General Surgery — Flashcards
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Infective endocarditis causing congestive cardiac failure is an indication for _____
_____ are indicated when there is diagnostic uncertainty or plans for surgery in urinary incontinence
_____ in case of rupture is mild risk factor for tubal infertility
Inguinal hernias should be referred for _____ even if they are asymptompatic
_____ can occur after stoma drainage post-operatively for ileostomy, due to volume depletion and dehydration
_____ is seen in gastroenterological surgery due to the benefit of acclerated return to normal bowel function after abdominal surgery
Hint: Analgesia
The most common cause of reduced blood flow to the calf muscles is stenosis in the _____
Tumour of the Splenic Flexure indicates a _____
Open surgical techniques are used for _____ in critical limb ischaemia
Perianal Abcesses may also present with spiking _____
General Surgery UK Medical PG Flashcards - Medical Study Cards
Master General Surgery with OnCourse flashcards. These spaced repetition flashcards are designed for medical students preparing for NEET PG, USMLE Step 1, USMLE Step 2, MBBS exams, and other medical licensing examinations.
General Surgery Flashcard Deck - 958 Cards
Flashcard 1: Infective endocarditis causing congestive cardiac failure is an indication for _____
Answer: emergency valve replacement surgery
Flashcard 2: _____ are indicated when there is diagnostic uncertainty or plans for surgery in urinary incontinence
Answer: Urodynamic Studies
Flashcard 3: _____ in case of rupture is mild risk factor for tubal infertility
Answer: Emergency Appendectomy
Flashcard 4: Inguinal hernias should be referred for _____ even if they are asymptompatic
Answer: routine repair
Flashcard 5: _____ can occur after stoma drainage post-operatively for ileostomy, due to volume depletion and dehydration
Answer: Metabolic Acidosis
Flashcard 6: _____ is seen in gastroenterological surgery due to the benefit of acclerated return to normal bowel function after abdominal surgery
Answer: Epidural Analgesia
Flashcard 7: The most common cause of reduced blood flow to the calf muscles is stenosis in the _____
Answer: Superficial Femoral Artery (SFA)
Flashcard 8: Tumour of the Splenic Flexure indicates a _____
Answer: Left Sided Hemicolectomy
Flashcard 9: Open surgical techniques are used for _____ in critical limb ischaemia
Answer: long segment lesions >10cm
Flashcard 10: Perianal Abcesses may also present with spiking _____
Answer: temperatures
Flashcard 11: An ABPI value of >1 can indicate vessel calcification common in _____
Answer: diabetics
Flashcard 12: Diverticular are most commonly found in the _____
Answer: sigmoid colon
Flashcard 13: Inguinal Hernias are _____ to the pubic tubercle
Answer: superomedial
Flashcard 14: Endovascular techniques are typically used for _____ in critical limb ischaemia
Answer: short segment stenosis <10cm
Flashcard 15: Congenital inguinal hernias should be _____ due to risk of incarceration
Answer: surgically repaired immediately
Flashcard 16: Are inguinal hernias repaired _____
Answer: open
Flashcard 17: On a CT scan you will be able to observe _____ in Diverticulitis
Answer: Pericolic Stranding
Flashcard 18: Patients with a flare-up of diverticulitis not resolving should be admitted and treated with _____
Answer: IV ceftriaxone + metronidazole
Flashcard 19: _____ gene mutations are associated with HNPCC colorectal cancer (Lynch Syndrome)
Answer: MSH2/MLH1
Flashcard 20: _____ is the first-line imaging in peripheral artery disease
Answer: Duplex ultrasound
Flashcard 21: What would a patient with known diverticular disease preseting with acute abdominal pain and pneumaturia indicate _____
Answer: A colovescial fistula has formed
Flashcard 22: The initial management of acute limb ischaemia includes _____
Answer: analgesia, IV heparin and vascular review
Flashcard 23: In an emergency setting when a colonic cancer is associated with perforation what is indicated _____
Answer: end colostomy (Hartmann's procedure)
Flashcard 24: Claudication affecting the _____ is likely to present with calf pain rather than iliac vessel claudication which causes buttock pain
Answer: femoral vessels
Flashcard 25: Patient with suspected colonic cancer presents with sudden abdominal pain, guarding and rigidity what is going on _____
Answer: bowel perforation
Flashcard 26: First-line imaging for suspected Diverticuliitis is _____
Answer: CT Abdo Pelvis with contrast
Flashcard 27: Inguinal Hernia presenting in the first few months of life indicates a _____
Answer: Urgent referral to surgery
Flashcard 28: What is the investigation of choice for varicose veins _____
Answer: Venous Duplex Ultrasound
Flashcard 29: _____ can precede the devlopment of an arterial thrombus if it is accidentally injected into an artery instead of a vein
Answer: Heroin Use
Flashcard 30: Abdomino-perineal resection is perferred over Anterior Resection in very low Anal Verge tumours within _____ from the anal verge
Answer: 5cm
Flashcard 31: What would an anal fissure found in the 3 o'clock position prompt _____
Answer: A 2 week wait referral to the colorectal surgeons
Flashcard 32: If a patient presenting with a typical history of Diverticulitis then _____
Answer: empirical treatment can start without imaging
Flashcard 33: A flare up of diverticulitis is initally managed with _____ at home. If they do not improve within 72 hours then admission to hospital
Answer: oral antibiotics
Flashcard 34: Initial investigation for patients with suspected acute limb ischaemia is _____
Answer: handheld arterial doppler ultrasound
Flashcard 35: Example of a bulk forming laxative is _____
Answer: Isphagula Hulk
Flashcard 36: Investigation of choice for a Diverticular Stricture is _____
Answer: Laparotomy
Flashcard 37: Atrial fibrillation is a risk factor for _____ acute limb ischaemia
Answer: embolic
Flashcard 38: The imaging for a colovesicular fistula is _____
Answer: Abdominal CT scan
Flashcard 39: Femoral Hernias are _____ to the pubic tubercle
Answer: inferolateral
Flashcard 40: What is the investigation of choice in checking the hisence of an anastamosis _____
Answer: Gastrografin Enema
Flashcard 41: Critical limb ischaemia presents as pain at _____ for greater than 2 weeks often at night, not helped by analgesia
Answer: rest
Flashcard 42: On an audiogram ‘Mixed Hearing Loss’ both air conduction and bone conduction are impaired with _____ on examination
Answer: air conduction being worse than bone conduction
Flashcard 43: {{c1:Nasal Polyps}} are uncommon in children and their presence should raise suspicion for _____
Answer: cystic fibrosis
Flashcard 44: How long is the course of Oral Flucloxacillin in Mastitis _____
Answer: 10-14 days
Flashcard 45: Fat necrosis of the breast may follow _____
Answer: trivial or unnoticed trauma
Flashcard 46: Branchial cysts are a _____ lump that presents in late childhood/early adulthood
Answer: congenital
Flashcard 47: Milia are small, benign, _____ that typically appear around the face, more common in newborns
Answer: keratin-filled cysts
Flashcard 48: Where do Branchial Cysts classically appear? _____
Answer: In-front of the Sternocleidomastoid
Flashcard 49: Vestibular Neuronitis is a cause of _____ that often develops following a viral infection
Answer: vertigo
Flashcard 50: Management for Vestibular Neuronitis = _____ for rapid relief for severe cases
Answer: buccal or IM prochloroperazine
Flashcard 51: COCP should be used in _____ with topical agents
Answer: combination
Flashcard 52: Duct Ectasia presents with _____ and a creamy nipple discharge
Answer: nipple retraction
Flashcard 53: _____ is advised in duct ectasia
Answer: Smoking cessation
Flashcard 54: Majority of Molluscum Contagiosum cases occur in _____ with a maxiumum incidence in ages 1-4 years
Answer: children
Flashcard 55: What medications can cause Tinnitus: _____
Answer: Aspirin
Flashcard 56: If conservative therapy in Cyclical Mastalgia don't help then _____ such as danazol may be effective
Answer: hormonal therapy
Flashcard 57: Molluscum contagiosum spares the _____
Answer: palms of hands and soles of feet
Flashcard 58: Women with cyclical mastalgia should be advised to wear a _____
Answer: supportive bra
Flashcard 59: Acne Vulgaris should be considered for a referral if they present with: _____ Acne with persistant pigmentary changes Acne is causing or contributing to persistant psychological distress/mental health disorder
Answer: Acne with scarring
Flashcard 60: A 'snow-storm' sign on ultrasound of axillary lymph nodes indicates _____
Answer: extracapsular breast implant rupture
Flashcard 61: _____ may be used to alleviate less severe cases of vestibular neuronitis
Answer: A short oral course o prochloroperazine, or an antihistamine
Flashcard 62: Molluscum Contagiosum is a member of the _____
Answer: Poxviridae family
Flashcard 63: Molluscum Contagiosum is a _____ condition that spontaneously resolves within 18 months
Answer: self-limiting
Flashcard 64: Otosclerosis causes _____
Answer: conductive deafness
Flashcard 65: Duct Papillomas _____ increase the risk of malignancy
Answer: Do Not
Flashcard 66: Extensive umbilicated lesions in HIV is indicative of _____
Answer: Molluscum Contagiosum
Flashcard 67: Anastrazole and letrozole are aromatase inhibtors that _____
Answer: reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis
Flashcard 68: Features of Ramsay Hunt Syndrome includes: _____
Answer: Auricular Pain (first-feature) Facial Nerve Palsy Vesicular Rash around the Ear Vertigo & Tinnitus
Flashcard 69: Duct Ectasia can be confused with _____ which presents with periareolar infections
Answer: periductal mastitis
Flashcard 70: Intranasal steroids should only be considered for sinusitis if symptoms have persisted for _____
Answer: 10 days or more
Flashcard 71: Pseudomal Folliculitis due to Hot tub folliculitis is usually _____ in immunocompetent individuals, resolving within 7-14 days
Answer: self-limiting
Flashcard 72: On examination a Nasal Septal Haematoma will present with a _____
Answer: bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum
Flashcard 73: Which topical antibiotic is used to treat Bacterial Conjunctivitis _____
Answer: Chloramphenicol
Flashcard 74: Rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa may occur upon withdrawal of nasal decongestants which is known as _____
Answer: Rhinitis Medicamentosa
Flashcard 75: Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is caused by the reactivation of the _____ in the 7th Cranial Nerve
Answer: Varicella Zoster Virus
Flashcard 76: Unilateral symptoms in Chronic Rhinosinusitis (e.g. facial pain on bending forward) is a _____ therefore needs a referral to ENT
Answer: RED FLAG
Flashcard 77: There is a _____ chance of siblings and children of BRAC1 carriers to also have the gene
Answer: 50/50
Flashcard 78: Features of Vestibular Neuronitis: _____
Answer: Recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days Nausea & Vomiting may be present Horizontal nystagmus NO HEARING LOSS OR TINNITUS
Flashcard 79: Managment of simple breast cysts is _____
Answer: reassurance and discharge with safety-netting advice
Flashcard 80: molluscum contagiosum is _____ so sensible to avoid sharing towels, clothing and baths with uninfected people
Answer: contagious
Flashcard 81: Tinnitus is the perception of noise within the ears or head _____
Answer: without an external source
Flashcard 82: On an Audiogram both air conduction and bone conduction being impaired means there is _____
Answer: sensorineural hearing loss
Flashcard 83: Hidradenitis Suppurativa is a chronic painful inflammatory skin disorder. Characterised by the development of inflammatory nodules, pustules, _____ and scars in the intertriginous areas
Answer: sinus tracts
Flashcard 84: Intraductal papillomas present with a _____ originating from a single duct
Answer: clear or blood stained disharge
Flashcard 85: Management for a Duct Papilloma is a _____
Answer: Microdochectomy
Flashcard 86: What medications can cause Tinnitus _____
Answer: Aspirin/NSAIDs Aminoglycosides Loop Diuretics Quinine
Flashcard 87: Cyclical Mastalgia is breast pain that _____
Answer: varies in intesity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle
Flashcard 88: Paget's disease of the nipple presents as an _____ which is associated with underlying malignancy
Answer: eczematous areolar
Flashcard 89: In 10% of cases of Otosclerosis, there is redness of the promontory of the cochlea seen through the tympanic membrane due to prominent vascularity known as _____
Answer: Schwartz sign
Flashcard 90: Conservative first-line treatment for Cyclical Mastalgia includes _____
Answer: standard oral and topical analgesia
Flashcard 91: Symptoms of Fibroadenosis may worsen prior to _____
Answer: menstruation
Flashcard 92: _____ is a common, benign breast condition where milk-producing lobules become enlarged and disorted by scar-like fibrous tissue
Answer: Sclerosing Adenosis
Flashcard 93: The notable adverse effects of Tamoxifen is the increase risk of _____
Answer: VTE
Flashcard 94: _____ is associated with skin thethering of the breast
Answer: Fat Necrosis
Flashcard 95: _____ presents like folliculitis in African or African-Caribbean Men in the bearded area but due to irritation rather than infection
Answer: Pseudofolliculitis Barbae
Flashcard 96: Fibroadenosis is the presentation of _____ that may be painful
Answer: lumpy-breasts
Flashcard 97: What is the management of Ramsay Hunt Syndrome: _____
Answer: Oral Aciclovir & Corticosteroids
Flashcard 98: Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is also known as _____
Answer: Herpes Zoster Oticus
Flashcard 99: What organism is also known as Group A Streptococcus (GAS)? _____
Answer: Streptococcus Pyogenes
Flashcard 100: Molluscum contagiosum can be found on the genitalia, pubis, thighs and _____ in adults due to sexual contact
Answer: lower abdomen
Flashcard 101: _____ is the most common bacterial cause of Otitis Media
Answer: Haemophilus Influenza
Flashcard 102: Branchial cysts characteristically contain _____
Answer: cholesterol crystals
Flashcard 103: Treatment is _____ in Molluscum Contagiousum
Answer: not usually recommended
Flashcard 104: On an Audiogram in conductive hearing loss only _____ is impaired
Answer: air conduction
Flashcard 105: Untreated nasal septal haematomas can result in _____ due to irreversible septal necrosis
Answer: ‘saddle-nose’ deformity
Flashcard 106: What is done prior to treatment with Aortic Valve Replacement (AVR) _____
Answer: angiogram
Flashcard 107: _____ may be used in adults with critical aortic stenosis not fit for valve replacement
Answer: Balloon Valvuloplasty
Flashcard 108: If Aortic Stenosis patient is asymptomatic a _____ with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction then consider surgery
Answer: valvular gradient >40mmHg
Flashcard 109: What surgical procedure is used in Aortic Stenosis for patients with high operative risk _____
Answer: transcatheter AVR (TAVR)
Flashcard 110: Aortic Dissection can involve the distal aorta leading to _____
Answer: limb ischaemia
Flashcard 111: In Type A dissections surgical managment alongside _____ whilst awaiting intervention
Answer: blood pressure control to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg
Flashcard 112: What is the treatment for Primary Hyperparathyroidism? 3
Answer: • Definitive = total parathyroidectomy - Cinacalcet -> calcium mimetic - Conservative management, if calcium <0.25mmol/l, >50 yo, no end-organ damage
Flashcard 113: What ENT Differentials could cause Falls? 2
Answer: • BPPV • Ear Wax
Flashcard 114: How is catheter ablation performed: _____ Typically via the groin
Answer: percutaneously
Flashcard 115: What is the 'Double-sickening' sign?
