinopathy
Answer: any stage
Flashcard 241: What is the gold-standard investigation for diabetic retinopathy? _____
Answer: Retinal photography
Flashcard 242: Diabetic retinopathy can also present with acute visual changes due to _____
Answer: complications (macular oedema, vitreous haemorrhage, & tractional retinal detachment)
Flashcard 243: Diabetic retinopathy is classed into _____ & proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR) that can be complicated by diabetic macular oedema (DME)
Answer: nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR)
Flashcard 244: Clinical diagnosis (red pointer) = _____
Answer: Hills-Sachs defect
Flashcard 245: _____ shoulder dislocations present with adduction & internal rotation
Answer: Posterior
Flashcard 246: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with two months of progressive left shoulder stiffness? The patient has markedly decreased passive and active abduction, flexion, and rotation of the left shoulder _____
Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Flashcard 247: What are the three phases of adhesive capsulitis ("frozen shoulder")? 1) _____ 2) Frozen 3) Thawing
Answer: Freezing
Flashcard 248: If a patient has shoulder dislocation, you MUST assess _____
Answer: neurovascular comprimise
Flashcard 249: Adhesive capsulitis is a clinical diagnosis, but a(n) _____ should be considered
Answer: HbA1c
Flashcard 250: Shoulder dislocation classification: 1) _____ ~95% 2) Posterior dislocation ~4% 3) Inferior dislocation ~1%
Answer: Anterior dislocation
Flashcard 251: Shoulder dislocations will have _____ shoulder pain, reduced shoulder movement, & a(n) palpable dent
Answer: severe
Flashcard 252: Posterior shoulder dislocations are caused by _____ & electrocution
Answer: seizures
Flashcard 253: What is the management for complicated shoulder dislocation (e.g. fracture-dislocation, unsuccessful closed reduction, neurovascular injury)? _____
Answer: Surgical
Flashcard 254: What is the management for uncomplicated shoulder dislocation? _____
Answer: Closed reduction
Flashcard 255: The _____ is the most common joint to dislocate **bonus: why?
Answer: shoulder
Flashcard 256: What imaging is done for shoulder dislocation? _____
Answer: X-ray; AP view + Y or axilliary view BOTH before & after reduction
Flashcard 257: Refer adhesive capsulitis to _____ care if pain and significant disability are present for ≥ 3 months
Answer: secondary
Flashcard 258: What movement is most prominently affected in adhesive capsulitis? _____
Answer: External rotation
Flashcard 259: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: anterior shoulder dislocation
Flashcard 260: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: anterior shoulder dislocation
Flashcard 261: Anterior shoulder dislocations are invariably caused by _____
Answer: trauma
Flashcard 262: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: posterior shoulder dislocation
Flashcard 263: _____ is when the head of humerus dislocates out of the glenoid fossa
Answer: Shoulder dislocation
Flashcard 264: What is the initial management of adhesive capsulitis? _____ Paracetamol (1st), NSAIDs (2nd)
Answer: Physiotherapy/early activity
Flashcard 265: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with an externally rotated shoulder that is close to body (handshake position), and numbness over the deltoid? _____
Answer: Anterior shoulder dislocation
Flashcard 266: Adhesive capsulitis more commonly presents _____laterally and tends to affect the non-dominant shoulder
Answer: uni
Flashcard 267: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with an adducted and internally rotated shoulder following a seizure? _____
Answer: Posterior shoulder dislocation
Flashcard 268: Shoulder dislocations are more common in _____ at 20-29 years old
Answer: males
Flashcard 269: _____ shoulder dislocations present with slight abduction & external rotation
Answer: Anterior
Flashcard 270: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Posterior shoulder dislocation → lightbulb sign
Flashcard 271: _____ shoulder dislocations present with arm held in fixed abduction >125°
Answer: Inferior
Flashcard 272: What is the second-line management for adhesive capsulitis after conservative measures? _____
Answer: Consider intra-articular / oral steroids
Flashcard 273: Which neurovascular structure(s) is commonly injured in anterior shoulder dislocation? _____
Answer: Axillary nerve
Flashcard 274: Adhesive capsulitis classically presents with _____ pain & stiffness/loss of movement (active & passive)
Answer: generalised shoulder
Flashcard 275: Adhesive capsulitis = _____ ROM issues Rotator cuff disease = active ROM issues
Answer: passive and active
Flashcard 276: Describe the three phases of adhesive capsulitis (in terms of pain & range of motion/stiffness)? Freezing: _____ Frozen: reduced shoulder pain, worsening ↓↓ ROM/stiffness Thawing: slowly improving movement
Answer: severe generalised shoulder pain, reduced ↓ ROM/stiffness
Flashcard 277: ACL injuries cause a "_____" sound and sudden swelling of the knee because of haemarthrosis
Answer: popping
Flashcard 278: _____ elbow = lateral epicondylitis Golfer's elbow = medial epicondylitis
Answer: Tennis
Flashcard 279: A +ve _____ is when there is lack of plantar flexion when the calf is squeezed
Answer: Thompson/Simmond’s test
Flashcard 280: What is the gold-standard investigation for a meniscal tear? _____
Answer: MRI
Flashcard 281: What is the initial investigation for ACL injuries? _____
Answer: Full knee X-ray series
Flashcard 282: MCL injuries have _____ joint line tenderness of the knee
Answer: medial
Flashcard 283: What does the drop arm test assess? _____
Answer: Rotator cuff tears (specifically full-thickness tears of the supraspinatus tendon)
Flashcard 284: The _____ test is performed to test for PCL injury
Answer: posterior sag
Flashcard 285: The posterior drawer test is performed with the knee at a(n) _____º angle to test for PCL injury
Answer: 90
Flashcard 286: Function of the _____ muscle may be assessed using the "infraspinatus" test
Answer: infraspinatus
Flashcard 287: What is the gold-standard investigation for ACL injuries? _____
Answer: MRI
Flashcard 288: Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an elbow injury that may be due to repetitive _____ (backhand shots) that causes microtrauma of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) tendon at its origin
Answer: extension
Flashcard 289: Function of the _____ muscle may be assessed using the "empty can" test
Answer: supraspinatus
Flashcard 290: Passive range of motion is _____ in rotator cuff tendinopathy Passive range of motion is normal in rotator cuff tear
Answer: normal
Flashcard 291: Loud pop → pain, inability to move and plantarflex the foot: _____
Answer: Achilles tendon tear/rupture