Answer: • Associated with bacterial sinusitis • An initial period of recovery followed by a sudden worsening of symptoms • When initial viral sinusitis worsens due to secondary bacterial infection
Flashcard 116: What is Matitis?
Answer: • Inflammation of the breast tissue • Typically associated with breastfeeding
Flashcard 117: When is suxamethonium also contraindicated?
Answer: • Penetrating eye injuries / acute narrow angle glaucoma • Suxamethonium increases intra-ocular pressure • Myasthenia Gravis
Flashcard 118: What disease is non-malignant and presents with thick green nipple discharge, involved with breast involution?
Answer: • Duct ectasia
Flashcard 119: Patient presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo, fluctuating sensineural hearing loss, and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the affected ear, diagnosis?
Answer: • Meniere's disease
Flashcard 120: Where is a common site for epistaxis to originate?
Answer: • Little's area in the nasal septum • It is the confluence of 4 arteries
Flashcard 121: • What is a skin cyst in the middle ear and mastoid, with a foul-smelling discharge?
Answer: • Cholesteatoma
Flashcard 122: When will a myringoplasty need to be performed?
Answer: • When a perforated tympanic membrane does not heal by itself
Flashcard 123: What is recommended after a woman has had a wide-local excision for DCIS?
Answer: • Whole breast radiotherapy
Flashcard 124: What should you consider in people aged <30 years with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain?
Answer: • Non-urgent appointment at the breast clinic
Flashcard 125: What is the management for sudden-onset hearing loss?
Answer: • High-dose oral corticosteroids (prednisolone)
Flashcard 126: Beta-blockers are known to exacerbate which skin condition?
Answer: • Plaque psoriasis
Flashcard 127: When should Antiplatets be stopped before surgery?
Answer: • 5-7 days
Flashcard 128: What is blood stained nipple discharge associated with?
Answer: • Ductal papilloma
Flashcard 129: Breast pain that varies in intesity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle, with no palpable masses or nodularity?
Answer: • Cyclical mastalgia
Flashcard 130: What is an unexplained persistant sore throat an indication for?
Answer: • 2-week wait referral
Flashcard 131: What makes up the Centor criteria for whether a sore throat is due to a bacterial infection?
Answer: C - Can't Cough E - Tonsillar Exudate N - Nodes - Anterior Cervical Lymphadenopathy T - Temperature >38 C (Fever)
Flashcard 132: How should minor bleeding be managed in a patient with an INR of 5.0–8.0 on warfarin?
Answer: Stop warfarin, give intravenous vitamin K 1–3 mg, and restart when INR is less than 5.0.
Flashcard 133: What is the management of fibroadenomas if >3cm?
Answer: • Surgical excision usually
Flashcard 134: FEC-D is used to:
Answer: • Downstage a primary lesion prior to surgery (neo-adjuvanant) • If there is axillary node disease after surgery (adjuvant)
Flashcard 135: What distinguishes vestibular neuronitis from labyrinthitis?
Answer: • Unaffected hearing loss in vestibular neuronitis
Flashcard 136: What do Auricular haematomas warrant?
Answer: • Same day assessment by ENT *prompt incision and drainage is needed to prevent 'cauliflower ear' deformity =
Flashcard 137: Why is mastoiditis a medical emergency?
Answer: Potential risk of meningitis
Flashcard 138: Treatment for quinsy?
Answer: IV antibiotics + surgical drainage; tonsillectomy may be considered in 6 weeks
Flashcard 139: Who should assess all post-tonsillectomy haemorrhages?
Answer: ENT specialist
Flashcard 140: When is Tamoxifen used in Breast Cancer management?
Answer: • ER +ve women • who are pre- or perimenopausal
Flashcard 141: What drugs can cause malignant hyperthermia?
Answer: • Suxamethonium • Halothane
Flashcard 142: How is mastoiditis typically diagnosed and treated?
Answer: Diagnosed clinically; treated with IV antibiotics
Flashcard 143: What should be done with ACE inhibitors and ARBs prior to surgery?
Answer: Discontinue 24 hours before due to risk of hypotension with anaesthesia
Flashcard 144: Persistent mouth ulcer raises suspicion of which cancer?
Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Flashcard 145: When prescribing fluids, what is the potassium requirment per day?
Answer: 1mmol/kg/day
Flashcard 146: Suspected malignant otitis externa should be investigated with a _____ and MC&S (swab)
Answer: CT/MRI head with contrast
Flashcard 147: Following grommet insertion for otitis media with effusion, a _____ must be performed 6 weeks later
Answer: hearing test
Flashcard 148: _____ tonsillitis presents with sudden-onset fever, severe pain on swallowing, exudative tonsils, & cervical lymphadenopathy
Answer: Bacterial
Flashcard 149: The FeverPAIN criteria for isolating strep throat: _____ Purulent tonsils Attend rapidly (within 3 days of onset) severly Inflamed tonsils No cough
Answer: Fever during previous 24hrs
Flashcard 150: What are unilateral nasal polyps?
Answer: • A red flag symptom -> refer to ENT -> exclude malignancy
Flashcard 151: _____ and Pip-taz may be used to treat malignant otitis externa due to their coverage of psuedomonas
Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Flashcard 152: Uncomplicated otitis externa is managed with _____ with or without a topical steroid
Answer: topical antibiotics
Flashcard 153: Acute otitis media is a _____ diagnosis
Answer: clinical
Flashcard 154: Malignant otitis externa is most commonly caused by _____
Answer: pseudomonas
Flashcard 155: What is the management of suspected viral tonsillitis? _____
Answer: Supportive; simple analgesia (paracetamol or ibuprofen) & fluids
Flashcard 156: Acute otitis media presents with: _____ which presents as ear tugging and crying in infants Conductive hearing loss which presents as speech/language delay in infants Otorrhoea if the tympanic membrane is ruptured Fever
Answer: Otalgia
Flashcard 157: Otoscopy of otitis externa will show an _____ & erythematous external canal with a non-bulging tympanic membrane which may be obscured by debris
Answer: oedematous
Flashcard 158: What is the gold standard for when a patient should stop her oral contraceptive pill?
Answer: • 4 weeks prior
Flashcard 159: The FeverPAIN criteria for likelihood of strep throat: _____ Purulent tonsils Attend rapidly (within 3 days of onset) severly Inflamed tonsils No cough
Answer: Fever during previous 24hrs
Flashcard 160: What can be an adverse effect of axillary node clearance in Breast Cancer surgery?
Answer: • Arm lymphedema and functional arm impairment • sensations of: heaviness, tightness, and weakness along with a limited range of motion
Flashcard 161: Patients with acute otitis media who hav otorrhoea or are <2 years old with bilateral infection should be considered for an _____ or delayed antibiotic prescription
Answer: immediate
Flashcard 162: Patients with acute otitis media should be given _____ if there is no improvement within 3 days
Answer: antibiotics
Flashcard 163: What is the management of suspected bacterial tonsillitis? 1st-line: _____ Alternative: Clarithromycin
Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V)
Flashcard 164: _____ is a severe, necrotising infection of the external auditory canal which can extend to the skull base
Answer: Malignant otitis externa
Flashcard 165: The _____ & Centor criteria are used in sore throat/tonsillitis to assess the likelihood of streptococcal infection and guide the need for antibiotics
Answer: FeverPAIN
Flashcard 166: Otitis externa in the presence of a _____ may indicate spread of infection
Answer: fever >38 C
Flashcard 167: Tonsillectomy is indicated if: • ≥ _____ episodes in one year • ≥ 5 episodes per year for 2 years • ≥ 3 episodes per year for 3 years
Answer: 7
Flashcard 168: The _____ is shorter and more horizontal in children which leads to negative pressure in the middle ear and fluid accumulation
Answer: eustachian tube
Flashcard 169: Otoscopy of acute otitis media will show an _____ tympanic membrane that is bulging with loss of the light reflex
Answer: erythematous
Flashcard 170: Bacterial tonsillitis that presents with trismus, deviated uvula, & muffled voice & unilateral swelling should raise suspicion for _____
Answer: peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
Flashcard 171: In penicillin-allergic patient, what is a suitable alternative to phenoxymethylpenicillin for a bacterial sore throat?
Answer: • Clarithromycin
Flashcard 172: What is the management of malignant otitis externa? _____
Answer: Admission to hospital for IV antibiotics (e.g. ciprofloxacin or pip-taz - both cover for pseudomonas)
Flashcard 173: Malignant otitis externa typically occurs in _____, immunocomprimised patients and in older age
Answer: diabetics
Flashcard 174: Malignant otitis externa may cause _____ if there is osteomyelitis of the skull base
Answer: cranial nerve palsies
Flashcard 175: Otitis externa with signs of spreading infection may be managed with _____ in combination with topical treatment
Answer: systemic antibiotics (e.g. flucloxacillin)
Flashcard 176: Patients with acute otitis media who are systemically unwell or are immunocompromised should be given an _____
Answer: immediate antibiotic prescription
Flashcard 177: What is the managment for tonsilitis?
Answer: • Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 7 days
Flashcard 178: The Centor criteria for isolating strep throat: _____ tonsillar Exudates Nodes (anterior cervical lymphadenopathy) Temperature (>38°C)
Answer: absent Cough → "Can't Cough"
Flashcard 179: Acute otitis media is typically _____ and lasts 3 days, but can last up to 1 week
Answer: self-limiting
Flashcard 180: Consider _____ for acute otitis media if there is no-response to treatment OR the patient is severley unwell OR immunodeficiency
Answer: MC&S
Flashcard 181: What can eczematous skin changes of the areolar be associated with?
Answer: • Breast malignancy Paget's disease of the nipple
Flashcard 182: Examination of the ear in otitis externa may reveal pain upon pulling _____ on the auricle
Answer: up + back
Flashcard 183: Centor criteria guidance: 0-2: _____ 3-4: Antibiotics (32-56%*)
Answer: No antibiotics (3-17%*)
Flashcard 184: Patients with suspected/confirmed _____ otitis externa should be tested for HIV
Answer: fungal
Flashcard 185: Which antibiotics are used for acute otitis media? 1st line: _____ Alternative 1st line: Clarithromycin/Erythromycin
Answer: Amoxicillin
Flashcard 186: FeverPAIN criteria guidance: 0-1: _____ 2-3: No antitbiotics or back-up prescription (34-40%*) 4-5: Antibiotics (62-65%*)
Answer: No antibiotics (13-18%*)
Flashcard 187: Examination of the ear in malignant otitis externa may reveal _____
Answer: granulation tissue
Flashcard 188: Otoscopy of otitis media with effusion will show a _____, retracted tympanic membrane +/- a(n) air fluid level/bubbles
Answer: dull
Flashcard 189: _____ is an infection seen in young children (<3) of the middle ear most commonly caused by bacteria following a viral URTI
Answer: Acute otitis media
Flashcard 190: Uncomplicated acute otitis media is managed with _____ +/- anaesthetic ear drops
Answer: paracetamol/ibuprofen
Flashcard 191: What are the management options for otitis media with effusion in children? Non-surgical: _____ Surgical: Grommets +/- Adenoidectomy
Answer: Auto-inflation
Flashcard 192: What is the should be done as soon as possible for non-shockable rhythms?
Answer: • IV adrenaline 1mg
Flashcard 193: Tonsillitis typically affects ages _____ Infectious mononucleosis typically affects ages 15-25 years
Answer: 5-15 years
Flashcard 194: Tonsillitis is most commonly _____
Answer: ~80% viral (e..g adenovirus, rhinovirus, influenza, coronavirus)
Flashcard 195: _____ is the inflammation of the palatine tonsils
Answer: Tonsillitis
Flashcard 196: Bacterial tonsillitis is caused by _____
Answer: group A Streptococcus (GAS)
Flashcard 197: _____ tonsillitis presents with gradual-onset sore throat and coryzal symptoms
Answer: Viral
Flashcard 198: In ALS what should be given to patients who are in VF/pulseless VT after 3 shocks have been administered?
Answer: • Amiodarone 300mg
Flashcard 199: Singular brain metastasis management = _____ Multiple brain metastases management = SRS if limited or WBRT if widespread
Answer: surgical or SRS
Flashcard 200: When you should you advise a patient to stop taking warfarin before surgery?
Answer: • 5 days [once INR is >1.5]
Flashcard 201: What is the hormonal therapy for Oestrogen Receptor +ve breast cancer in post-menopausal women?
Answer: • Anastrozole [Aromatase Inhibitor]
Flashcard 202: What risk is associated with rapid-rewarming in hypothermia?
Answer: • Distributive Shock [can lead to peripheral vasodilation + shock]
Flashcard 203: What is the most appropriate course of action for patients with suspected orbital cellulitis?
Answer: • Admission to hospital for IV Abx
Flashcard 204: What is first-line treatment for chronic rhinosinusitis?
Answer: Nasal saline irrigation
Flashcard 205: What is the managment for Molluscum Contagiosum?
Answer: • Reassurance - self-limiting
Flashcard 206: What is the cause of a red eye which is classically not painful?
Answer: • Episcleritis
Flashcard 207: What will a headache triggered by coughing warrant?
Answer: • A prompt investigation for a secondary cause of headache
Flashcard 208: How does Pemphigoid Gestationis present?
Answer: • • Pruritic Blistering Lesions
Flashcard 209: What is the most common cause of erythema multiforme?
Answer: • Herpes Simplex Virus
Flashcard 210: How does Erythema Multiforme present?
Answer: • Target lesions • Initially seen on the back of the hands / feet before spreading to torso • pruritis ocassionally but mild
Flashcard 211: What is Hidradenitis Suppurativa?
Answer: • Painful Inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts and scars in intertriginous regions. •
Flashcard 212: What is the managment for Pemphigoid Gestationis?
Answer: • Oral corticosteroids
Flashcard 213: What are other causes of erythema multiforme? 5
Answer: • Idiopathic • Bacteria (Mycoplasma, Streptococcus) • Connective Tissue Disease (SLE) • Sarcoidosis • Malignancy
Flashcard 214: What drugs can cause erythema multiforme? 7
Answer: • Penicillin • Sulphonamides • Carbemazepine • Allopurinol • NSAIDs • Oral Contraceptive Pill • Nevirapine
Flashcard 215: What drugs can exacerbate psoriasis? 6
Answer: • Beta blockers • Lithium • Antimalarials (chloroquine & hydroxychlorquine) NSAIDs • ACE inhbitiors • Infliximab
Flashcard 216: What can cause Spider Naevi? 3
Answer: • Liver Disease • Pregnancy • Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Flashcard 217: What is the first-line management for Scalp Seborrheic Dermatitis?
Answer: • Ketoconazole 2% Shampoo
Flashcard 218: What are associated conditions of Seborrhoeic Dermatitis?
Answer: • HIV • Parkinson's Disease
Flashcard 219: What is the managment for Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus?
Answer: • 7-10 days (Oral Aciclovir)
Flashcard 220: How does Central Retinal Vein Occlusion present?
Answer: • Sudden unilateral painless loss of vision
Flashcard 221: What is Holmes-Adie pupil?