Flashcard 292: Adhesive capsulitis is split into _____ & secondary classification
Answer: primary (idiopathic)
Flashcard 293: Shoulder pain, tenderness of the greater tuberosity, +ve drop arm test, limitation of external rotation and no relief on corticosteroid injection = _____
Answer: rotator cuff tear
Flashcard 294: Rotator cuff tear with repetitive overhead movements and > 60 years = _____ Rotator cuff tear after a fall or dislocation in a young adult = acute traumatic tear (~10% of cases)
Answer: chronic degenerative tear (most common)
Flashcard 295: Function of the _____ muscle may be assessed using the "Hornblower's" test
Answer: teres minor
Flashcard 296: Rotator cuff disease presents on a spectrum, starting with _____ and ending with rotator cuff tear
Answer: rotator cuff tendinopathy
Flashcard 297: Active range of motion is _____ in rotator cuff tendinopathy Active range of motion is significantly decreased ↓↓ in rotator cuff tear
Answer: decreased ↓
Flashcard 298: What shoulder pathology presents with subacute pain on abduction and is worsened by overhead activities? The pain is also worse at night _____
Answer: Rotator cuff tendinopathy
Flashcard 299: _____ = disorder caused by repetitive tendon strain and subsequent poor tendon healing
Answer: Insertional tendinopathies
Flashcard 300: Adhesive capsulitis is more common in _____ 2:1
Answer: females
Flashcard 301: "_____" test: 1. Passive abduction of patient's arm to 180° 2. Patient asked to lower their arm in a controlled manner Pain at 120-180° indicates acromioclavicular impingement Pain at 60-120° indicates subacromial impingement
Answer: Painful arc
Flashcard 302: What is the management for ACL injuries in old, sedentary patients? _____
Answer: Conservative management
Flashcard 303: ACL injuries are caused by a "_____" mechanism often during sports (e.g. football, basketball, skiing)
Answer: twisting
Flashcard 304: The _____ classically consists of damage to the ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus*
Answer: "unhappy triad"
Flashcard 305: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with elbow pain that worsens with resisted wrist extension? _____
Answer: Lateral epicondylitis ("tennis elbow")
Flashcard 306: Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) is an elbow injury that may be due to repetitive _____ (forehand shots) that causes tendinosis of the pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
Answer: flexion
Flashcard 307: What is the management of lateral/medial epicondylitis? _____ Paracetamol or topical/oral NSAIDs Consider an orthosis to provide support
Answer: Rest, ice/heat
Flashcard 308: Acute "popping" sensation followed by "clicking" during McMurray's test is suggestive of _____
Answer: meniscal tear
Flashcard 309: Rotator cuff _____ are often preceded by rotator cuff tendinopathy
Answer: tears
Flashcard 310: Achilles tendon rupture causes inability to _____
Answer: plantarflex
Flashcard 311: Patients with rotator cuff tendionpathy describe _____ shoulder pain that is referred to the deltoid with overhead activities
Answer: superior anterior
Flashcard 312: Achilles tendon rupture is caused by _____ trauma from physical activity
Answer: indirect
Flashcard 313: ACL injury examination: _____ test is performed at 90° knee flexion Lachman test is performed at 20-30° knee flexion
Answer: Anterior drawer
Flashcard 314: Meniscal tear and mild symptoms / older patients is managed with → _____ Meniscal tear and persistent symptoms / impaired activity is managed with → surgery
Answer: conservative
Flashcard 315: ACL injuries are often _____ PCL injuries are often contact
Answer: non-contact
Flashcard 316: The _____ tendon is the largest tendon in the human body providing attachment of the converged soleus & gastrocneumius muscles to the calcaneus
Answer: achilles
Flashcard 317: Describe the Mill's test for lateral epicondylitis: _____
Answer: Palpate the lateral epicondyle with one hand, while pronating the patient's forearm, fully flexing the wrist, the elbow is extended. +ve result is production of pain in the lateral epicondyle If -ve, can ask the patient to extend the wrist with resistance
Flashcard 318: Pain is worse in rotator cuff _____
Answer: tear
Flashcard 319: Which physical examination test is specific for full thickness tear of the supraspinatus? _____
Answer: Drop-Arm Test
Flashcard 320: ~85% of tennis elbow improves within _____ months to 2 years
Answer: 6
Flashcard 321: The rotator cuff muscles consist of the _____
Answer: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, & subscapularis
Flashcard 322: Function of the _____ muscle may be assessed using the "Gerber's lift off" test
Answer: subscapularis
Flashcard 323: Patients with rotator cuff tendinopathy clasically describes pain worse when _____
Answer: lying on affected side (at night)
Flashcard 324: What is the likely diagnosis in an athlete that felt a "popping sensation" while playing soccer, followed by rapid pain/swelling? Aspiration of the knee yields grossly bloody joint fluid _____
Answer: ACL injury
Flashcard 325: Rotator cuff tendinopathy is often caused by impingement in the _____ and is frequently referred to as subacromial impingement syndrome (SAIS)
Answer: subacromial space
Flashcard 326: What is the management for a suspected rotator cuff tear? _____
Answer: Refer urgently (2 week pathway) → surgical review
Flashcard 327: Muscle strength is _____ in rotator cuff tendinopathy Muscle strength is markedly reduced ↓↓ in rotator cuff tear
Answer: reduced ↓
Flashcard 328: Rotator cuff tendinopathy is a clinical diagnosis, but _____ imaging is gold-standard
Answer: MRI
Flashcard 329: The _____ test is performed by: 1) Full flexion of the knee 2) Followed by extension of the knee with rotation of the tibia and pressure on the opposite side of the knee you want to test
Answer: McMurray
Flashcard 330: Meniscal tears often have restricted _____
Answer: knee extension
Flashcard 331: Twisting injury of the knee = _____ or ACL injury Blow to the lateral or medial knee = MCL or LCL injury
Answer: meniscal
Flashcard 332: _____ injury is the most common knee ligament injury
Answer: ACL
Flashcard 333: The valgus & varus stress test are performed at _____° knee flexion
Answer: 20-30
Flashcard 334: If injected corticosteroid results in no improvement of rotator cuff tendinopathy pain then suspect _____
Answer: rotator cuff tear
Flashcard 335: The _____ test is used to identify injury to the meniscus (of the knee)
Answer: McMurray
Flashcard 336: The “_____ test is” used to identify injury to the achilles tendon
Answer: Thompson/simmond's
Flashcard 337: Rotator cuff tendinopathy occurs from _____ in ~90% of cases
Answer: chronic degeneration overuse
Flashcard 338: What is the management for achilles tendon rupture? _____