Answer: • Dilated Pupil - slowly reactive to accommodation but very poorly to light • Seen in women • Absent ankle/knee reflexes
Flashcard 222: What are patients with suspected Orbital cellulitis managed with immediately?
Answer: • IV antibiotics
Flashcard 223: What can uncommonly cause Eczema Herpeticum?
Answer: Coxsackie Virus
Flashcard 224: Managment for Herpes Simplex Keratitis?
Answer: • Immediate ophthalmologist referral • Topical Aciclovir
Flashcard 225: What are features of Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus? What Sign?
Answer: • Vesicular rash around the eye Hutchinson's sign: rash on tip or side of the nose
Flashcard 226: What are features of Horner's Syndrome? 4
Answer: • Miosis (small pupil) • Ptosis • Enopthalmos (sunken eye) • Anhydrosis (loss of sweating on one side)
Flashcard 227: What are the causes of Optic Neuritis?
Answer: 1. Multiple Sclerosis 2. Diabetes 3. Syphilis
Flashcard 228: What are risk factors for CRVO? 5
Answer: • Increasing age • Hypertension • Cardiovascular disease • Glaucoma • Polycythaemia
Flashcard 229: What is Herpes Zoster Opthalmicus?
Answer: • The reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the opthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
Flashcard 230: Patient with a surgical site infection after mastectomy showing purulent drainage and surrounding cellulitis → _____
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA)
Flashcard 231: The CDC classify surgical site infections: _____ SSI = within 30 days affecting skin & subcutaneous tissue at incision site Deep SSI = within 30 or 90 days affecting fascia & muscle layers at incision site Organ/space SSI = within 30 or 90 days affecting deeper than the fascia/muscle layers that was opened or manipulated during surgery
Answer: Superficial
Flashcard 232: What investigation is done for surgical site infections? _____ FBC + CRP
Answer: Wound swab & culture
Flashcard 233: Antibiotic prophylaxis, antiseptic skin preparation, hand hygiene, sterile equipment, aseptic dressings, wound cleansing are vital for reducing surgical site _____
Answer: infections
Flashcard 234: Patient with a prosthetic valve replacement presenting with low-grade fever and persistent wound discharge at the sternotomy site → _____
Answer: Coagulase -ve staphylococci
Flashcard 235: What modifiable risk factor is associated with increased surgical site infection and poor wound healing? _____
Answer: Smoking
Flashcard 236: What is the initial management for surgical site infections? _____
Answer: Send a culture → empiric antibiotics (local guidelines) → targeted antibiotics under microbiology guidance
Flashcard 237: What imaging should be considered in deep surgical site infections? _____
Answer: CT
Flashcard 238: _____ is an infection occuring at or near a surgical incision typically within 30 days caused by microbial contamination during or after surgery
Answer: Surgical site infection (SSI)
Flashcard 239: Surgical site infections present with _____, pain, & discharge at the site of infection
Answer: erythema
Flashcard 240: Patient recovering from a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer with erythema, fever, and purulent exudate at the midline laparotomy incision → _____
Answer: Escherichia coli
Flashcard 241: It is essential that diabetic patients have good glycaemic control to prevent surgical site _____
Answer: infections
Flashcard 242: Patient post-hysterectomy presenting with fever, pelvic pain, and a superficial wound infection showing erythema and serous drainage → _____
Answer: Enterococcus species
Flashcard 243: Surgical site infections can cause _____ & wound dishiscence
Answer: fever
Flashcard 244: What is the management of a necrotizing surgical site infection? _____
Answer: Surgical exploration and debridement
Flashcard 245: What is the initial investigation for ischaemic colitis? _____
Answer: CT scan
Flashcard 246: Acute mesenteric ischemia may present with "_____" stool
Answer: currant jelly
Flashcard 247: _____ is ↓ bowel perfusion due to atherosclerotic narrowing of the mesenteric arteries leading to "intestinal angina"
Answer: Chronic mesenteric ischaemia
Flashcard 248: Patient had a AAA surgical repair and then presented with cramping abdominal pain & bloody diarrhoea, what is the diagnosis? _____
Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Flashcard 249: Varicose veins can affect _____ veins (great & small saphenous veins)
Answer: deep/truncal
Flashcard 250: Palpable cord-like structure with local tenderness + erythema and induration along the course of a superficial vein that do not resolve with elevation is suggestive of _____
Answer: superficial thrombophlebitis
Flashcard 251: Ischemic colitis presents with sudden-onset _____ pain followed by hematochezia
Answer: cramping abdominal
Flashcard 252: The _____ test is an examination technique for varicose veins
Answer: Trendelenburg
Flashcard 253: Femoral hernias are _____ to the inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral vessels
Answer: inferior
Flashcard 254: What is the strangulation risk vs inguinal hernia type? _____
Answer: femoral >> indirect > direct
Flashcard 255: Varicose veins typically affect superficial veins in the _____
Answer: leg
Flashcard 256: Ischemic colitis can progress to _____ colon ischaemia
Answer: gangrenous
Flashcard 257: Describe the pathophysiology of postprandial abdominal pain in chronic mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: After food intake, the digestive process requires ↑ metabolic demand, needing ↑ blood flow & oxygen perfusion. In CMI, arterial stenosis prevents adequate blood supply, leading to intestinal ischaemia & pain
Flashcard 258: _____ are dilated, tortuous, & elongated veins that are > 3mm in size
Answer: Varicose veins
Flashcard 259: Which type of hernia is most likely to present with strangulation? _____
Answer: Femoral hernia
Flashcard 260: Acute mesenteric ischemia may occur due to a thrombosis of a(n) _____ vein
Answer: mesenteric
Flashcard 261: What is the management for varicose veins with truncal reflux? _____
Answer: Can opt for interventional; endothermal ablation or US-guided scleropathy
Flashcard 262: What is the initial management for varicose veins? _____
Answer: Compression stockings
Flashcard 263: What is the gold-standard investigation for chronic mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: CT angiogram
Flashcard 264: What is the management of symptomatic chronic mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: Open surgical or endovascular revascularization
Flashcard 265: Varicose veins in women ↑ during _____
Answer: pregnancy
Flashcard 266: Chronic mesenteric ischaemia affects the _____ and patients with ↑ high cardiovascular risk
Answer: older age > 55
Flashcard 267: Varicose veins are a result of _____ leading to incompetent valves
Answer: chronic venous hypertension
Flashcard 268: _____ is a sudden & severe ↓ in bowel perfusion leading to ischaemia & necrosis
Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia
Flashcard 269: Femoral hernias pass through the femoral ring into the _____
Answer: femoral canal
Flashcard 270: What is the investigation for femoral hernias if needed? _____
Answer: Clinical diagnosis; US 1st-line if unsure
Flashcard 271: Chronic mesenteric ischaemia presents with the triad of _____, "food aversion", & weight loss
Answer: postprandial abdominal pain
Flashcard 272: Femoral hernias are more common in _____
Answer: females
Flashcard 273: What is the mangaement for femoral hernias? _____
Answer: Surgical; because ↑↑ risk of strangulation & ~50% present in an emergency
Flashcard 274: Refer patients to _____ if varicose veins are bleeding
Answer: vascular service
Flashcard 275: What is the definitive management for stable acute mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: Endovascular revascularization
Flashcard 276: Examination findings for acute mesenteric ischaemia can be _____ & irregular pulse
Answer: peritonism (rebound tenderness & guarding)
Flashcard 277: Acute mesenteric ischaemia has four main causes: _____ Arterial thrombi/atherosclerosis Non-occlusive mesenteric ischaemia Mesenteric venous thrombosis
Answer: Arterial emboli
Flashcard 278: What investigation is done for varicose veins at the vascular service? _____
Answer: US
Flashcard 279: What layers of bowel are affected in acute mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: All layers
Flashcard 280: Acute mesenteric ischaemia typically affects the _____ ~90%
Answer: superior mesenteric artery
Flashcard 281: Patients with varicose veins typically compain of _____, but it can present with bleeding, dull ache, oedema, & pruritis
Answer: cosmetic appearance
Flashcard 282: Severe hypotension, cardiogenic shock, major surgery (AAA repair) may cause _____ due to ↓ reduced perfusion of the colon
Answer: ischaemic colitis
Flashcard 283: What acid-base disturbance typically occurs with acute mesenteric ischemia? _____
Answer: (lactic) metabolic acidosis
Flashcard 284: _____ is transient hypoperfusion to the colon leading to ischaemic damage
Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Flashcard 285: What is the management of ischaemic colitis with signs of severe disease, peritonism, perforation, non-resolving? _____
Answer: Surgical opinion
Flashcard 286: Varicose veins can be secondary to obstruction e.g. _____
Answer: DVT
Flashcard 287: Varicose veins most commonly affect _____
Answer: women
Flashcard 288: Ischaemic colitis usually occurs at the _____ flexure (Griffiths point), which is the watershed area of the SMA and the IMA
Answer: splenic
Flashcard 289: _____ should be suspected in a patient with abdominal pain out of proportion to physical exam findings
Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia
Flashcard 290: Ischaemic colitis usually can also occur at the _____ junction (Sudeck point), which is the watershed area of the IMA and the superior rectal artery
Answer: rectosigmoid
Flashcard 291: Common complications of varicose veins include chronic oedema, stasis dermatitis, skin _____, poor wound healing, and superficial thrombophlebitis
Answer: ulcerations
Flashcard 292: What layers of bowel are affected in chronic mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: mucosa & submucosa
Flashcard 293: Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an emboli in patients with _____
Answer: atrial fibrillation
Flashcard 294: Femoral hernias reside in the _____ of the femoral triangle
Answer: empty space
Flashcard 295: What are the two most common mechanisms of abrupt occlusion in acute mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: Arterial emboli & arterial thrombi/atherosclerosis
Flashcard 296: Refer patients to _____ if primary varicose veins are symptomatic/have skin changes/thrombosis
Answer: vascular service
Flashcard 297: What is the initial management of acute mesenteric ischaemia? _____ IV antibiotics NG tube & nil-by-mouth in preparation for surgery
Answer: IV fluid resuscitation
Flashcard 298: Significant ↓ hypoperfusion from severe _____ or digitalis can cause acute mesenteric ischaemia
Answer: hypotension
Flashcard 299: Acute mesenteric ischaemia has a _____ prognosis
Answer: poor
Flashcard 300: Which regions of the colon are most vulnerable to hypoxia / ischemia? - _____ - Rectosigmoid junction
Answer: Splenic flexure
Flashcard 301: _____ hernias are a type of inguinal hernia that involves protrusion of internal tissue and/or organs through into the femoral canal
Answer: Femoral
Flashcard 302: What is the management of ischaemic colitis? _____
Answer: Supportive → resolves spontaneously
Flashcard 303: What is the definitive management for unstable acute mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: Surgical → resect necrotic bowel & revascularise
Flashcard 304: Ischaemic colitis is most commonly caused by _____ hypoperfusion
Answer: non-occlusive
Flashcard 305: What is the gold-standard investigation for acute mesenteric ischaemia? _____
Answer: CT angiography
Flashcard 306: Risk factors for hernias include ↑ _____
Answer: intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. chronic cough, heavy lifting, pregnancy, obestiy, & ascites)
Flashcard 307: What are the examination findings for reducible hernias? _____
Answer: Reduces (on lying, manually, etc) & +ve cough impulse
Flashcard 308: Congenital _____ is a failure of umbilical ring to close after physiologic herniation of the intestines
Answer: umbilical hernia
Flashcard 309: _____ inguinal hernia = internal (deep) and superficial ring Direct inguinal hernia = superficial ring only
Answer: Indirect
Flashcard 310: Hernias can be classified based on degree of presentation: _____ Irreducible (incarcerated) Obstructed Strangulated
Answer: Reducible
Flashcard 311: Epigastric hernias are managed _____
Answer: conservatively or surgical
Flashcard 312: What are the two types of inguinal hernias? ~75% _____ ~25% Direct
Answer: Indirect
Flashcard 313: On inspection of a chronic anal fissures a _____ may be seen
Answer: sentinel pile
Flashcard 314: Incisional hernias occur in ~_____% of patients who have had abdominal operations
Answer: 10
Flashcard 315: A _____ hernia involves the ability to return the displaced organ or tissue to normal anatomical location
Answer: reducible
Flashcard 316: Umbilical hernias are located at the _____
Answer: umbilical orifice
Flashcard 317: What are the examination findings for irreducible hernias? _____
Answer: Firm, non-reducible
Flashcard 318: The mechanism of Meniere's disease is _____, but the exact cause is unknown
Answer: reduced resorption of endolymph → elevated endolymphatic pressure
Flashcard 319: Broad hernia classification: ~75% _____ hernias ~10% Ventral hernias ~10% Incisional hernias
Answer: Groin
Flashcard 320: Acquired umbilical hernias occur in patients with chronic ↑ intra-abdominal pressure e.g. patients with _____
Answer: ascites
Flashcard 321: Meniere's disease episodes typically last _____
Answer: 20 mins → 12 hours
Flashcard 322: _____ are the protrusion of internal tissue and/or organs through an abnormal opening in the abdominal wall
Answer: Hernias
Flashcard 323: _____ disorders ↑ risk for hernias
Answer: Connective tissue
Flashcard 324: _____ hernias occur at the site of prior surgical incisions due to fascial closure breakdown
Answer: Incisional
Flashcard 325: What is the management for (adults) asymptomatic/small inguinal hernias? _____
Answer: Conservative
Flashcard 326: Spot Diagnosis = _____
Answer: Direct inguinal hernia
Flashcard 327: Inguinal hernias affect _____
Answer: males
Flashcard 328: Secondary anal fissures arise as a result of _____ such as IBD, infections (TB, STI), & malignancy
Answer: underlying systemic disease
Flashcard 329: Indirect inguinal hernias herniate _____ to the inferior epigastric vessels
Answer: lateral
Flashcard 330: What is the examination technique for inguinal hernias? _____
Answer: Palpate the superficial (external) ring & do a testicular exam
Flashcard 331: _____ & simple analgesia (e.g. paracetamol) is used first-line for analgesia in anal fissures
Answer: Sitz baths
Flashcard 332: _____ hernias have comprimised blood supply to herniated tissue leading to ischaemia