Answer: Conservative or surgical
Flashcard 339: LCL injuries have _____ joint line tenderness of the knee
Answer: lateral
Flashcard 340: What is the biggest risk factor for adhesive capsulitis? _____
Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Flashcard 341: What is the investigation to confirm a rotator cuff tear? _____
Answer: MRI (alternative; US)
Flashcard 342: _____ injuries occur from a direct lateral hit to the knee
Answer: MCL
Flashcard 343: The _____ stress test is most commonly used to identify LCL injury
Answer: varus
Flashcard 344: _____ increase ↑ collagen degradation thus are associated with achilles tendon rupture
Answer: Fluoroquinolones
Flashcard 345: What is the initial imaging for achilles tendon rupture? _____
Answer: US
Flashcard 346: _____ is inflammation & fibrosis of the glenohumeral joint capsule leading to contraction
Answer: Adhesive capsulitis ("frozen shoulder")
Flashcard 347: Knee injury that presents acutely with "catching / locking", restricted extension, & joint line tenderness following a twisting injury of the foot in a fixed position _____
Answer: Meniscal tear
Flashcard 348: Lateral/medial epicondylitis is a _____ diagnosis
Answer: clinical
Flashcard 349: The meniscus is split into 3 zones: _____ = inner third, avascular Red-white zone = middle third, poorly vascularised Red zone = outer third, vascularised
Answer: White zone
Flashcard 350: Pain on wrist _____ = lateral epicondylitis Pain on wrist flexion = medial epicondylitis
Answer: extension
Flashcard 351: Lateral epicondylitis typically develops after _____ activities like gardening, house painting, & tennis
Answer: unaccustomed/repetitive
Flashcard 352: The _____ stress test is most commonly used to identify MCL injury
Answer: valgus
Flashcard 353: _____ test is used to identify medial epicondylitis
Answer: Golfer's elbow
Flashcard 354: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient that presents with right shoulder pain and weakness after falling on an outstretched hand? The pain / weakness is worst with abduction and external rotation of the humerus. _____
Answer: Rotator cuff tear
Flashcard 355: Knee pain, restricted extension, joint line tenderness, joint effusion, and popping / clicking on manouvres** is suggestive of _____
Answer: torn meniscus
Flashcard 356: The _____ test and Lachman test are clinical examinations for ACL injury
Answer: anterior drawer
Flashcard 357: Describe the golfer's elbow test for medial epicondylitis: _____
Answer: Palpate the medial epicondyle with one hand, while pronating the patient's forearm, extending the elbow, the wrist is extended. +ve result is production of pain in the medial epicondyle If -ve, can ask the patient to flex the wrist with resistance
Flashcard 358: Management for an MCL, LCL, or PCL injury with involvement of multiple ligaments → _____
Answer: surgical
Flashcard 359: Lateral & medial epicondylitis tend to affect the _____ hand
Answer: dominant
Flashcard 360: The _____ is a common knee injury in contact sports due to lateral force applied to a(n) planted/fixed leg
Answer: "unhappy triad"
Flashcard 361: _____ test is used to identify lateral epicondylitis
Answer: Mill's
Flashcard 362: Local _____ decrease ↓ collagen synthesis thus are associated with tendon rupture
Answer: injections of glucocorticoids
Flashcard 363: What is the initial investigation for a meniscal tear? _____
Answer: Knee X-ray
Flashcard 364: What tendon is most commonly involved in rotator cuff disease? _____
Answer: Supraspinatus
Flashcard 365: The _____ are two crescent-shaped fibrocartilaginous structures positioned between the femur & tibia, serving to distribute load, absorb shock, & enhance joint stability
Answer: menisci
Flashcard 366: _____ = inflammatory and/or degenerative changes of ≥ 1 rotator cuff tendons
Answer: Rotator cuff tendinopathy
Flashcard 367: _____ tear/injury = "popping" at time of injury & rapid swelling/effusion Meniscal tear/injury = "popping" on manouvres & slower-onset swelling/effusion
Answer: ACL
Flashcard 368: What is the management for ACL injuries in young, active, or athletes? _____
Answer: Surgical approach
Flashcard 369: Management for an isolated MCL, LCL, or PCL injury → _____
Answer: conservative
Flashcard 370: Lateral/medial epicondylitis can be treated with _____ injection for short-term relief **why be cautious?
Answer: corticosteroid
Flashcard 371: The most common rotator cuff tear is of the _____ tendon
Answer: supraspinatus
Flashcard 372: Meniscal tears are classified into _____ & degenerative
Answer: acute (trauma)
Flashcard 373: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with elbow pain that worsens with resisted wrist flexion? _____
Answer: Medial epicondylitis ("golfer's elbow")
Flashcard 374: Lateral/medial epicondylitis is often referred to _____ if symptoms remain despite conservative management
Answer: physiotherapy
Flashcard 375: What is the management for rotator cuff tendinopathy? _____ Paracetamol (1st line), oral NSAIDs (2nd line) Refer for a course of physiotherapy
Answer: POLICE
Flashcard 376: _____ injuries occur from a direct medial hit to the knee
Answer: LCL
Flashcard 377: What is the typical first-line imaging for sprains & strains if needed? _____
Answer: X-ray; to rule out a fracture or other complication
Flashcard 378: Especially strong forces in a low ankle sprain can cause _____ by injuring additional ligaments
Answer: joint instability
Flashcard 379: When assessing an injury, it is vital to check for _____ compromise
Answer: neurovascular
Flashcard 380: Bursitis presents with a localised painful/less _____ swelling
Answer: fluctuant
Flashcard 381: _____ can present with muscle pain, tenderness, swelling, & weakness following overstretching, overuse, or sudden forcement movement affecting the muscle or tendon
Answer: Strains
Flashcard 382: What is the management for low ankle sprains? _____ NSAIDs
Answer: "POLICE"
Flashcard 383: Painless swelling of the elbows in a patient that regularly leans on them is suggestive of _____
Answer: olecranon bursitis
Flashcard 384: Prepatellar bursitis can be caused by pressure from _____
Answer: excessive kneeling*
Flashcard 385: High ankle sprain can be assessed by pain on squeezing the tibia & fibula together at the level of the mid-calf = _____ test
Answer: Syndesmosis squeeze
Flashcard 386: _____ function by ↓ friction and acts as a cushion between bones, tendons, muscles, or skin during movement
Answer: Bursa
Flashcard 387: Which ligament of the ankle is the most commonly sprained overall? _____
Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
Flashcard 388: _____ are a stretching or tearing injury of a(n) ligament Strains are a stretching or tearing injury of a(n) muscle or tendon
Answer: Sprains
Flashcard 389: _____ bursitis is commonly seen in runners and typically presents with anteromedial knee pain
Answer: Pes anserine
Flashcard 390: Sprains of the deltoid ligament (medial) are due to an over-_____ of the foot
Answer: eversion
Flashcard 391: What is the management of septic bursitis? _____
Answer: Aspiration & empiric antibiotics
Flashcard 392: What is the most common causative organism in septic bursitis? _____
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Flashcard 393: What is the initial self-management for minor sprains or strains? _____
Answer: "POLICE" Protect Optimal Loading Ice Compression Elevation
Flashcard 394: _____ bursitis is the most common location
Answer: Olecranon
Flashcard 395: What is the management for high ankle sprains? _____
Answer: In general, non-weight bearing orthosis/cast or surgical approach
Flashcard 396: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Flashcard 397: If gram stain and culture of bursal fluid in a patient with prepatellar bursitis is positive, what are the next steps in management? _____
Answer: Drainage and systemic antibiotics
Flashcard 398: Nonseptic bursitis is caused by _____ & direct trauma as well as inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis & gout
Answer: overuse
Flashcard 399: Sprains of the anterior talofibular ligament (lateral) are due to an over-_____ of the foot
Answer: inversion
Flashcard 400: Bursitis are classified as _____ or septic
Answer: nonseptic
Flashcard 401: Ankle sprains are classified into _____, lateral low, & medial low ankle sprains based on location
Answer: high
Flashcard 402: Bursitis is characterised by pain with _____ range of motion
Answer: active
Flashcard 403: What is the likely diagnosis in a 25-year-old man who presents with an inversion injury of his right ankle that occurred during a basketball game? His ankle is swollen, but he is able to bear weight and has no focal tenderness or ligament laxity. _____
Answer: Ankle sprain
Flashcard 404: _____ can present with pain, swelling, bruising, & ↓ joint mobility following a traumatic event
Answer: Sprains
Flashcard 405: Complications of sprains or strains occurs in _____ injuries and injures not properly treated/rehabilitated
Answer: severe
Flashcard 406: What is the management of nonseptic bursitis? _____ NSAIDs
Answer: Rest, elevation, & ice
Flashcard 407: _____ bursitis is the most common type
Answer: Nonseptic
Flashcard 408: _____ is the inflammation of a bursa, typically occuring after repetitive overuse, infection, & direct trauma
Answer: Bursitis
Flashcard 409: What is the investigation for bursitis with concern of septic arthritis or gout? _____
Answer: Aspiration of bursal fluid
Flashcard 410: What is the major risk factor for sprains & strains? _____
Answer: Athlete
Flashcard 411: If gram stain and culture of bursal fluid in a patient with prepatellar bursitis is negative, what is the next step in management? _____
Answer: NSAIDs and activity modification (rest and elevation)
Flashcard 412: What ligaments are affected in medial low ankle sprains? _____
Answer: Deltoid ligament complex
Flashcard 413: What ligaments are affected in high ankle sprains? _____
Answer: Syndesmotic ligament sprain → Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament, posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament, interosseous ligament / membrane
Flashcard 414: Septic bursitis usually occurs in _____ individuals
Answer: immunocomprimised
Flashcard 415: The Ottawa ankle rules is a clinical decision model used to determine whether or not an ankle injury needs a(n) _____ to identify a fracture
Answer: X-ray
Flashcard 416: Septic bursitis patients are more likely to have _____ & fever than non-septic bursitis
Answer: pain
Flashcard 417: Septic bursitis of superficial bursae is often due to _____, and deep bursae is often due to iatrogenic trauma
Answer: trauma of the skin
Flashcard 418: What ligaments are affected in lateral low ankle sprains? _____
Answer: Lateral collateral ligament sprain → anterior talofibular ligament (most common), posterior talofibular ligament, calcaneofibular ligament
Flashcard 419: In the most common sprain of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (high ankle sprain), _____ rotation forces the talus to rotate laterally and push the fibula away from the tibia
Answer: external
Flashcard 420: _____ bursitis is bursitis with infection
Answer: Septic
Flashcard 421: What is a common early clinical feature of compartment syndrome? _____
Answer: Paresthesia (pins / needles)
Flashcard 422: Compartment syndrome is characterised by increased pain with _____ stretching (active or passive)
Answer: passive
Flashcard 423: What is the first-line investigation for acute compartment syndrome? _____
Answer: Intra-compartmental pressure; slit catheter, needle manometry
Flashcard 424: Acute compartment syndrome is often caused by _____ from trauma
Answer: fractures
Flashcard 425: If the delta pressure is _____ mm Hg in compartment syndrome, then a(n) fasciotomy is indicated
Answer: ≤ 30
Flashcard 426: _____ is ↑ pressure within a closed fascial compartment resulting in ischaemia
Answer: Acute compartment syndrome
Flashcard 427: In limb compartment syndrome, increased tissue pressure within a fascial compartment of a limb exceeds the perfusion pressure, leading to venous _____ and arteriolar collapse
Answer: outflow obstruction
Flashcard 428: What is a late clinical feature of compartment syndrome? _____
Answer: Paralysis
Flashcard 429: In compartment syndrome an x-ray is often done to rule out a(n) _____
Answer: fracture
Flashcard 430: Acute compartment syndrome is much more common in _____ and tends to occur < 35
Answer: men
Flashcard 431: The most common fracture to cause acute compartment syndrome are _____ fractures
Answer: tibial shaft
Flashcard 432: Irreversible tissue damage occurs to muscles & nerves after ~_____ of ischaemia in acute compartment syndrome
Answer: 6 hours
Flashcard 433: Acute compartment syndrome presents with pain _____
Answer: out of proportion to analgesia/extent of apparent injury
Flashcard 434: An intra-compartmental pressure of > _____ mm Hg indicates compartment syndrome
Answer: 30
Flashcard 435: Acute compartment syndrome can be caused by _____ injury
Answer: crush
Flashcard 436: Patients with suspected acne fulminans should be _____
Answer: assessed within 24 hours by the on-call hospital dermatology team
Flashcard 437: The basis of pharmacological management of mild-to-moderate acne vulgaris is a(n) _____
Answer: fixed combination of a topical cream for 12 weeks e.g. - topical adapalene + topical benzoyl peroxide - topical tretinoin + topical clindamycin - topical benzoyl peroxide + topical clindamycin
Flashcard 438: _____ may be used in secondary care as an alternative to topical treatments for psoriasis.