Answer: Strangulated
Flashcard 333: Epigastric hernias are typically located _____
Answer: at the midline, above the umbilicus
Flashcard 334: Indirect inguinal hernias occur in infants due to failure of the _____ to close
Answer: processus vaginalis
Flashcard 335: (Chronic) anal fissures can also present with perianal _____
Answer: pruritis
Flashcard 336: Definitive diagnosis of Meniere's disease must meet the following criteria: • _____ • Audiometrically documented sensorineural hearing loss in one ear on at least one occasion around an episode of vertigo • Fluctuating aural symptoms (e.g. tinnitus, hearing loss, fullness) • Other potential causes of vertigo are excluded
Answer: ≥2 episodes of vertigo lasting 20 mins→12 hours
Flashcard 337: _____ laxatives are the laxatives of choice to treat constipation in the context of anal fissures
Answer: Bulk-forming
Flashcard 338: _____ hernias' contents cannot be displaced back to normal anatomic position
Answer: Irreducible (incarcerated)
Flashcard 339: What is the management for (adults) symptomatic inguinal hernias? _____
Answer: Surgical
Flashcard 340: Meniere's attack duration: _____ BPPV attack duration: <1 minute
Answer: >20 minutes
Flashcard 341: Is a digital rectal examination performed for anal fissures? _____
Answer: No; They can be incredibly painful, and anal fissures are a clinical diagnosis + on inspection. IF the history indicates it (e.g. red flag symptoms of rectal malignancy) then perform an examination. It may need to be done with some analgesia/anaesthesia at a later date. I
Flashcard 342: Ventral hernias typically consist of _____, epigastric & Spigelian hernias
Answer: umbilical
Flashcard 343: Anal fissures classically present with _____ and blood on toilet paper or stool
Answer: pain on defecation
Flashcard 344: ~90% of anal fissures are located in the _____ midline due to ↓ perfusion
Answer: posterior
Flashcard 345: _____ are longitudinal tears in the mucosa of the distal anal canal clasically causing pain on defecation & bright red blood on toilet paper
Answer: Anal fissures
Flashcard 346: What are the examination findings for strangulated hernias? _____
Answer: Non-reducible hernia; tender, erythematous ± signs of bowel obstruction
Flashcard 347: What non-pharmacological approaches can be used to reduce the frequency and severity of Meniere's disease attacks? _____ & Lifestyle modifications (e.g. low sodium diet)
Answer: Vestibular rehabilitation (e.g. Brandt-Daroff exercises)
Flashcard 348: Meniere's disease is characterised by recurrent episodes of: • _____ • Tinnitus • Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
Answer: Vertigo
Flashcard 349: _____ hernias are protrusion of internal tissue and/or organs through the inguinal canal
Answer: Inguinal
Flashcard 350: What management is used to encourage healing in anal fissures? _____ Alteratives: Topical diltiazem/nifedipine (CCB - vasodilator)
Answer: Topical GTN ointment (vasodilator)
Flashcard 351: Lifestyle modifications such as _____ and trigger avoidance may be used to reduce freqency and severity of Meniere's disease
Answer: low-sodium diet
Flashcard 352: Groin hernias typically consist of _____ & femoral hernias
Answer: inguinal
Flashcard 353: Anal fissures are associated with chronic constipation and a _____ diet
Answer: low-fibre
Flashcard 354: Direct inguinal hernias herniate _____ to the inferior epigastric vessels
Answer: medial
Flashcard 355: Which type of inguinal hernia involves protrusion of the bowel through the deep inguinal ring, superficial inguinal ring, and into the scrotum? _____
Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia
Flashcard 356: Direct inguinal hernias occur in _____
Answer: older men
Flashcard 357: Do patients with Meniere's disease have to notify the DVLA? _____
Answer: Yes
Flashcard 358: Direct inguinal hernias occur in adults due to weakness of the _____
Answer: posterior wall of the inguinal canal (Hesselbach's triangle)
Flashcard 359: Indirect inguinal hernias occur in _____
Answer: young boys
Flashcard 360: Acute anal fissures = < _____ Chronic anal fissures = ≥ 6 weeks
Answer: 6 weeks
Flashcard 361: _____ hernias cause bowel obstruction without vascular comprimise
Answer: Obstructed
Flashcard 362: What is the management for congenital umbilical hernias? _____
Answer: Conservative management; seen at 5 years old
Flashcard 363: _____ hernias occur through defects in the linea semilunaris
Answer: Spigelian
Flashcard 364: _____ hernias are worse
Answer: Strangulated
Flashcard 365: What short-term management can be used for pain-relief in anal fissures? _____
Answer: Topical anaesthetic (lidocaine 5% for max. 14 days)
Flashcard 366: What is the management of incisional hernias? _____
Answer: Surgical repair with mesh to reinforce
Flashcard 367: _____ may be used to manage severe Meniere's disease that has not responded to other treatments
Answer: Chemical ablation with intratympanic gentamicin
Flashcard 368: Meniere's disease can cause a sensation of _____ in the affected ear
Answer: fullness
Flashcard 369: Umbilical hernias are soft and _____
Answer: reducible
Flashcard 370: What is the lifestyle management for anal fissures? _____
Answer: Increase fibre & fluid intake
Flashcard 371: _____ are the most common type of hernias
Answer: Inguinal
Flashcard 372: Anal fissures are described as tears in the anal mucosa _____ the dentate line
Answer: below
Flashcard 373: What is the initial investigation for anal fissures? _____
Answer: Inspection; do NOT do a DRE unless history indicates
Flashcard 374: What are the examination findings for obstructed hernias? _____
Answer: Non-reducible hernia; signs of bowel obstruction (distended abdomen, absent bowel sounds)
Flashcard 375: What is the management for children with inguinal hernias? _____
Answer: Surgical
Flashcard 376: Primary anal fissures are caused by _____ such as straining, hard stools, constipation, & anal sex
Answer: local trauma
Flashcard 377: What is the final-line management of anal fissures? _____
Answer: Lateral internal sphincterotomy
Flashcard 378: What is the general management of asymptomatic simple breast cysts? _____
Answer: None; typically resolves spontaneously
Flashcard 379: Breast cysts present with single/multiple lumps that are _____ & well-circumscribed
Answer: mobile
Flashcard 380: Well-defined, mobile breast lump in 40 yr old. US shows anechoic lesion. Diagnosis? _____
Answer: Breast cyst
Flashcard 381: What is the best initial imaging for suspected breast cysts? _____ *bonus, why?
Answer: US
Flashcard 382: What is the next step for complex breast cysts? _____
Answer: US guided core needle biopsy / excisional biopsy
Flashcard 383: Breast cysts typically affect females aged _____-50 years old
Answer: 35
Flashcard 384: Why is mammography less sensitive in women under 30 years old? _____
Answer: due to increased breast tissue density in younger women
Flashcard 385: What is the likely diagnosis in a 40 year old woman with a well-circumscribed, smooth, mobile breast mass? _____
Answer: Breast cyst*
Flashcard 386: What is next step for investigating a suspected breast cyst > 30 years in primary care? _____
Answer: Suspected cancer pathway (2ww) for breast cancer
Flashcard 387: What is the management of symptomatic breast cysts? _____
Answer: US guided fine-needle aspiration
Flashcard 388: What is next step for investigating a suspected breast cyst < 30 years in primary care? _____
Answer: Consider non-urgent referral
Flashcard 389: What is the likely diagnosis in an adolescent patient with a unilateral, mobile, well-circumscribed mass in the outer quadrant of the breast that becomes tender prior to menstruation? _____
Answer: Fibroadenoma
Flashcard 390: Well-defined, mobile breast lump in 22 yr old. US shows hypoecholic solid mass. Diagnosis? _____
Answer: fibroadenoma
Flashcard 391: _____ are common, benign breast tumours that arise from breast lobules and consist of fibrous & epithelial tissue
Answer: Fibroadenomas
Flashcard 392: Simple fibroadenomas are 1-3cm, _____ fibroadenomas are > 5cm
Answer: giant
Flashcard 393: Fibroadenomas present with a _____, well-circumscribed mass that is typically 1-3cm
Answer: mobile
Flashcard 394: _____ breast cysts are the most common
Answer: Simple
Flashcard 395: Males with a posterior urethral injury present with blood at urethral meatus and a(n) _____
Answer: "high-riding" boggy prostate
Flashcard 396: Small, mobile, firm mass with sharp edges = _____
Answer: fibroadenoma (benign)
Flashcard 397: Breast cysts are classified into simple, complicated, and complex with increasing risk of _____
Answer: breast cancer
Flashcard 398: Which investigation is performed to rule out urethral injury following a pelvic fracture? _____
Answer: Retrograde Urethrogram
Flashcard 399: What is the management for a simple fibroadenoma? _____
Answer: Expectant
Flashcard 400: Size and tenderness of a fibroadenoma of the breast typically increases prior to _____
Answer: menstruation
Flashcard 401: What imaging is done to identify bleeding in pelvic fractures? _____
Answer: FAST scan
Flashcard 402: Complex breast cysts _____ associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
Answer: are
Flashcard 403: What is the management for a symptomatic fibroadenoma? _____
Answer: Surgical excision
Flashcard 404: What is next step for investigating a suspected fibroadenoma < 30 years in primary care? _____
Answer: Consider non-urgent referral
Flashcard 405: _____ are benign, fluid-filled sacs within the breast that most commonly occur in premenopausal women
Answer: Breast cysts
Flashcard 406: Complex & multiple fibroadenomas _____ associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
Answer: are
Flashcard 407: _____ are the most common breast tumour in women < 35 years
Answer: Fibroadenomas
Flashcard 408: What is next step for investigating a suspected fibroadenoma > 30 years in primary care? _____
Answer: Suspected cancer pathway (2ww) for breast cancer
Flashcard 409: Low-molecular-weight heparin should be stopped _____ prior to surgery
Answer: 24 hours
Flashcard 410: What is the mechanism of action for unfractionated heparin? _____
Answer: Indirect inhibition of Xa via activation of antithrombin III
Flashcard 411: If aspirin must be stopped for surgery, it should be stopped _____ prior
Answer: 7 days
Flashcard 412: If clopidogrel must be stopped for surgery, it should be stopped _____ prior
Answer: 7 days
Flashcard 413: Unfractionated heparin should be stopped _____ prior to surgery
Answer: 6 hours
Flashcard 414: Clopidogrel works by inhibiting _____ which stops platelet activation and aggregation
Answer: ADP binding to P2Y12 receptor
Flashcard 415: Patients taking DOACs who are undergoing surgery may need to pause their medication earlier if there is _____ impairment
Answer: renal
Flashcard 416: Patients taking DOACs undergoing surgery with a high-risk of bleeding should stop taking the DOAC _____ prior to surgery
Answer: 3-5 days
Flashcard 417: What is the mechanism of action for low molecular weight heparin? _____
Answer: Indirect inhibition of Xa via activation of antithrombin III
Flashcard 418: If prasugrel must be stopped for surgery, it should be stopped _____ prior
Answer: 7 days
Flashcard 419: What is the mechanism of action for fondaparinux? _____
Answer: Indirect inhibition of Xa via activation of antithrombin III
Flashcard 420: DOACs can be restarted _____ after surgery
Answer: 12-24 hours
Flashcard 421: Ticagrelor works by _____ which stops platelet activation and aggregation
Answer: reversibly blocking the P2Y12 ADP receptor
Flashcard 422: The reversal agent of low molecular weight heparin is _____
Answer: IV protamine sulfate
Flashcard 423: Prasugrel works by _____ which stops platelet activation and aggregation
Answer: irreversibly blocking the P2Y12 ADP receptor
Flashcard 424: Antiplatelet medication should only be continued through surgery if there is a high _____ risk These decisions are made by the anaesthetist and surgeon - antiplatelets may be temporarily replaced by heparin
Answer: thrombosis
Flashcard 425: Aspirin works by inhibiting _____
Answer: COX-1
Flashcard 426: If ticagrelor must be stopped for surgery, it should be stopped _____ prior
Answer: 5 days
Flashcard 427: Patients taking DOACs undergoing surgery with a low-risk of bleeding should stop taking the DOAC roughly _____ prior to surgery
Answer: 1 day
Flashcard 428: What is the management of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy? _____
Answer: - tighter glucose control - control of cardiovascular risk factors
Flashcard 429: Tractional retinal detachment can be caused by _____ retinopathy
Answer: proliferative diabetic
Flashcard 430: Patients who have had pupils dilated should NOT drive for _____ after
Answer: 6 hours
Flashcard 431: _____ diabetic retinopathy has a hallmark feature of neovascularisation on retinal imaging
Answer: Proliferative
Flashcard 432: The reversal agent of dabigatran is _____
Answer: Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
Flashcard 433: _____ diabetic retinopathy results in new blood vessel formation with resultant traction on the retina
Answer: Proliferative
Flashcard 434: The reversal agent of edoxaban is _____
Answer: NONE (none currently available)
Flashcard 435: Dabigatran is a direct factor _____ inhibitor
Answer: IIa (thrombin)
Flashcard 436: Vision loss from _____ diabetic retinopathy may result from complications (macular oedema, vitreous haemorrhage, tractional retinal detachment, neovascular glaucoma)
Answer: proliferative
Flashcard 437: What is the screening for diabetic retinopathy in T1DM & T2DM? _____
Answer: Annual screening from 12 years old: NHS diabetic screening program
Flashcard 438: The reversal agent of apixaban is _____
Answer: andexanet alfa (Andexxa)
Flashcard 439: What is the management for proliferative diabetic retinopathy? 1st-line: _____ alternative: anti-VEGF therapy
Answer: photocoagulation
Flashcard 440: The reversal agent of rivaroxaban is _____
Answer: andexanet alfa (Andexxa)
Flashcard 441: _____ diabetic retinopathy is characterised by leakage of blood from damaged capillaries, resulting in haemorrhages and macular oedema
Answer: Nonproliferative
Flashcard 442: _____ are a sign of mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy
Answer: Microaneurysms
Flashcard 443: Vision loss from _____ diabetic retinopathy may result from macular oedema
Answer: nonproliferative
Flashcard 444: Rivaroxaban is a direct factor _____ inhibitor
Answer: Xa
Flashcard 445: Apixaban is a direct factor _____ inhibitor
Answer: Xa
Flashcard 446: Edoxaban is a direct factor _____ inhibitor
Answer: Xa
Flashcard 447: A diabetic patient with reduced ↓ visual acuity → suspect _____
Answer: diabetic macular oedema
Flashcard 448: _____ is a chronic, progressive microvascular disease that damaged the retinal vessels due to chronic hyperglycaemia
Answer: Diabetic retionpathy
Flashcard 449: Why is screening important in diabetic retinopathy? _____
Answer: Patients are asymptomatic until later stages. Screening allows detection of early disease, where it can be prevented from becoming worse. Screen, screen, screeeen!