Answer: Phototherapy
Flashcard 439: A(n) _____ is a type of wart located on the sole of the foot
Answer: verruca
Flashcard 440: Spot Diagnosis = _____
Answer: Veruccae
Flashcard 441: _____ is NOT associated with increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma Photochemotherapy (PUVA) IS associated with increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: UVB phototherapy
Flashcard 442: Refer acne vulgaris to dermatology if mild-to-moderate acne has not responded to _____ completed courses of treatment
Answer: two
Flashcard 443: Treatment with narrowband UVB phototherapy for psoriasis should ideally be given _____x/week
Answer: 3
Flashcard 444: _____ is the earliest and most common symptom of mestastatic spinal cord compression
Answer: Back pain
Flashcard 445: Acne vulgaris severity: Mild acne = _____ Moderate acne = more widsepread with more papules & pustules Severe acne = widespread papules, pustules and nodules or cysts, often with scarring
Answer: mostly non-inflamed lesions (comedones)
Flashcard 446: Cutaneous warts prognosis if untreated? _____
Answer: 50% spontaneously resolve ≤1year
Flashcard 447: Acne _____ is a rare, severe form of acne that presents with fever & arthralgias
Answer: fulminans
Flashcard 448: For acne vulgaris, topical _____ are used to prevent follicular clogging
Answer: retinoids (adapalene, tretinoin)
Flashcard 449: What is the final-line management for acne vulgaris? _____
Answer: Oral isotretinoin
Flashcard 450: For acne vulgaris, topical _____ are used to prevent follicular clogging, ↓ P.acnes proliferation, & ↓ inflammation
Answer: benzoyl peroxides
Flashcard 451: Are cutaneous warts / veruccae painful? _____
Answer: Veruccae can be painful
Flashcard 452: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Tinea corporis
Flashcard 453: Tinea capitis presents with _____, erythematous, scaly scalp with patches of hair loss
Answer: pruritic
Flashcard 454: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: tinea pedis (moccasin / dry sub-type)
Flashcard 455: What is the second-line management for onychomycosis (if first-line is unsuccessful or more extensive disease)? _____
Answer: Oral antifungal treatment (oral terbinafine)
Flashcard 456: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient that noticed hypopigmented skin lesions on her trunk after returning from a summer vacation in Florida (pictured below)? _____
Answer: Pityriasis versicolor (due to Malassezia infection), AKA tinea versicolor (misnomer)
Flashcard 457: What is the management for tinea corporis/cruris if significant inflammation is present? _____
Answer: Mildly potent topical corticosteroid (hydrocortisone 1%)
Flashcard 458: _____ can transmit dermatophytes from animals to humans
Answer: Pets
Flashcard 459: Tinea is commonly referred to as "_____"
Answer: ringworm
Flashcard 460: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Tinea capitis
Flashcard 461: What is the management for tinea corporis/cruris in very extensive or inflammatory disease? _____
Answer: Oral antifungal (oral terbinafine)
Flashcard 462: _____ are responsible for rashes known as tinea (ringworm)
Answer: Dermatophytes
Flashcard 463: Pityriasis versicolor is characterised by hyper or hypo_____ patches on a patient's skin
Answer: pigmented
Flashcard 464: _____ is ringworm of the foot and often referred to as "athlete's foot"
Answer: Tinea pedis
Flashcard 465: Most common organism responsible for tinea capitis in the UK is _____
Answer: trichophyton tonsurans
Flashcard 466: For patients with tinea capitis a _____ should be co-prescribed for first 2 weeks to ↓ transmission
Answer: topical antifungal (ketaconzaole) shampoo
Flashcard 467: Fungal nail infections are called _____
Answer: onychomycosis
Flashcard 468: Diagnosis of pityriasis versicolor is clinical with thorough history & exam, but it can be confirmed with a(n) _____
Answer: microscopy of skin scrapings
Flashcard 469: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: pityriasis versicolor
Flashcard 470: What investigation is done for suspected tinea capitis? _____
Answer: Skin & hair samples for microscopic & fungal culture examination
Flashcard 471: _____ is a fungal skin infection affecting the stratum corneum caused by yeasts of the Malassezia genus
Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Flashcard 472: Tinea corporis presents with _____ annular (ring-shaped) patches that feels pruritic
Answer: erythematous
Flashcard 473: Onychomycosis presents with abnormal nails that are _____ and have white/yellow discolouration
Answer: thickened
Flashcard 474: Onychomycosis typically affects the _____nails
Answer: toe
Flashcard 475: Contact dermatitis is treated by _____ Liberal application of emollient Consideration of topical corticosteroids
Answer: AVOIDING the irritant/allergen
Flashcard 476: Tinea pedis commonly happens in _____
Answer: adolescence/young adults
Flashcard 477: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Kerion (in tinea capitis)
Flashcard 478: Consider referral to _____ for tinea corporis/cruris if refractory to treatment, severe/extensive infection, or atypical/uncertain diagnosis
Answer: dermatology
Flashcard 479: Risk factors for tinea corporis/cruris are warm, humid environments, sweating, & _____-fitting clothing
Answer: tight
Flashcard 480: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: tinea pedis
Flashcard 481: Dermatophytes that cause tinea corporis/cruris are _____ & Microsporum
Answer: Trichophyton rubrum
Flashcard 482: Hyper/hypopigmented patches of pityriasis versicolor are most commonly located on the _____, back, & upper arms because of ↑ sebum production
Answer: chest
Flashcard 483: Tinea capitis most commonly affets _____
Answer: children
Flashcard 484: _____ is dermatophyte infection the scalp hair follicles and the surrounding skin
Answer: Tinea capitis
Flashcard 485: Contact dermatitis should be escalated for _____ referral if it is occupational
Answer: dermatology
Flashcard 486: In tinea capitis if a(n) _____ is suspected then urgently refer to dermatology
Answer: kerion