Flashcard 450: _____ is a retinal damage caused by chronic hyperglycaemia
Answer: Diabetic retionpathy
Flashcard 451: _____ is the leading cause of sight impairment in the working-age
Answer: Diabetic retionpathy
Flashcard 452: Diabetic retinopathy presents _____ until later stages, then irreversible significant visual impairment occurs
Answer: asymptomatically
Flashcard 453: Circumferential, full-thickness burns can result in eschar formation that can lead to _____ syndrome
Answer: acute compartment
Flashcard 454: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Melanoma (superficial spreading)
Flashcard 455: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Melanoma (lentigo maligna)
Flashcard 456: What is the most common sub-type of melanoma? _____
Answer: Superficial spreading melanoma
Flashcard 457: Melanoma is often driven by activating mutations in _____ kinase
Answer: BRAF
Flashcard 458: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Melanoma (acral lentiginous)
Flashcard 459: What tumour maker may be used for melanoma? _____
Answer: S100
Flashcard 460: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Melanoma (nodular)
Flashcard 461: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Melanoma (acral lentiginous)
Flashcard 462: What is the first-line management of folliculitis if it does not resolve spontaneously? _____
Answer: Topical antiseptics (triclosan, clorhexidine)
Flashcard 463: What TOPICAL antibiotics is often used in acne vulgaris? _____
Answer: Topical clindamycin
Flashcard 464: Core temperature in heat stroke should be measured using a(n) _____
Answer: rectal thermometer
Flashcard 465: _____ is the biggest risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: Cumulative UV exposure
Flashcard 466: _____ is inflammation of the hair follicles, often caused by bacterial or fungal infection
Answer: Folliculitis
Flashcard 467: What is a definitive management of folliculitis? _____
Answer: Laser hair removal
Flashcard 468: For acne vulgaris, topical _____ are used to ↓ P.acnes proliferation, & ↓ inflammation
Answer: antibiotics (topical clindamycin)
Flashcard 469: Oral isotretinoin can cause _____
Answer: idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Flashcard 470: The basis of pharmacological management of moderate-to-severe acne vulgaris is a(n) _____
Answer: fixed combination of a topical cream ± oral antibiotics for 12 weeks e.g. - topical adapalene + topical benzoyl peroxide WITH oral lymecycline OR oral doxycycline - Topical azelaic acid x2 daily WITH oral lymecycline OR oral doxycycline
Flashcard 471: Acne lesion = _____
Answer: Comedones (whiteheads)
Flashcard 472: For female patients with acne vulgaris, consider treatment with _____
Answer: COCP (2nd-line)
Flashcard 473: Cutaneous _____ warts are caused by HPV 1-4
Answer: common
Flashcard 474: Oral _____ may be used as an alternative antibiotic for acne vulgaris if the patient is pregnant/breastfeeding
Answer: erythromycin
Flashcard 475: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: basal cell carcinoma (nodular)
Flashcard 476: The most common acne scars are _____
Answer: ice-pick scars
Flashcard 477: Oral isotretinoin commonly causes _____
Answer: very dry skin (lips)
Flashcard 478: _____ are soft, flesh-colored, cauliflower-like papules that appear on the skin due to HPV infection of keratinocytes
Answer: Cutaneous warts / verucca
Flashcard 479: Oral isotretinoin is contraindicated in _____
Answer: pregnancy
Flashcard 480: Acne lesion = _____
Answer: Excessive inflammatory (nodulocystic acne)
Flashcard 481: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: basal cell carcinoma (nodular)
Flashcard 482: Refer acne vulgaris to dermatology if moderate-to-severe acne has not responded to previous treatment that includes a(n) _____
Answer: oral antibiotic
Flashcard 483: What is the most likely diagnosis in a young, active patient that collapses while exercising and presents with a temperature of 41°C, disorientation, and respiratory distress? _____
Answer: Exertional heat stroke
Flashcard 484: Refer cutaneous warts to _____ if they occur on the face
Answer: dermatology
Flashcard 485: Folliculitis is most commonly infected by _____
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Flashcard 486: Heat exhaustion is a mild/moderate illness defined as a core temperature of _____°C
Answer: 38-40
Flashcard 487: Folliculitis is diagnosed _____, however, if it is recurrent then a(n) swab can be done
Answer: clinically
Flashcard 488: Folliculitis occurs in _____ & those who shave their skin
Answer: children
Flashcard 489: Spot Diagnosis = _____
Answer: Cutaneous warts
Flashcard 490: Cutaneous warts spread by _____
Answer: skin-to-skin contact
Flashcard 491: Acne lesion = _____
Answer: Comedones (whiteheads with a blackhead)
Flashcard 492: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Folliculitis
Flashcard 493: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
Flashcard 494: _____ basal cell carcinoma can present as a scaling plaque
Answer: Superficial
Flashcard 495: Acne fulminans almost always occurs in _____
Answer: young, white males
Flashcard 496: Patients with heat stroke may present with bleeding due to _____
Answer: disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Flashcard 497: Acne lesion = _____
Answer: Excessive inflammatory (nodulocystic acne)
Flashcard 498: Acne vulgaris can lead to psychosocial problems such as _____
Answer: depression/anxiety
Flashcard 499: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: actinic keratosis
Flashcard 500: Cutaneous warts most commmonly affect the _____ & hands
Answer: feet
Flashcard 501: Spot Diagnosis = _____
Answer: Cutaneous warts
Flashcard 502: _____ is a medical emergency caused by passive exposure to severe heat or strenuous exercise
Answer: Heat stroke
Flashcard 503: What ORAL antibiotics are often used in acne vulgaris? _____ or oral doxycycline 100mg
Answer: Oral lymecycline 408mg
Flashcard 504: _____ is a risk factor for folluclitis so patients should shower immediately after sports
Answer: Sweating
Flashcard 505: What is the management for cutaneous warts? _____
Answer: topical salicylic acid or/and cryotherapy,
Flashcard 506: Treat cutaneous warts if they are uncomfortable, persistent or if the patient _____
Answer: requests treatment!
Flashcard 507: Which acne lesion has the greatest risk of scarring? _____
Answer: Cysts
Flashcard 508: _____ are benign skin growths caused human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
Answer: Cutaneous warts
Flashcard 509: _____ heat stroke typically affects elderly patients in the absence of strenuous activity
Answer: Classical (non-exertional)
Flashcard 510: What type of melanoma is most likely to bleed/ooze? _____
Answer: Nodular melanoma
Flashcard 511: Increased risk of what type of skin cancer is most commonly associated with photochemotherapy (PUVA)? _____
Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Flashcard 512: Acne vulgaris tends to affect _____
Answer: teens
Flashcard 513: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: basal cell carcinoma (superficial)
Flashcard 514: _____ is the biggest risk factor for basal cell carcinoma
Answer: Intermittent UV exposure
Flashcard 515: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: basal cell carcinoma (superficial)
Flashcard 516: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
Flashcard 517: What is the managment of classical (non-exertional) heat stroke? _____
Answer: Evaporative cooling (wetting and fanning of the skin)
Flashcard 518: Acne lesion = _____
Answer: Inflammatory (papules & pustules)
Flashcard 519: A course of treatment for acne vulgaris should last _____ for it to be "completed"
Answer: 12 weeks
Flashcard 520: Acne lesion = _____
Answer: Inflammatory (papules seen)
Flashcard 521: Treatment for heat stroke should be targeted at achieving core temperature of no less than _____°C
Answer: 39
Flashcard 522: What is the managment of exertional heat stroke? _____
Answer: Cold/Ice water immersion
Flashcard 523: Cutaneous warts peak in _____
Answer: adolescence/early adulthood
Flashcard 524: Heat stroke is defined as a core body temperature >_____°C & CNS dysfunction
Answer: 40
Flashcard 525: _____ and antipyretics should not be given to patients with heat stroke
Answer: Dantrolene
Flashcard 526: Heat stroke is generally categorised into _____ and exertional heat stroke
Answer: classical heat stroke (non-exertional)
Flashcard 527: Acne vulgaris management is complex, however, advise patients with 1._____ advice and consider 2. drug management
Answer: lifestyle/skincare
Flashcard 528: There are 2 types of phototherapy used in psoriasis treatment: _____ & photochemotherapy (PUVA)
Answer: UVB
Flashcard 529: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Tinea cruris
Flashcard 530: Tinea _____ = dermatophyte infection of the body Tinea cruris = dermatophyte infection of the groin Tinea pedis = dermatophyte infection of the foot Tinea capitis = dermatophyte infection of the scalp Tinea unguium = dermatophye infection of the nail
Answer: corporis
Flashcard 531: As many as _____% of adolescents experience acne
Answer: 95
Flashcard 532: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: pityriasis versicolor
Flashcard 533: Tinea corporis is spread through _____
Answer: skin-to-skin contact
Flashcard 534: _____ degradation produces acid that damages melanocytes in pityriasis versicolor (results in hypo/hyperpigmentation)
Answer: Lipid
Flashcard 535: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: onychomycosis
Flashcard 536: What is the likely diagnosis in a healthcare worker that presents with itchy, dry skin on the hands for the past month? Examination shows dry and irritated skin with erythema at the fingers, finger webs, and dorsum of the hands (pictured below). _____
Answer: Irritant contact dermatitis
Flashcard 537: Tinea corporis/cruris affects individuals of any age, but is more common in _____ & immunocomprimised
Answer: children
Flashcard 538: Acne vulgaris spots include _____ (blackheads, whiteheads), inflammatory (pustules, papules), and excessive inflammatory (nodules, cysts) spots
Answer: comedones
Flashcard 539: Pityriasis versicolor most frequently occurs in _____ & humid weather
Answer: hot
Flashcard 540: What investigation is done for suspected tinea corporis/cruris if uncertain or targeted treatment is needed? _____
Answer: Skin samples for microscopic & fungal culture examination
Flashcard 541: Onychomycosis is caused by _____ & yeast (candida)
Answer: dermatophytes
Flashcard 542: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: onychomycosis
Flashcard 543: Onychomycosis tends to affect _____ patients and immunocompromised individuals
Answer: older
Flashcard 544: Diagnosis of tinea corporis/cruris is done through thorough clinical _____ & exam
Answer: history
Flashcard 545: Tinea cruris commonly develops when the infection spreads _____
Answer: from other body areas
Flashcard 546: Describe the pathogenesis of acne vulgaris: 1. _____ 2. ↑ sebum production 3. Propionbacterium acnes proliferation within follicle 4. Inflammation **helps understand the management
Answer: Pilosebaceous follicle hyperkeratinisation (clogging of the follicle)
Flashcard 547: _____ is most commonly associated with acne vulgaris
Answer: Propionbacterium acnes
Flashcard 548: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: irritant contact dermatitis
Flashcard 549: Pityriasis versicolor is most commonly seen in _____ **bonus, why?
Answer: teenagers/young adults
Flashcard 550: What investigation is done for suspected tinea pedis if uncertain or targeted treatment is needed? _____
Answer: Skin samples for microscopic & fungal culture examination
Flashcard 551: What is the first-line management of pityriasis versicolor? _____
Answer: Topical antifungals: • Terbinafine, clotrimazole, or miconazole cream ketaconazole 2%, selenium sulphide shampoos (leave for 15 minutes then wash)
Flashcard 552: Tinea capitis can progress and form a _____, which is a pustular spongy/boggy mass that is a fungal abscess
Answer: kerion
Flashcard 553: _____ contact dermatitis presents with a erythematous, dry rash that feels pruritic
Answer: Irritant
Flashcard 554: _____ is a chronic skin condition affecting the pilosebaceous unit leading to non-inflammatory comedones and/or inflammatory acne
Answer: Acne vulgaris
Flashcard 555: What is the first-line management for tinea corporis/cruris? _____
Answer: Topical antifungal cream (terbinafine cream)
Flashcard 556: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Kerion (in tinea capitis)
Flashcard 557: What is the first-line management for onychomycosis if few nails are affected? _____
Answer: Topical antifungal treatment (amorolfine)
Flashcard 558: How do tinea corporis & tinea cruris annular patches differ? _____
Answer: Characteristic scaly border seen in tinea corporis may be less visible due to the moist skin
Flashcard 559: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: irritant allergic dermatitis
Flashcard 560: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: tinea pedis (interdigital subtype)
Flashcard 561: What is the second-line management for pityriasis versicolor (extensive disease / topical mx is ineffective)? _____
Answer: Oral antifungal drugs (e.g. itraconazole or fluconazole)
Flashcard 562: Dermatophytes thrive in warm, _____ environments (e.g. locker rooms, public pools, hyperhidrosis)
Answer: humid
Flashcard 563: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Tinea capitis
Flashcard 564: Tinea _____ = fungal infection of the body Tinea cruris = fungal infection of the groin
Answer: corporis
Flashcard 565: What is the investigation for onychomycosis? _____
Answer: Nail clippings for fungal microscopy & culture
Flashcard 566: Urticaria presents with _____ that are pruritic and usually last < 24 hours
Answer: wheals
Flashcard 567: _____ infestations are caused by parasitic insects called Pediculus humanus capitis that inhabit human scalp hair & feed on blood
Answer: Head lice
Flashcard 568: Before treating a patient with cellulitis, _____ in order to monitor progress
Answer: use a single-use surgical marker to draw the outline of the infection
Flashcard 569: _____ is an acute, local bacterial infection of the dermis & subcutaneous tissue
Answer: Cellulitis
Flashcard 570: What is the management for class III & IV cellulitis?** _____ **class III is significant systemic upset or unstable comorbidities class IV is sepsis or life-threatening infection
Answer: Urgent hospital admission
Flashcard 571: _____ affects deeper skin layers than urticaria resulting in swelling of the dermis
Answer: Angiooedema
Flashcard 572: The _____ classification dictates management for cellulitis
Answer: Eron
Flashcard 573: Angio-oedema most commonly affects the _____, lips, & genitals
Answer: eyelids
Flashcard 574: Irritant contact dermatitis rash only affects areas within direct contact of irritant _____
Answer: True
Flashcard 575: Pressure sores typically occur over _____
Answer: bony prominences
Flashcard 576: A patient has had impetigo 2 weeks ago and now presents with malaise & blood in urine. What do you suspect? _____
Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Flashcard 577: Assess pressure sores with a validated classification tool (_____): Category 1: non-blanchable erythema Category 3: partial thickness skin loss Category 3: full thickness skin loss Category 4: full thickness tissue loss
Answer: NPUAP-EPUAP Pressure Ulcer Classification System
Flashcard 578: Head lice = _____ Nits = empty egg shells that are white & shiny and "glued" to the hair
Answer: small parasitc insects that are around 3mm in size and live for ~30 days