Flashcard 487: Tinea pedis management is the same as tinea _____
Answer: corporis / cruris
Flashcard 488: Tinea corporis typically have an erythematous _____ edge and a surrounding a clear centre
Answer: scaly
Flashcard 489: What is the investigation for allergic contact dermatitis? _____
Answer: Patch test
Flashcard 490: Head lice is managed with a choice of _____, physical insecticide (e.g. dimeticone), or wet combing w/a fine-toothed comb
Answer: traditional insecticide (e.g. malathion)
Flashcard 491: _____ psoriasis is the most common variant of psoriasis (~90%)
Answer: Plaque
Flashcard 492: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: (chronic plaque) psoriasis
Flashcard 493: After _____ of no improvement, what is the third-line management for psoriasis? Potent corticosteroid x2 daily up to 4 weeks Or Coal tar preparation applied OD or BD
Answer: 8-12 weeks
Flashcard 494: _____ is a chronic, immune-mediated skin disorder characterised by well-circumscribed, salmon-coloured plaques with silvery scale
Answer: Psoriasis
Flashcard 495: Where are the most common locations of lesions in plaque psoriasis? _____
Answer: SHREK Scalp Hands Rear end (intergluteal cleft) Elbows Knees
Flashcard 496: Psoriasis typically presents on _____ surfaces and the scalp
Answer: extensor
Flashcard 497: Advise patients with cellulitis to _____
Answer: elevate the infection (often leg)
Flashcard 498: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: atopic eczema
Flashcard 499: Cellulitis presents with _____, oedema, & erythema AND can have systemic upset (fever)
Answer: pain
Flashcard 500: Psoriasis presents with nail changes in the form of _____ & onycholysis
Answer: nail pitting
Flashcard 501: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with a rash that began as small papules and progressed to erythematous linear plaques with oozing yellow fluid? The patient was cleaning bushes around the house a few days prior to rash formation. _____
Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis
Flashcard 502: _____ contact dermatitis is a non-immunological inflammatory skin reaction from direct damage by chemical or physical irritants
Answer: Irritant
Flashcard 503: _____ sign (pinpoint bleeding due to scale sloughing/being picked off) is suggestive of psoriasis when picking off the plaque
Answer: Auspitz
Flashcard 504: What is the first-line management for psoriasis? _____ & vitamin D analogue applied x1 daily at seperate times (one in the morning, other in evening) up to 4-8 weeks
Answer: Potent corticosteroid
Flashcard 505: What is the school exclusion for head lice? _____
Answer: None, can still attend school
Flashcard 506: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: (chronic plaque) psoriasis
Flashcard 507: _____ is characterised by well-circumscribed, salmon-coloured plaques with silverly scale
Answer: Psoriasis
Flashcard 508: Chronic urticaria (≥ 6 weeks) can be split into _____, autoimmune urticaria, & chronic inducible urticaria (CINDU)
Answer: chronic spontaneous urticaria
Flashcard 509: Refer to _____ if psoratic arthritis is suspected in psoriasis
Answer: rheumatology
Flashcard 510: After _____ of no improvement, what is the second-line management for psoriasis? Vitamin D or vitamin D anaolgue x2 daily
Answer: 4-8 weeks
Flashcard 511: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Impetigo (non-bullous)
Flashcard 512: Triggers for _____ include stress, infection (URTI, staph, HIV), skin trauma (Koebner phenomenon), drugs (inc. steroid withdrawal)
Answer: psoriasis
Flashcard 513: An important differential for cellulitis is a _____
Answer: DVT
Flashcard 514: Psoriatic patients should apply regular _____ to ↓ scale & ↓ pruritis
Answer: emollients!!
Flashcard 515: Cellulitis is typically diagnosed through _____ & clinical examination alone
Answer: history
Flashcard 516: If psoriasis covers > _____% of body surface area then refer to dermatology
Answer: 10
Flashcard 517: _____ psoriasis is the 2nd most common subtype of psoriasis
Answer: Guttate
Flashcard 518: _____ for atopic eczema should be applied with the lowest effective potency & quantity needed to manage symptoms, based on flare severity
Answer: Topical steroids
Flashcard 519: What is the initial management for localised impetigo? _____
Answer: Hydrogen peroxide 1% cream
Flashcard 520: How frequent do flares occur in atopic eczema? _____
Answer: Typically 2-4x a month
Flashcard 521: _____ is a chronic, pruritic skin condition characterised by inflammation, dryness, and a disrupted skin barrier, often associated with a history of atopy
Answer: Atopic eczema
Flashcard 522: Chronic atopic eczema can result in _____ of the skin
Answer: lichenification
Flashcard 523: _____ potency topical steroids can be used on more severe atopic eczema cases or thicker skin areas e.g. palms or soles
Answer: Higher
Flashcard 524: Atopic eczema is typically a _____ disease
Answer: episodic
Flashcard 525: There are 3 main components of managing atopic eczema: 1. _____ 2. Emollients (moisturising) 3. Topical steroids
Answer: Avoiding triggers
Flashcard 526: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Scabies
Flashcard 527: What is the first-line management for scabies? _____
Answer: Topical permethrin cream
Flashcard 528: Onset of atopic eczema typically occurs at _____
Answer: 3-6 months
Flashcard 529: Atopic eczema typically presents with _____, dry skin lesions that look erythematous
Answer: pruritic
Flashcard 530: Atopic dermatitis is usually distributed in _____ in children & adults
Answer: flexural areas
Flashcard 531: Atopic eczema presenting with rapidly spreading clustered vesicles then suspect _____ and manage with same-day specialist dermatological advice
Answer: eczema herpeticum (HSV)
Flashcard 532: _____ is a parasitic infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei mite causing a significant pruritus
Answer: Scabies
Flashcard 533: A _____ trial of non-sedating antihistamine should be considered if atopic eczema presents with severe itching or urticaria
Answer: 1 month
Flashcard 534: Emollients should be used _____ in atopic eczema
Answer: continuously!!!!