Flashcard 579: What is the management for Eron class II cellulitis?** _____ **class systemically unwell OR systemically well but with a comorbidity e.g. PAD, chronic venous insufficiency, morbid obesity
Answer: Short-term hospital observation OR outpatient parenteral antibiotic therapy
Flashcard 580: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Scabies
Flashcard 581: _____ contact dermatitis presents with a erythematous, papular or vesicular rash that is oedematous & oozing as well as feeling intensely pruritic
Answer: Allergic
Flashcard 582: _____ are areas of localised skin & underlying tissue damage caused by prolonged pressure, shear, or friction
Answer: Pressure ulcers/pressure sores/bedsores
Flashcard 583: _____ is an acute bacterial infection of the superficial dermis
Answer: Erysipelas
Flashcard 584: Head lice are spread by _____
Answer: direct contact
Flashcard 585: The healing process of a cellulitic infection may be comprimised with comorbidities such as _____, chronic venous insufficiency, or morbid obesity
Answer: peripheral arterial disease
Flashcard 586: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis
Flashcard 587: Cellulitis most commonly affects the _____
Answer: shin/leg
Flashcard 588: Urticaria are most commonly caused by allergy with a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction
Answer: 1
Flashcard 589: Eron classification for cellulitis: Class I: _____
Answer: no signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities
Flashcard 590: What is the management of severe acute flares of urticaria? _____
Answer: Oral corticosteroids
Flashcard 591: If multiple individuals of the same accommodation are infected with head lice they must be treated _____
Answer: at the same time
Flashcard 592: _____ urticaria = < 6 weeks Chronic urticaria = > {{c2::6 weeks::time}
Answer: Acute
Flashcard 593: Allergic contact dermatitis rash typically occurs _____-48 hours after exposure to an allergen **assuming previous sensitisation has already occurred
Answer: 6
Flashcard 594: What is the management for Eron class I cellulitis?** _____ **class I is no signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities Extra:
Answer: Oral antibiotics in primary care - flucloxacillin
Flashcard 595: _____ & cleaners are particularly prone to irritant contact dermatitis
Answer: Cement workers
Flashcard 596: What is the most common allergen for allergic contact dermatitis? _____
Answer: Nickel (jewellery, bra straps)
Flashcard 597: _____ is characterised by transient, pruritic hives
Answer: Urticaria
Flashcard 598: Irritant contact dermatitis most commonly affects the _____
Answer: hands
Flashcard 599: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Urticaria (hives)
Flashcard 600: What is the management for urticaria if trouble sleeping? _____
Answer: Sedating antihistamine
Flashcard 601: Anything that disrupts the cutaneous barrier is a risk factor for _____ infection: - Skin trauma - Ulceration - Surgery - Skin conditions (eczema, psoriasis, chronic venous ulcers) - IVDU
Answer: cellulitis
Flashcard 602: _____ = flat border, poorly-demarcated Erysipelas= raised border, well-demarcated
Answer: Cellulitis
Flashcard 603: What is the first-line management of urticaria? _____
Answer: Non-sedating antihistamine
Flashcard 604: Eron classification for cellulitis: Class IV: _____ OR severe life-threatening infection (e.g. necrotising fasciitis)
Answer: sepsis
Flashcard 605: A patient presents with a rash that appeared after a bee sting. Physical exam reveals annular, blanching, red papules on the arm. Vitals are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? _____
Answer: Urticaria (hives)
Flashcard 606: What is the management of pressure sores? _____
Answer: Wound dressings (hydrocolloid dressings which are moist)
Flashcard 607: If a cellulitis-like rash is rapidly progressive & blistering then consider _____
Answer: necrotising fasciits
Flashcard 608: Allergic contact dermatitis rash only affects areas within direct contact of allergen _____
Answer: False; it mainly affects areas that have been in direct contact with the allergen. However, as it is a true allergy it can affet other areas without contact. E.g. a nickel belt buckle can cause a rash on the abdomen, & skin on the face can get erythematous
Flashcard 609: How do you diagnose head lice? _____
Answer: +ve if live head louse are visualised; • Naked eye • Magnifying class • Detection combing using a fine-toothed comb • Microscope
Flashcard 610: Allergic contact dermatitis can often present on the abdomen because of a(n) _____
Answer: belt (nickel)
Flashcard 611: Cellulitis is most often caused by _____ or Streptococcus pyogenes infection
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
Flashcard 612: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Urticaria (hives)
Flashcard 613: If necrotic tissue is present in pressure sores then manage with _____
Answer: surgical debridement
Flashcard 614: _____ is an inflammatory skin reaction caused by direct exposure to an irritant or allergen
Answer: Contact dermatitis
Flashcard 615: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis
Flashcard 616: A _____ is done for cellulitis IF there is a portal for microbial entry
Answer: swab (for culture)
Flashcard 617: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Cellulitis
Flashcard 618: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Cellulitis
Flashcard 619: Repeat _____ for head lice is done to confirm successful treatment
Answer: combing
Flashcard 620: Cellulitis is usually _____lateral
Answer: uni
Flashcard 621: Head lice presents _____ BUT can present with pruritis 2-3 weeks after infection
Answer: asymtomatically
Flashcard 622: Irritant contact dermatitis rash typically occurs _____ after exposure to an irritant
Answer: 48 hours
Flashcard 623: _____ contact dermatitis is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction that is characterised by erythema & pruritus at the site of contact
Answer: Allergic
Flashcard 624: Eron classification for cellulitis: Class III: _____ OR unstable comorbidity that may interfere with a response to treatment OR a limb-threatening infection due to vascular comprimise
Answer: significant systemic upset (confusion, tachycardia, hypotension)
Flashcard 625: Eron classification for cellulitis: Class II: _____ OR systemically well but with a comorboditiy that complicates/delays resolution of infection (e.g. PAD, chronic venous insufficiency, morbid obesity)
Answer: systemically unwell
Flashcard 626: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Atopic eczema (infantile)
Flashcard 627: _____ can trigger or worsen atopic eczema
Answer: Stress
Flashcard 628: _____ is a contagious, bacterial skin infection common in children
Answer: Impetigo
Flashcard 629: For severe, widespread atopic eczema a short course of _____ may be recommended
Answer: oral corticosteroids
Flashcard 630: What management for impetigo can be used other than topical hydrogen peroxide 1%? 1st line: _____ Alternative: Topical mupirocin 2%
Answer: Topical fusidic acid 2%
Flashcard 631: _____ is the least oiliest and best absorbed
Answer: Lotion
Flashcard 632: When assessing atopic eczema, the _____ impact should be evaluated
Answer: psychological
Flashcard 633: Atopic conditions associated with each other are _____, allergic rhinitis, & asthma
Answer: atopic dermatitis
Flashcard 634: If MRSA-related impetigo is a possibility then _____
Answer: obtain a swab & seek specialist advice
Flashcard 635: Scabies presents with _____ worse at night
Answer: widespread pruritis
Flashcard 636: _____ is used best for daily use particularly for warm weather
Answer: Lotion
Flashcard 637: Risk factors for scabies: _____ contact Compromised immune system Poor hygiene Children
Answer: Close
Flashcard 638: Atopic eczema presenting with oozing, painful, crusted eczema WITH _____ or general malaise should be managed with antibiotics
Answer: fever
Flashcard 639: The most common organism causing impetigo is _____
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Flashcard 640: _____ is a severe, highly contagious form of scabies that typically affects immunocompromised individuals
Answer: Crusted scabies (Norwegian scabies)
Flashcard 641: _____ impetigo is caused by Staphylococcus aureus & Streptococcus pyogenes
Answer: Non-bullous
Flashcard 642: _____ is the oiliest and provides the most protective barrier
Answer: Ointment
Flashcard 643: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Impetigo (bullous)
Flashcard 644: Permethrin cream should be given _____ for scabies
Answer: once weekly for 2 doses
Flashcard 645: Advise patients with atopic eczema to use emollients liberally and apply _____ at least
Answer: BD
Flashcard 646: Individuals with impetigo should be excluded from school/work until _____ or until 48 hours after starting treatment
Answer: lesions are crusted over
Flashcard 647: Example of a mild topical corticosteroid for atopic eczema = _____
Answer: hydrocortisone 1%
Flashcard 648: Impetigo spreads by direct contact with the bacteria invading skin through _____ and spread further by scratching
Answer: abrasions (including cuts, burns, insect bites, eczema)
Flashcard 649: _____ impetigo is caused by Staphylococcus aureus exclusively
Answer: Bullous
Flashcard 650: _____ are used for acute flares and moderate-to-severe atopic eczema
Answer: Topical steroids
Flashcard 651: What management for impetigo if the topical treatment is ineffective, widespread, or systemically unwell? _____
Answer: Oral flucloxacillin
Flashcard 652: Impetigo is most common in ages _____-7
Answer: 2
Flashcard 653: _____ potency topical steroids can be used on delicate areas e.g. face or genitals
Answer: Lower
Flashcard 654: _____ is used best for daily use particularly for dry skin and cold weather
Answer: Cream
Flashcard 655: Example of a potent topical corticosteroid for atopic eczema = _____
Answer: betnovate (betamethasone)
Flashcard 656: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Impetigo (non-bullous)
Flashcard 657: Consider _____ in impetigo that is resistant to treatment 0_0 uh oh
Answer: methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
Flashcard 658: Topical steroids for atopic eczema can be used with a _____, high-strength short-burst strategy, & weekend therapy*
Answer: lowest-strength strategy
Flashcard 659: _____ impetigo = fluid-filled vesicles that rupture forming "honey-coloured" crust Bullous impetigo = bullae with thin skin that peels off and ruptures oozing yellow fluid, leaving a scaley rim & erythematous raw area
Answer: Non-bullous
Flashcard 660: If impetigo is _____ or does NOT respond to treatment then consider sending a swab (microbiological testing)
Answer: recurrent
Flashcard 661: Pruritis from scabies can take _____ to go away after treatment because of skin reaction with dead mites
Answer: 2-3 weeks (up to 6 weeks)
Flashcard 662: Scabies is diagnosed _____
Answer: clinically w/history & exam
Flashcard 663: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Atopic eczema
Flashcard 664: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Impetigo (bullous)
Flashcard 665: What are the types of emollients? _____ Creams Ointments
Answer: Lotions
Flashcard 666: Impetigo characteristically presents with _____ typically located around the mouth
Answer: "honey" crusted skin lesions
Flashcard 667: The two primary types of impetigo are _____ & bullous
Answer: non-bullous
Flashcard 668: Scabies causes a(n) _____ associated with a type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction to mites/eggs occuring ~30 days after initial infection
Answer: intense pruritis
Flashcard 669: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Scabies
Flashcard 670: Atopic eczema presenting with sleep disturbance should be offered a(n) _____
Answer: sedating antihistamine
Flashcard 671: _____ is used best for nightly use particularly for very dry, thickened, or cracked skin
Answer: Ointment
Flashcard 672: Crusted scabies (Norwegian scabies) is primarily seen in _____ patients
Answer: immunocompromised
Flashcard 673: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Scabies
Flashcard 674: Patients taking warfarin who require emergency surgery that cannot be delayed should be given _____ to reverse the anticoagulation
Answer: dried prothrombin complex AND IV vitamin K
Flashcard 675: Warfarin should be stopped 5 days before elective surgery. If the INR is ≥_____ the day before surgery, give oral vitamin K
Answer: 1.5
Flashcard 676: Patients scheduled for surgery who are at high risk of thromboembolism and take warfarin may be given a bridging dose of _____ during the 5 days before surgery. Stop the LMWH 24 hours before surgery
Answer: LMWH
Flashcard 677: When can warfarin be resumed following surgery? _____
Answer: Evening of the surgery OR next day
Flashcard 678: Warfarin should be stopped _____ before elective surgery
Answer: 5 days
Flashcard 679: Numerous, round well-defined lung metastases are called _____. They are most commonly caused by renal cell cancer
Answer: "cannonball metastases"
Flashcard 680: All men with malignancy of unknown origin should have a _____
Answer: PSA blood test
Flashcard 681: Patients with malignancy of unknown origin and symptoms, histology or radiology suggestive of a GI primary tumour should have an _____
Answer: endoscopy
Flashcard 682: Primary cancers very rarely metastasise to the _____
Answer: kidneys
Flashcard 683: All men with malignancy of unknown origin with presentations compatible with germ cell tumours should have a _____
Answer: testicular USS
Flashcard 684: _____ refers to a bacterial invasion of the cornea causing inflammation & damage
Answer: Keratitis
Flashcard 685: Infectious keratitis is most commonly caused by _____ & Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Flashcard 686: Wet (neovascular/exudative) macular degeneration is due to bleeding, secondary to choroidal _____
Answer: neovascularization
Flashcard 687: Risk factors for age-related macular degeneration: _____ Smoking Family history Cardiovascular disease/risk factors
Answer: Age (believe it or not)
Flashcard 688: _____ is a progressive degenerative disease of the macula, occurring in two forms; dry (atrophic) and wet (neovascular)
Answer: Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)
Flashcard 689: Infectious keratitis most commonly occurs in ages _____-40 years old, reflecting the ages of contact lens users
Answer: 15
Flashcard 690: What are the clinical examination findings for a meibomian cyst (chalazion)? _____
Answer: Upon everting the eyelid, there is a discrete, immobile nodule (granuloma)
Flashcard 691: What topical treatment can be used for a BCC? _____
Answer: Imiquimod cream
Flashcard 692: What is the management of a meibomian cyst (chalazion)? _____
Answer: Gentle massage with a warm compress (massage towards eyelids)
Flashcard 693: What is the management of orbital cellulitis? _____
Answer: Admit to hospital for IV antibiotics
Flashcard 694: Malignant melanoma staging is based on _____
Answer: TNM
Flashcard 695: Orbital cellulitis is commonly caused by _____
Answer: local spreading infection from acute bacterial sinusitis
Flashcard 696: Melanomas are more common on the _____ in women and the trunk in men
Answer: legs
Flashcard 697: Malignant melanomas with _____ disease may be treated with chemotherapy
Answer: metastatic
Flashcard 698: What imaging must be done for orbital cellulitis? _____
Answer: CT orbit, sinuses, & brain with contrast
Flashcard 699: What investigation is done for orbital cellulitis to determine the organism? _____
Answer: Blood culture & microbiological swab
Flashcard 700: What is the management of a BCC? 1st line: _____
Answer: Surgical excision
Flashcard 701: _____ melanoma is has no clear relation with UV exposure
Answer: Acral lentiginous