Flashcard 535: Atopic dermatitis can be triggered by exposure to _____/house-dust mites & skin irritants
Answer: pollen
Flashcard 536: Example of a very potent topical corticosteroid for atopic eczema = _____
Answer: dermovate (clobetasol propionate)
Flashcard 537: Infant with itchy, scaly, erythematous lesions on the face, scalp, trunk, and extensor surfaces = _____
Answer: atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Flashcard 538: Atopic dermatitis is usually distributed in _____ & face in infancy
Answer: extensor surfaces
Flashcard 539: What investigation can be used to confirm diagnosis of scabies? _____
Answer: Microscopic examination of skin / skin samples
Flashcard 540: What is the second-line management for scabies if allergic to permethrin? _____
Answer: Topical malathion cream
Flashcard 541: Scabies can present with _____ located on side of fingers, interdigital webs, & flexor aspects of wrists on examination
Answer: linear burrows
Flashcard 542: Example of a moderate topical corticosteroid for atopic eczema = _____
Answer: eumovate (clobetasone butyrate)
Flashcard 543: What is the management for difficult-to-treat scabies? _____
Answer: Oral ivermectin
Flashcard 544: Risk of fracture in metastatic bone disease is determined using the _____
Answer: Mirel Scoring system
Flashcard 545: Bone tumours may present with _____, the most common locations are subtrochanteric femur, humeral head and vertebral body
Answer: pathological fractures
Flashcard 546: Bone metastases may cause _____ and raised ALP
Answer: hypercalcemia
Flashcard 547: Do not use an _____ to rule out spinal metastases or metastatic spinal cord compression
Answer: X-ray
Flashcard 548: What are the most common sites of metastases in bones? 1: _____ 2: Pelvis 3: Ribs 4: Skull 5: Proximal long bones (e.g. femur & humerus)
Answer: Spine
Flashcard 549: People with suspected spinal metastases should recieve an _____ within 1 week
Answer: full spine MRI
Flashcard 550: Bone metastases can be either _____ or osteolytic
Answer: osteoblastic
Flashcard 551: What is the most common presenting symptom of bone metastases? _____
Answer: Bone pain
Flashcard 552: _____ and Radiotherapy are the 2 mainstays of treatment for metastatic spinal cord compression
Answer: Surgery
Flashcard 553: If the risk of fracture for a long bone metastasis is greater than 33% then _____ is indicated
Answer: prophylactic fixation
Flashcard 554: What are the characteristics of back pain that suggest the presence of spinal metastases? • _____ back pain • Progressive back pain • Mechanical pain (e.g. aggraveted by standing, sitting or moving) • Aggravated by straining (e.g. coughing, sneezing or bowel movements) • Night-time back pain disturbing sleep • Localised tenderness • Claudication (pain or cramping in legs when exercising)
Answer: Severe unremitting
Flashcard 555: What are the most common primary tumour locations causing bone metastases? 1: _____ 2: Breast 3: Lung
Answer: Prostate
Flashcard 556: There are 2 main types of pathological pain: _____ and Neuropathic (nerve compression/injury)
Answer: Nociceptive (tissue distortion/injury)
Flashcard 557: What is the management of a contact lens user with suspected keratitis? _____
Answer: Same-day assessment
Flashcard 558: Dry macular degeneration is associated with _____ decrease in vision
Answer: gradual
Flashcard 559: Dry macular degeneration is characterized by _____, which is deposition of yellowish lipid material beneath the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) and within Bruch's membrane
Answer: drusen
Flashcard 560: Which type of macular degeneration is more common (>80%)? _____
Answer: Dry
Flashcard 561: What is the initial investigation of choice for macular degeneration after examination & fundoscopy? _____
Answer: Slit-lamp biomicroscopic examination
Flashcard 562: What is the management of suspected WET macular degeneration in primary care? _____
Answer: Urgent referral to a macula service (treatment should be started promptly)
Flashcard 563: What is the leading cause of blindness in the UK? _____
Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Flashcard 564: Wet macular degeneration is associated with _____ decrease in vision
Answer: rapid
Flashcard 565: Dry macular degeneration is treated with _____ and antioxidant supplements; also smoking cessation if applicable
Answer: multivitamin
Flashcard 566: Wet macular degeneration is treated with smoking cessation (if applicable) and _____
Answer: anti-VEGF injections
Flashcard 567: Macular degeneration presents with pain_____ loss of vision centrally-located
Answer: less
Flashcard 568: _____ macular degeneration has the worse prognosis
Answer: Wet
Flashcard 569: Traditionally age-related macular degeneration is classified as _____ & wet macular degeneration
Answer: dry macular degeneration
Flashcard 570: What is the management of keratitis? _____ Topical antibiotics Cyclopentolate (cycloplegic-mydriatic drug) for pain relief
Answer: Terminate use of contact lenses
Flashcard 571: Fundoscopic diagnosis: _____
Answer: Macular degeneration; Drusen
Flashcard 572: Severe macular degeneration can present with _____, which is known as Charles-Bonnet syndrome
Answer: visual hallucinations
Flashcard 573: Macular degeneration presents with _____ visual acuity
Answer: ↓ or normal
Flashcard 574: What is the likely diagnosis in an elderly patient with progressive vision loss over several months? When the patient is asked to look at a small spot on a (amsler) grid made of vertical and horizontal lines, he describes the vertical lines as bent and wavy. _____
Answer: Macular degeneration
Flashcard 575: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient that wears contacts and presents with sudden-onset eye pain and discharge? On examination, there is thick, globular yellow discharge. The cornea is hazy and ulcerated. _____
Answer: Contact lens-associated keratitis
Flashcard 576: Macular degeneration presents with _____ described as straight lines appearing crooked/wavy
Answer: metamorphopsia
Flashcard 577: In central retinal artery occlusion fundoscopy may show _____
Answer: a "cherry-red" spot at the centre of the macula
Flashcard 578: Retinal detachment eventually results in monocular loss of vision like a(n) "_____"
Answer: curtain drawn down
Flashcard 579: Acute management of central retinal artery occlusion within 90-100 minutes attempt an _____
Answer: ocular massage
Flashcard 580: _____ is an inflammation of the conjunctiva caused by viral, or bacterial pathogens
Answer: Infective conjunctivitis
Flashcard 581: Acute management of central retinal artery occlusion if suspected giant cell arteritis is _____
Answer: IV corticosteroids!
Flashcard 582: Describe a systemic clinical exam for suspected central retinal artery occlusion: _____
Answer: Eyes: - Fundoscopy (cherry red spot) - Swinging light test (complete/relative pupillary defect) Cardiac: - Carotid auscultation (may reveal bruits from atherosclerosis→ carotid artery disease) - Auscultation (murmur suggesting possible cardiac embolism) - Radial pulse (AF screening) Giant cell arteritis: - Thorough history → screen for jaw claudication & headaches - Palpate temporal artery for tenderness & mastification muscles
Flashcard 583: Central retinal artery occlusion can also be caused by: _____ causes (e.g. giant cell arteritis, SLE) Hypercoagulable disorders Retinal migraine (vasospasm) in younger patients
Answer: Inflammatory
Flashcard 584: Infective conjunctivitis _____ = serous dischage Infective conjunctivitis bacterial = muco-/purulent discharge
Answer: viral
Flashcard 585: Some patients with central retinal artery occlusion may have macular sparing because of _____
Answer: the cilioretinal artery which may preserve central visual acuity
Flashcard 586: In central retinal artery occlusion swinging light test will show _____
Answer: complete or relative afferent pupillary defect
Flashcard 587: Diagnosis of _____ should be ruled out in someone presenting with suspected central retinal artery occlusion because it is reversible
Answer: giant cell arteritis
Flashcard 588: Central retinal artery occlusion is characterized by acute, _____ monocular vision loss
Answer: painless
Flashcard 589: _____ presents with sudden monocular painless visual loss
Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Flashcard 590: _____ is the neurosensory retina separates from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium
Answer: Retinal detachment
Flashcard 591: Treat viral infective conjunctivitis with _____
Answer: supportive measures
Flashcard 592: Infective conjunctivitis is often referred to as "_____"
Answer: pink eye
Flashcard 593: _____ is an opthalmic emergency that is blockage of the blood flow in the central retinal artery causing painless vision loss
Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Flashcard 594: The most common cause of central retinal artery occlusion in patients <40yrs is _____
Answer: cardiac emboli (AF, valvular disease, infective endocarditis, congenital heart disease)
Flashcard 595: Intra-ocular pressure in primary open angle glaucoma (POAG) is most commonly _____, but normal-tension glaucoma can also occur
Answer: ↑
Flashcard 596: Primary open angle glaucoma (POAG) is typically _____-lateral
Answer: bi
Flashcard 597: Fundoscopy findings for patients with cataracts are _____ & hazy/obscured fundus
Answer: diminished red reflex
Flashcard 598: Primary open angle glaucoma (POAG) risk factors: _____ European or African descent Diabetes mellitus Myopia Corticosteroids use
Answer: Family history
Flashcard 599: What is the first-line management for primary open-angle glaucoma with a IOP of ≥ 24 mmHg? _____
Answer: 360° selective laser trabeculoplasty
Flashcard 600: Describe the pathophysiology of acute angle closure glaucoma: _____
Answer: The lens & iris come into close apposition, causing obstruction of aqueous humour outflow from the posterior into the anterior chamber. This then blocks off the drainage into the trabecular meshwork because of the pressures
Flashcard 601: If acute angle closure glaucoma is NOT treated it will result in _____
Answer: permanent vision loss in that eye
Flashcard 602: _____-angle glaucoma results in a painful, red eye and the pupil is fixed/non-reactive & semi-dilated
Answer: Acute closed
Flashcard 603: Primary open angle glaucoma (POAG) develops _____
Answer: gradually
Flashcard 604: Cataracts often present with significant _____ from car headlights at night
Answer: glare
Flashcard 605: What is the second-line management of primary open-angle glaucoma (360° SLT unsuitable or need additional treatment)? _____
Answer: Prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrops
Flashcard 606: What are the fundoscopy findings for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG): _____, optic disc pallor, & bayonetting of vessels
Answer: Optic disc cupping
Flashcard 607: Primary open angle glaucoma (POAG) presents with _____ visual field loss & ↓ visual acuity
Answer: peripheral
Flashcard 608: Management for primary-open angle glaucoma following 360° SLT & PGA drops? _____ If POAG is refractory, consider trabeculectomy
Answer: Beta blocker eye drops (e.g. timolol) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drops (e.g. dorzolamide) Sympathomimetic eye drops (e.g. brimonidine)
Flashcard 609: _____ is a sight-threatening emergency marked by a sudden ↑ in IOP due to obstruction of aqueous humour outflow
Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG)
Flashcard 610: O/E patients with cataracts will usually have _____ visual acuity
Answer: ↓
Flashcard 611: What is the hallmark differentiator of primary open angle glaucoma (POAG) vs acute angle closure glaucoma? _____
Answer: Open iridocorneal angle on gonioscopy
Flashcard 612: _____ conditions (e.g. acute glaucoma, chronic uveitis, previous retinal detachment) can contribute to cataract formation
Answer: Ocular
Flashcard 613: _____ is a chronic, progressive optic neuropathy with open anterior chamber angles
Answer: Primary open angle glaucoma (POAG)
Flashcard 614: What is the initial management of acute angle closure glaucoma? _____
Answer: Emergency ophthalmology review + IOP-decreasing medications
Flashcard 615: Uveitis aetiology is split into: _____ Infectious = e.g. HSV, VZV, CMV; bacterial keratitis, scleritis, syphilis, lyme disease, TB Idiopathic = most common
Answer: Noninfectious = systemic autoimmune diseases, trauma, drug-induced
Flashcard 616: Blepharitis symptoms are usually _____-lateral
Answer: bi
Flashcard 617: What is the acute pharmacological management of Meniere's disease? _____ or antihistamine
Answer: Prochlorperazine
Flashcard 618: What is the management for noninfectious uveitis? _____ topical cycloplegics (cyclopentolate 1% )
Answer: topical corticosteroids
Flashcard 619: _____ is an inflammatory condition affecting the uveal tract, which affects the iris, ciliary body, & choroid
Answer: Uveitis
Flashcard 620: Anterior uveitis has a genetic predisposition to _____ autoimmune conditions
Answer: HLA-B27
Flashcard 621: A patient presents with a recent history of sarcoidosis. They have redness around the cornea, which does not blanch on pressure. The redness is unilateral. Their iris in injected, and their pupil is small and irregular. The cornea itself appears normal. What is likely occurring? _____
Answer: Anterior uveitis
Flashcard 622: What is the typical presentation for anterior uveitis? _____
Answer: Painful red eye that is sensitive to light
Flashcard 623: What investigation is done for anterior uveitis? _____
Answer: Slit lamp biomicroscopy
Flashcard 624: How does visual acuity change in anterior uveitis? _____
Answer: Worsens with severity and duration of inflammation
Flashcard 625: _____ may present with crusting of the eyelashes, thickened eyelid margins, and a history of waking with eyelashes stuck together
Answer: Blepharitis
Flashcard 626: Anterior uveitis can present with significant _____
Answer: photophobia
Flashcard 627: _____ is a chronic inflammatory condition of the eyelid margins
Answer: Blepharitis
Flashcard 628: Glaucoma is has a raised _____ intraocular pressure, which causes optic nerve damage, leading to progressive peripheralvisual field loss and optic disc cupping or pallor visible on ophthalmoscopy
Answer: ↑
Flashcard 629: The most common type of uveitis is _____ uveitis in ~78% of cases
Answer: anterior
Flashcard 630: Uveitis can result in permenant _____ of not treated
Answer: visual loss
Flashcard 631: _____ can progress into glaucoma
Answer: Ocular hypertension
Flashcard 632: What is the management for infectious uveitis? _____ + topical corticosteroid & topical cycloplegics
Answer: Topical/systemic antibiotics
Flashcard 633: Eczema herpiticum is a severe skin infection caused by _____
Answer: herpes simplex virus 1 or 2
Flashcard 634: Eczema herpeticum infection usually occurs in _____ with a history of atopic dermatitis (e.g. eczema)
Answer: children
Flashcard 635: How should patients with suspected eczema herpeticum be managed? _____ and IV acyclovir
Answer: Same-day specialist dermatological advice
Flashcard 636: Patients with intermittent ischaemia can predict _____
Answer: the specific distance they can walk before the pain onsets
Keywords: Orthopaedics & MSK flashcards, medical flashcards, NEET PG preparation, USMLE Step 1 flashcards, Anki alternative, spaced repetition medical, OnCourse flashcards
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