Flashcard 702: _____ melanoma is more common on the lower limbs in young-middle aged adults
Answer: Superficial spreading
Flashcard 703: What is the management of SCCs? 1st line: _____
Answer: Surgical excision
Flashcard 704: _____ is used in high-risk areas around the lips, eyes and nose
Answer: Mohs micrographically controlled excision
Flashcard 705: Is proptosis present in orbital cellulitis? _____
Answer: Yes
Flashcard 706: _____ = in-turning of the eyelids Ectropion = out-turning of the eyelids
Answer: Entropion
Flashcard 707: What initial investigation is done for acoustic neuroma? _____
Answer: Audiometry; +ve for sensorineural hearing loss
Flashcard 708: _____ melanoma is more common on the palms, soles and nail beds in the elderly population
Answer: Acral lentiginous
Flashcard 709: Surgical excision of SCCs should have a _____ margin of normal tissue around the visible tumour
Answer: 3-10mm
Flashcard 710: What is the likely diagnosis in a child that presents with pain with eye movements as well as fever, periorbital edema, ophthalmoplegia, and proptosis? _____
Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Flashcard 711: _____ basal cell carcinoma is a small, skin-coloured papule/nodule with surface telangiectasia and a pearly rolled edge The lesion may have a necrotic or ulcerated centre
Answer: Nodular
Flashcard 712: Is ophthalmoplegia present in preseptal cellulitis? _____
Answer: No
Flashcard 713: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: entropion
Flashcard 714: _____ presents as a keratotic poorly-defined nodule which can often ulcerate. They are usually painful
Answer: Squamous cell carcinomas (SCC)
Flashcard 715: Is ophthalmoplegia present in orbital cellulitis? _____
Answer: Yes
Flashcard 716: What is the management of SCCs which are ill-defined, large or recurrent? _____
Answer: Mohs micrographic surgery
Flashcard 717: _____ melanoma is more common on the face in the elderly population
Answer: Lentigo maligna
Flashcard 718: A persistent meibomian cyst (chalazion), as shown below, should be _____ to rule out carcinomas of the eyelid
Answer: biopsied
Flashcard 719: A recurrent or persistent nodule on the eyelid could actually be an underlying _____ or basal cell carcinoma that is masquerading as a benign chalazion
Answer: sebaceous carcinoma
Flashcard 720: Orbital cellulitis presents with _____, proptosis, pupil involvement & visual changes, periocular oedema& opthalmoplegia
Answer: pain
Flashcard 721: _____ usually arise within pre-existing actinic keratosis
Answer: Squamous cell carcinomas (SCC)
Flashcard 722: An _____ is benign tumour which almost always affects the vestibular nerve thus causing hearing loss
Answer: acoustic neuroma
Flashcard 723: _____ are developments of SCCs at the site of a scar or ulcer usually around 30 years post-injury
Answer: Marjolin ulcers
Flashcard 724: Preseptal/periorbital cellulitis can progress into _____
Answer: orbital cellulitis
Flashcard 725: What is the most common primary morphology of basal cell carcinoma? _____
Answer: Nodular
Flashcard 726: Orbital cellulitis is a more _____ infection than preseptal cellulitis
Answer: severe
Flashcard 727: _____ is least likely to metastasise
Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Flashcard 728: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient that presents with a hard, painless bump on the eyelid? _____
Answer: Meibomian cyst (chalazion)
Flashcard 729: How can you differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis? _____ Orbital causes oedema/erythema of conjunctiva as well as eyelids
Answer: Orbital usually has ophthalmoplegia, proptosis, decreased vision and papilloedema
Flashcard 730: Melanomas are considered _____ if they have spread to other tissues
Answer: metastatic
Flashcard 731: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: ectropion
Flashcard 732: Periorbital cellulitis is commonly caused by _____
Answer: superficial infection anterior to the orbital septum (e.g. chalazion, bug bite)
Flashcard 733: A meibomian cyst is also known as a _____
Answer: chalazion
Flashcard 734: _____ is an infection of the soft tissues anterior to the orbital septum, including the eye lids and surrounding tissue
Answer: Preseptal cellulitis
Flashcard 735: _____ melanoma is more common on the trunk in young-middle aged adults
Answer: Nodular
Flashcard 736: Orbital cellulitis is most common in _____
Answer: children
Flashcard 737: What are the margins for malignant melanoma based on Breslow thickness? 0-1mm thick = _____cm margin 1-2mm thick = 1-2cm margin 2-4 mm thick = 2-3cm margin >4mm thick = 3cm margin
Answer: 1
Flashcard 738: _____ is an invasive malignant tumour of the epidermal keratinocytes which has the potential to metastasise
Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
Flashcard 739: Melanomas are considered _____ if they are confined to the epidermis
Answer: in situ
Flashcard 740: If a BCC is suspected, then a _____ referral should be made to dermatology
Answer: routine
Flashcard 741: FBC for suspected orbital cellulitis will likely show ↑ _____ & ↑ CRP (inflammatory markers)
Answer: WBC levels
Flashcard 742: _____ is an early form of skin cancer that can develop into SCC
Answer: Bowen's disease
Flashcard 743: _____ is an infection of muscle & fat surrounding the orbit posterior to the orbital septum
Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Flashcard 744: Surgical excision of BCCs should include a _____ margin of normal skin around the tumour
Answer: 3-5mm
Flashcard 745: Which diagnosis is likely to present as eyelid erythema/edema with normal vision and intact extraocular eye movements? _____
Answer: Preseptal cellulitis
Flashcard 746: What are the ABCDE Symptoms of Melanomas? _____ Border irregularity Colour irregularity Diameter >6mm Evolution of lesion (change in shape or size) Bleeding, itching etc
Answer: Asymmetrical shape
Flashcard 747: _____ is an invasive malignant tumour of the epidermal melanocytes, which has the potential to metastasise
Answer: Malignant melanoma
Flashcard 748: What are the risk factors for skin cancer? _____, history of sunburn/skin type 1, immunosupression, PMHx of skin cancer, FHx of skin cancer
Answer: UV exposure
Flashcard 749: Pain_____, firm, localised eyelid swelling that develops gradually is suggestive of meibomian cyst (chalazion)
Answer: less
Flashcard 750: Melanomas are considered _____ if they have spread to the dermis
Answer: invasive
Flashcard 751: What is the 1st line management of malignant melanoma? _____
Answer: Wide local excision biopsy
Flashcard 752: Meibomian cysts are more common in _____
Answer: Elderly
Flashcard 753: A _____ is a non-infectious, benign, chronic, painless swelling of the eyelid caused by the obstruction of a meibomian gland
Answer: meibomian cyst (chalazion)
Flashcard 754: Excision margins for malignant melanoma are determined by the _____
Answer: Breslow thickness
Flashcard 755: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: orbital cellulitis
Flashcard 756: Is proptosis present in preseptal cellulitis? _____
Answer: No
Flashcard 757: Non-cancerous growths of melanocytes results in _____ and freckles Cancerous growths of melanocytes results in melanomas
Answer: moles (benign melanocytic naevi)
Flashcard 758: What is the most common predisposing factor for orbital cellulitis? _____
Answer: Bacterial sinusitis
Flashcard 759: Retinal detachment is more common in _____
Answer: 50-70
Flashcard 760: Is visual acuity preserved in retinal detachment? _____
Answer: Only if the macula is not detached
Flashcard 761: _____ infective conjunctivitis may present with eyes adhering together particularly after waking up
Answer: Bacterial
Flashcard 762: If a person fails to respond to initial treatment for infective conjunctivitis, then a _____ may be taken
Answer: swab
Flashcard 763: Small artery disease can cause central retinal artery occlusion in _____ patients commonly co-morbid with diabetes or/and hypertension **bonus, explain why
Answer: older
Flashcard 764: _____ is the most common form of skin cancer
Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Flashcard 765: What is the management of suspected retinal detachment? _____
Answer: Urgent ophthalmologist consultation
Flashcard 766: What is the likely diagnosis in an elderly patient with sudden loss of vision in the left eye for the past hour? O/E of the eye reveals subtle retinal whitening. Cardiac examination is significant for a left carotid bruit. _____
Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Flashcard 767: Patients presenting with central retinal artery occlusion >50yrs should have an _____ to screen for giant cell arteritis
Answer: urgent serum CRP
Flashcard 768: Retinal _____ is often preceded by posterior vitreous detachment, which presents with "flashes" and "floaters"
Answer: detachment
Flashcard 769: Is visual acuity affected in infective conjunctivitis? _____
Answer: No, only potential blurring from discharge
Flashcard 770: Infective conjunctivitis is usually self-limiting; within _____ for viral conjunctivitis, within 2-5 days for bacterial conjunctivitis
Answer: 7-14 days
Flashcard 771: Central retinal artery occlusion is most commonly caused by an embolized atherosclerotic plaque from the ipsilateral _____ artery
Answer: internal carotid
Flashcard 772: Risk factors for retinal detachment: Myopia Ocular trauma _____ surgery Posterior vitreous detachment
Answer: Intraocular
Flashcard 773: What are the two biggest risk factors for retinal detachment? _____
Answer: Age and myopia
Flashcard 774: A _____ detachment in retinal detachment occurs when the retina is pulled away from the retinal pigment epithelium by fibrovascular tissue or scarring commonly associated with proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Answer: tractional
Flashcard 775: Retinal detachment is _____
Answer: reversible
Flashcard 776: Viral infective conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by _____
Answer: adenovirus
Flashcard 777: Infective conjunctivitis can be caused by _____, bacterial, or fungal/parasitic
Answer: viral
Flashcard 778: An _____ detachment in retinal detachment results from inflammatory, vascular, or neoplastic conditions
Answer: exudative
Flashcard 779: The most common cause of central retinal artery occlusion is _____
Answer: carotid artery atherosclerosis
Flashcard 780: Acute management of central retinal artery occlusion to ↓ IOP use _____
Answer: IV acetazolamide
Flashcard 781: Bacterial infective conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by _____, Streptococcus pneumoniae, & Haemophilus influenzae.
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Flashcard 782: Patients presenting with central retinal artery occlusion should have an _____ to screen for carotid artery atherosclerosis
Answer: urgent carotid artery duplex US/doppler
Flashcard 783: Retinal detachment can be caused by _____ ocular trauma
Answer: blunt
Flashcard 784: Is infective conjunctivitis typically uni- or bilateral? _____
Answer: Both Typically starts unilaterally then becomes bilateral within 24-48 hours, but can be localised to one eye
Flashcard 785: Diagnosis of central retinal artery occlusion is clinical, however, if fundoscopy is unclear then _____ can be performed
Answer: fluorescein angiography
Flashcard 786: Patients presenting with central retinal artery occlusion may have an _____ looking for possible cause of cardiogenic embolism
Answer: echocardiogram & ECG
Flashcard 787: A pregnant lady with bacterial infective conjunctivitis presents, what medication is given? _____
Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Flashcard 788: _____ retinal detachment is the most common type of retinal detachment, caused by a full-thickness tear or break in the retina that allows vitreous fluid to accumulate beneath the sensory retina, separating it from the retinal pigment epithelium
Answer: Rhegmatogenous
Flashcard 789: The prognosis of central retinal artery occlusion is poor, even with treatment, ~_____% of patients obtain functional visual recovery without any treatment
Answer: 17.7
Flashcard 790: There are 3 types of retinal detachment; _____, tractional detachment, & exudative detachment
Answer: rhegmatogenous detachment
Flashcard 791: _____ infective conjunctivitis may present with recent URTI
Answer: Viral
Flashcard 792: Acute management of central retinal artery occlusion involves various methods, not one is "gold-standard"; _____, IV acetazolamide, inhaled carbogen/hyperbaric oxygen/sublingual isosorbid edinitrate, or/and intra-arterial fibrinolysis
Answer: ocular massage
Flashcard 793: Infective conjunctivitis presents with _____, "sandy" sensation, & discharge
Answer: conjunctival injection
Flashcard 794: _____ is a slow-growing, locally invasive, malignant tumour
Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Flashcard 795: Retinal deatchment may present with _____ & pale/opaque/wrinkled/grayish retinal folds on opthalmoscopy
Answer: ↓/absent red reflex
Flashcard 796: _____ is the most common eye problem in primary care
Answer: Infective conjunctivitis
Flashcard 797: Treat bacterial infective conjunctivitis with _____ & topical broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer: supportive measures
Flashcard 798: Retinal detachment is pain_____
Answer: less
Flashcard 799: Patients presenting with central retinal artery occlusion will have blood tests for FBC, _____, lipid profile, & fasting blood sugars
Answer: coagulation studies
Flashcard 800: _____ infective conjunctivitis may present with periauricular lymphadenopathy on examination
Answer: Viral
Flashcard 801: Acute angle closure glaucoma risk factors: _____ Asian descent Hyperopia
Answer: Female
Flashcard 802: Indications for cataract surgery? _____
Answer: Discuss with the patient: - QOL affected? - Uni or bilateral cataracts - Surgical risks and benefits - Does the patient want to have surgery?
Flashcard 803: What is the gold-standard investigation for acute angle closure glaucoma? _____
Answer: Gonioscopy showing closed iridocorneal angle
Flashcard 804: Extended _____ is a risk factor for cataracts
Answer: corticosteroids use
Flashcard 805: Acute closed-angle glaucoma symptoms worsen with pupil _____
Answer: dilation
Flashcard 806: What is the definitive management for cataracts? _____
Answer: Surgical
Flashcard 807: Risk factors for cataracts: _____ Smoking Prolonged UV-B radiation (light) Long-term corticosteroids
Answer: Ageing
Flashcard 808: Patients with cataracts may describe seeing _____ around lights
Answer: haloes
Flashcard 809: Acute angle closure glaucoma presents with _____ visual acuity
Answer: ↓
Flashcard 810: Cataracts can result from trauma e.g. _____/intraocular operation
Answer: bruise injury
Flashcard 811: The primary cause of cataracts are _____
Answer: normal ageing process (more commonly in patients > 80 yrs)
Flashcard 812: What is the definitive management of acute angle closure glaucoma? _____
Answer: Laser peripheral iridotomy (LPI)
Flashcard 813: What is the management if you suspect a congenital cataract? _____
Answer: Immediate referral for prompt surgery & identification of underlying cause
Flashcard 814: What is the management of acute angle closure glaucoma IF emergency opthalmic admission is NOT possible: - _____ - Pilocarpine drops (1 drop of 2% for blue eyes, 4% in brown eyes) - 500mg PO acetazolamide - Analgesia - Anti-emetic if required
Answer: Lie flat, face up, no pillows
Flashcard 815: If primary open-angle glaucoma is suspected then refer _____
Answer: to a specialist
Flashcard 816: _____ accelerates cataract formation because of chronic hyperglycaemia
Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Flashcard 817: What is the leading cause of curable blindness worldwide? _____
Answer: Cataracts!
Flashcard 818: The main presentation of cataracts is the _____
Answer: gradual & painless decline in vision
Flashcard 819: _____ are a progressive clouding of the ocular lens
Answer: Cataracts
Flashcard 820: What is the management of blepharitis after conservative management fails? _____
Answer: antibiotic eye drops
Flashcard 821: Otitis externa is also known as _____
Answer: swimmer's ear
Flashcard 822: Refer supsected uveitis to _____
Answer: eye casualty
Flashcard 823: Otitis externa may have a non-infectious cause such as: _____ OR eczema → eczematous otitis externa (e.g. secondary to topical abx)
Answer: seborrheic dermatitis → seborrheic otitis externa
Flashcard 824: Otitis externa presents with _____ which is worst at night WITH discharge and pruritis of the ear canal
Answer: otalgia
Flashcard 825: Patients with otitis externa which fails to respond to topical ABX should have a _____ and be referred to ENT
Answer: MC&S swab
Flashcard 826: Uveitis may present with conjunctival redness and _____, which is the accumulation of pus in the anterior chamber
Answer: hypopyon
Flashcard 827: In anterior uveitis the pupil may be _____
Answer: irregular & small
Flashcard 828: Acute otitis externa lasts _____, whereas chronic otitis externa lasts >6 weeks
Answer: <6 weeks
Flashcard 829: Otitis externa can cause _____ hearing loss
Answer: conductive
Flashcard 830: What is the preventative pharmacological management of Meniere's disease? _____ or thiazide diuretics
Answer: Betahistine
Flashcard 831: _____ is a subtype of uveitis that specifically refers to inflammation confined to the iris
Answer: Iritis
Flashcard 832: _____ blepharitis of the anterior margin of the eyelids: Staphylococci Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Answer: Anterior
Flashcard 833: What is the initial management of blepharitis? _____
Answer: Warm compresses & eyelid cleansing with massage
Flashcard 834: Characteristic clinical signs of blepharitis are burning, itching, erythema, & crusting of the eyelids worse in the _____
Answer: mornings
Flashcard 835: _____ should be suspected in patients with chronic otitis externa, severe pain and comorbidities such as diabetes or HIV (immunocompromised)
Answer: Malignant otitis externa
Flashcard 836: _____ is a progressive optic neuropathy characterised by structural damage to the optic nerve & corresponding visual field loss, most often associated with elevated intraocular pressure
Answer: Glaucoma
Flashcard 837: Otitis externa is an infection of the _____ typically caused by bacteria (e.g. pseudomonas)
Answer: external auditory canal
Flashcard 838: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with a history of IBD that presents with a painful, red eye with tearing and decreased visual acuity? _____
Answer: Anterior uveitis
Flashcard 839: _____ blepharitis refers to inflammation of the posterior margin of they eyelids (meibomian gland dysfunction)
Answer: Posterior
Flashcard 840: Women with breast abscesses _____ be encouraged to continue breastfeeding/expressing milk
Answer: should
Flashcard 841: Patient's with early & locally advanced invasive breast cancer and +ve lymph node involvement at presentation should have pre-treatment _____ during surgery
Answer: axillary node clearance
Flashcard 842: Women who have had a mastectomy for breast cancer should be offered _____
Answer: breast reconstruction
Flashcard 843: Mastitis swelling/erythema tends to be in a _____-shaped pattern
Answer: wedge
Flashcard 844: What is the mainstay management of breast cancer? _____
Answer: Surgery
Flashcard 845: Anyone with _____ suggestive of breast cancer should have a suspected cancer pathway referral
Answer: skin changes
Flashcard 846: _____ is used in breast cancer to reduce tumour size, treat nodal disease, treat tiple-negative or metastatic breast cancer
Answer: Chemotherapy
Flashcard 847: What is the investigation for breast abscesses? _____
Answer: Ultrasound
Flashcard 848: Women < 30 with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain should be considered for a _____ referral
Answer: non-urgent
Flashcard 849: Pre-menopausal women with ER+ve breast cancer should be given which hormonal therapy? _____
Answer: Tamoxifen
Flashcard 850: Breast cancers with hormone receptors are treated with hormonal therapy for _____ after diagnosis
Answer: 5 years
Flashcard 851: Women aged ≥30 should have an _____ referral for the breast if they have: An unexplained breast or axilla lump
Answer: suspected cancer pathway
Flashcard 852: Women with HER2+ve breast cancer should be given which biologic therapy? _____
Answer: Herceptin (trastuzumab)
Flashcard 853: NHS breast screening programme invites women aged _____-71 years old to receive a mammogram every 3 years
Answer: 50
Flashcard 854: Mastitis commonly occurs in women who are _____
Answer: lactating/breastfeeding
Flashcard 855: Post-menopausal women with ER+ve breast cancer should be given which hormonal therapy? _____
Answer: Aromatase inhibitors (e.g. anastrozole)
Flashcard 856: The most common pathogen associated with infective mastitis/breast abscesses is _____
Answer: staph. aureus
Flashcard 857: What is the management of infective mastitis? _____
Answer: Antibiotics; flucloxacillin
Flashcard 858: The pathophysiology of mastitis involves _____ in the ducts, causing obstruction, which leads to inflammation & bacterial infection
Answer: milk stasis
Flashcard 859: Women with _____ risk are offered breast cancer screening before 50
Answer: moderate
Flashcard 860: Patient's with early & locally advanced invasive breast cancer need pre-treatment _____ before surgery
Answer: axillary ultrasound
Flashcard 861: Untreated mastitis can develop into a _____
Answer: breast abcess
Flashcard 862: _____ for breast cancer involves: • Physical examination • Imaging (mammogram/USS/other) • Biopsy (core biopsy/fine needle aspiration)
Answer: Triple assessment
Flashcard 863: Mastitis is a _____ breast which is erythematous, swollen and firm ± systemic symptoms such as malaise and fever
Answer: painful
Flashcard 864: Radiotherapy for breast cancer is indicated for women who have recieved _____ surgery or a mastectomy if the cancer is node-positive or T3-T4
Answer: breast-conserving
Flashcard 865: What is the management of breast abscesses in secondary care? _____ and then culture of abscess fluid
Answer: Drainage
Flashcard 866: Breast abscesses typically occur as a complication of _____
Answer: infective mastitis
Flashcard 867: What is the first-line management of lactational mastitis? _____ Simple analgesia Warm & cold compress
Answer: Continue breastfeeding
Flashcard 868: Women aged ≥50 should have an _____ referral for the breast if they have: An unexplained breast or axilla lump or discharge, retraction, other changes of concern in one nipple only
Answer: suspected cancer pathway
Flashcard 869: The most common type of breast cancer is _____
Answer: invasive ductal carcinoma
Flashcard 870: Which genes are most commonly associated with breast cancer? _____ & BRCA2
Answer: BRCA1
Flashcard 871: What features of a breast cancer suggest that a mastectomy is the most suitable option (over wide local excision)? _____, Multicentric disease (multiple quadrants effected) High risk / known genetic predisposition
Answer: Large tumour relative to breast size
Flashcard 872: Breast cancer where tumour emboli block the dermal lymphatic drainage causing oedematous breasts is called _____ breast cancer
Answer: inflamatory
Flashcard 873: _____ is the most common surgical management of breast cancer
Answer: Wide local excision
Flashcard 874: Herceptin (Trastuzumab) is used with caution in patients with a history of _____
Answer: heart conditions
Flashcard 875: _____ is characterized by eczematous changes of the nipple-areolar complex, often associated with underling breast cancer
Answer: Paget's disease of the nipple
Flashcard 876: What type of rash is seen in eczema herpeticum? _____
Answer: monomorphic vesicular erosions
Flashcard 877: Most acoustic neuromas are _____-growing, benign
Answer: slow
Flashcard 878: What is the gold-standard investigation for acoustic neuroma? _____
Answer: Contrast MRI of the cerebellopontine angle
Flashcard 879: Acoustic neuromas are also known as _____
Answer: vestibular schwannomas
Flashcard 880: Acoustic neuromas are most commonly unilateral; bilateral acoustic neuromas raise suspicion for _____
Answer: neurofibromatosis type II
Flashcard 881: _____ are benign tumours arising from Schwann cells located in the cerebellopontine angle
Answer: Acoustic neuromas
Flashcard 882: An acoustic neuroma compressing cranial nerve _____ presents with facial paresthesia
Answer: V
Flashcard 883: An acoustic neuroma compressing cranial nerve _____ presents with facial weakness/palsy
Answer: VII
Flashcard 884: What is the next step in primary care for patients with suspected acoustic neuroma? _____
Answer: Refer to ENT
Flashcard 885: An acoustic neuroma affecting cranial nerve _____ presents with unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, & balance disturbance
Answer: VIII
Flashcard 886: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient on post-op day 1 status-post CABG that presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and the findings below: Right atrium: 20 mmHg Right ventricle: 35/20 mmHg PCWP: 20 mmHg _____
Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Flashcard 887: A major complication associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm is _____, especially when >5.5 cm in diameter
Answer: rupture
Flashcard 888: What are the indications for abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery? _____
Answer: - Symptomatic - ≥ 5.5cm - Rapidly enlarging > 1cm/year
Flashcard 889: An _____ is a permanent dilatation of ≥ 1.5x in all layers of the artery
Answer: aneurysm
Flashcard 890: Major risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysm are _____ & hypertension often in males
Answer: smoking
Flashcard 891: Rare risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms include _____
Answer: connective tissue disorders
Flashcard 892: AAA screening: If AAA is _____cm-4.4cm then yearly US surveillance If AAA is 4.5cm-5.4cm then 3 monthly US surveillance
Answer: 3
Flashcard 893: What is the surgical management of mitral regurgitation? Patients suitable for open surgery: _____ Patients unsuitable for open surgery: transcatheter edge-to-edge valve repair
Answer: valve repair or valve replacement
Flashcard 894: What is the initial investigation for suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm? _____
Answer: Bedside ultrasound
Flashcard 895: Mitral valve _____ is prefered in degenerative mitral regurgitation
Answer: repair
Flashcard 896: What are the indications for surgical managment of mitral regurgitation? _____
Answer: Reduced ejection fraction left ventricular dilation pulmonary artery systolic BP rise >60mmHg upon exercise testing
Flashcard 897: AAA screening: If AAA ≥ _____cm then refer to regional vascular service within 2 weeks
Answer: 5.5
Flashcard 898: The threshold for a rapidly enlargening abdominal aortic aneurysm is > _____cm/year growth
Answer: 1
Flashcard 899: On clinical examination, an abdominal aortic aneurysm is a palpable, _____ mass
Answer: pulsatile
Flashcard 900: How are abdominal aortic aneurysms ≥ _____cm, symptomatic, or rapidly enlarging managed? 2 week referral & surgery (endovascular repair or open repair)
Answer: 5.5
Flashcard 901: Abdominal aortic aneurysms are most commonly located in the _____ segment (80%)
Answer: infrarenal
Flashcard 902: A 72 year-old patient presents with claudication when walking a specific distance. He smokes 10 cigarettes a day and presents with a lesion. What is the diagnosis? _____
Answer: Peripheral arterial disease with arterial ulcer on foot
Flashcard 903: A _____ is an accumulation of blood between the tunica media & tunica adventitia of the artery
Answer: pseudoaneurysm
Flashcard 904: How are abdominal aortic aneurysms < _____cm managed? US surveillance + optimising risk factors
Answer: 5.5
Flashcard 905: What is the screening criteria for an abdominal aortic aneurysm? _____
Answer: Single US in males aged ≥ 65
Flashcard 906: What demographic is commonly associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm? _____
Answer: Males > 60 (usually a smoker with HTN)
Flashcard 907: Infrarenal aorta normal size: Females → _____cm Males → ~2.0cm
Answer: ~1.7
Flashcard 908: What are the surgical management options for abdominal aortic aneurysm? _____
Answer: EVAR - elective endovascular repair Open repair
Flashcard 909: Abdominal aorta ≥ _____cm is classified as an aneurysm
Answer: 3
Flashcard 910: AAA screening: If AAA is < _____cm then no further action is needed
Answer: 3
Flashcard 911: The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms present _____
Answer: asymptomatically
Flashcard 912: Arterial ulcers are usually found on the _____
Answer: tips of toes
Flashcard 913: The management of acute limb ischaemia is dependent on the cause, but follow the _____ approach
Answer: ABCDE
Flashcard 914: Management of arterial ulcers involves treating the underlying cause which is _____
Answer: peripheral arterial disease
Flashcard 915: Oral _____ can be used to improve healing in venous ulcers
Answer: pentoxifylline
Flashcard 916: _____ ulcers are caused by peripheral arterial disease
Answer: Arterial
Flashcard 917: Sensation and pain are _____ in arterial ulcers
Answer: intact
Flashcard 918: Arterial ulcers will have a _____ Buerger's test
Answer: positive
Flashcard 919: Pulses are _____ in venous ulcers
Answer: present
Flashcard 920: Diagnosis of venous ulcers is usually _____. But should involve an ABPI or duplex to rule out peripheral arterial disease
Answer: clinical
Flashcard 921: Pulses are _____ in arterial ulcers
Answer: absent
Flashcard 922: Surgical management of symptomatic aortic stenosis: Young, ↓ surgical risk = _____ Elderly, ↑ surgical risk = transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI)
Answer: surgical
Flashcard 923: Sensation and pain are _____ in venous ulcers
Answer: intact
Flashcard 924: _____ (peripheral arterial disease) presents with pulseless, pallor, pain, paraesthesia, paralysis, perishingly cold
Answer: Acute limb ischaemia
Flashcard 925: The ischaemia in acute limb ischaemia can arise from a _____ or embolus (e.g. secondary to atrial fibrillation)
Answer: thrombus
Flashcard 926: The borders of venous ulcers are _____
Answer: irregular
Flashcard 927: Venous ulcers are generally found in the _____ region
Answer: Gaiter
Flashcard 928: _____ is sudden decrease in limb perfusion that threatens limb viability that has developed < 2 weeks
Answer: Acute limb ischaemia
Flashcard 929: Pain relief for acute limb ischaemia is _____
Answer: IV opioids
Flashcard 930: What is the first-line managment of venous ulcers? _____
Answer: 4 layer compression bandage
Flashcard 931: What is the first line investigation for arterial ulcers? _____
Answer: ABPI
Flashcard 932: What are the initial investigations for acute limb ischaemia (peripheral arterial disease)? _____
Answer: Doppler ultrasound → ABPI if able to
Flashcard 933: Venous ulcers are caused by _____
Answer: chronic venous insufficiency
Flashcard 934: Venous ulcers are generally _____ than arterial or neuropathic ulcers
Answer: bigger
Flashcard 935: Ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) of ≤ _____ is indicative of critical limb ischaemia
Answer: 0.5
Flashcard 936: What is the first-line pharmacological management of peripheral arterial disease? _____
Answer: Statin + clopidogrel
Flashcard 937: What is the initial assessment of peripheral arterial disease/intermittent claudication? _____
Answer: Ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI)
Flashcard 938: What is the final-line management of severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia? _____
Answer: Amputation
Flashcard 939: What is the gold-standard investigation for peripheral arterial disease? _____ or duplex ultrasound
Answer: CT angiography
Flashcard 940: What ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) is indicative of peripheral arterial disease? _____
Answer: :≤0.9
Flashcard 941: _____ occurs when reduced blood flow causes cramping in the lower limb during activity and improved on rest
Answer: Intermittent ischaemia/claudication
Flashcard 942: There are 2 main types of peripheral arterial disease: - _____ (1) - Chronic limb-threatening ischaemia (intermittent claudication & critical limb ischaemia) (2)
Answer: Acute limb-threatening ischaemia
Flashcard 943: What are the indications for surgical management of aortic regurgitation? _____
Answer: Symptomatic AR Asymptomatic AR with reduced EF or left ventricular dilations Enlargement of the ascending aorta Infective endocarditis
Flashcard 944: If exercise for peripheral arterial disease has not led to a satisfactory improvement, then consider prescribing _____
Answer: naftidrofuryl oxalate
Flashcard 945: What lifestyle management is given for peripheral arterial disease? _____
Answer: Supervised exercise programme
Flashcard 946: _____ is atherosclerotic narrowing/blockage of the peripheral arteries, impairing blood flow, typically to the lower limbs
Answer: Peripheral arterial disease
Flashcard 947: What is the management for severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia? _____
Answer: Endovascular or surgical revascularisation
Flashcard 948: There are 2 types of chronic limb ischaemia in peripheral arterial disease: - _____ - Critical limb ischaemia
Answer: Intermittent claudication
Flashcard 949: _____ is when the circulation is so severely impaired that there is imminent risk of limb loss (chronic NOT acute!)
Answer: Critical limb ischaemia
Flashcard 950: Pain with intermittent claudication is improved on _____
Answer: rest
Flashcard 951: Patients with peripheral arterial disease should be supported and encouraged to stop _____ (CRUCIAL step in management)
Answer: smoking!!
Flashcard 952: Intermittent claudication can be assessed by _____ and observing if it goes pale & cold = Beuger's test
Answer: elevating the leg
Flashcard 953: Interpretation of ankle brachial pulse index: _____ = indicates severe disease 0.5-0.8 = indicates moderate/severe peripheral arterial disease 0.81-1.0 = indicates mild peripheral arterial disease 1.0-1.4 = indicates normal vessels > 1.4 = indicates calcified vessels (they are incompressible)
Answer: < 0.5
Flashcard 954: Features of critical limb ischaemia should include _____ pain and/or, ulceration, and/or gangrene
Answer: claudication
Flashcard 955: Stanford classification of Aortic Dissection: • Type A - _____ • Type B - Descending aorta
Answer: Ascending aorta
Flashcard 956: DeBakey classification of Aortic Dissection: Type _____ originates in the descending aorta and extends distally
Answer: 3
Flashcard 957: DeBakey classification of Aortic Dissection: Type _____ originates in the ascending aorta and extends to the aortic arch and possibly further
Answer: 1
Flashcard 958: DeBakey classification of Aortic Dissection: Type _____ originates in and is limited to the ascending aorta
Answer: 2
Keywords: General Surgery flashcards, medical flashcards, NEET PG preparation, USMLE Step 1 flashcards, Anki alternative, spaced repetition medical, OnCourse flashcards
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