Serious & Notifiable Infections — Flashcards
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Women who are HIV positive should be offered _____ cervical cancer screening
_____ syphilis can also present with "wart"-like, painless papular erosions in intertriginous areas
Syphilis progresses through four distinct and successive stages if left untreated: _____ → Secondary → Latent → Tertiary
_____, including RPR and VDRL, tests for reagin antibodies, which reflect the host's immune response to cellular damage caused by T. pallidum
_____ syphilis can cause Argyll Robertson pupil, where the pupil accommodates to near objects but does NOT react to light
Early syphilis is < _____ after infection Late syphilis is > 2 years after infection
_____ and tissue cultures are taken for gangrene (especially infectious gangrene)
Neurosyphilis is investigated with _____
_____ syphilis is characterised by a disseminated maculopapular copper/red rash that does include the palms and soles
Patients with COVID-19 can deteriorate _____
Hint: Gradually/Rapidly
Serious & Notifiable Infections UK Medical PG Flashcards - Medical Study Cards
Master Serious & Notifiable Infections with OnCourse flashcards. These spaced repetition flashcards are designed for medical students preparing for NEET PG, USMLE Step 1, USMLE Step 2, MBBS exams, and other medical licensing examinations.
Serious & Notifiable Infections Flashcard Deck - 121 Cards
Flashcard 1: Women who are HIV positive should be offered _____ cervical cancer screening
Answer: annual
Flashcard 2: _____ syphilis can also present with "wart"-like, painless papular erosions in intertriginous areas
Answer: Secondary
Flashcard 3: Syphilis progresses through four distinct and successive stages if left untreated: _____ → Secondary → Latent → Tertiary
Answer: Primary
Flashcard 4: _____, including RPR and VDRL, tests for reagin antibodies, which reflect the host's immune response to cellular damage caused by T. pallidum
Answer: Non-Treponemal Tests (NTT)
Flashcard 5: _____ syphilis can cause Argyll Robertson pupil, where the pupil accommodates to near objects but does NOT react to light
Answer: Tertiary
Flashcard 6: Early syphilis is < _____ after infection Late syphilis is > 2 years after infection
Answer: 2 years
Flashcard 7: _____ and tissue cultures are taken for gangrene (especially infectious gangrene)
Answer: Blood
Flashcard 8: Neurosyphilis is investigated with _____
Answer: lumbar puncture (CSF-VDRL)
Flashcard 9: _____ syphilis is characterised by a disseminated maculopapular copper/red rash that does include the palms and soles
Answer: Secondary
Flashcard 10: Patients with COVID-19 can deteriorate _____
Answer: rapidly
Flashcard 11: If NTT is -ve for syphilis and low risk then _____
Answer: syphilis is unlikely
Flashcard 12: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with peripheral arterial disease and rapidly worsening swollen, red foot with foul odour, purulent discharge, blistering and ill-defined borders. They are febrile, tachycardic, & hypotensive. _____
Answer: Wet gangrene
Flashcard 13: What is the investigation for gas gangrene? _____
Answer: X-ray
Flashcard 14: If NTT is -ve for syphilis and high risk then _____
Answer: empiric treatment & restest 2-4 weeks later
Flashcard 15: Which pharmacological therapy may be given to COVID-19 patients being managed in hospital with NO O2 requirement? _____
Answer: Remdesivir
Flashcard 16: Gas gangrene antibiotics of choice are _____
Answer: penicillin plus clindamycin
Flashcard 17: Aortitis in tertiary syphilis has a "_____" appearance
Answer: tree-barking
Flashcard 18: A false -ve EIA or TPPA can be caused by _____
Answer: very early infection
Flashcard 19: What is the first-line management for early (1° & 2°) syphilis? _____
Answer: IM benzathine benzylpenicillin (penicillin G)
Flashcard 20: COVID-19 patients who are hypoxic despite NIV may be managed with _____
Answer: Intubation and mechanical ventilation
Flashcard 21: A +ve EIA or TPPA indicates _____ or previous syphilis
Answer: active syphilis
Flashcard 22: Which pharmacological therapy may be given to COVID-19 patients being managed at home? _____ + Ritonavir OR Molnupiravir (must be given within 5 days of Sx onset)
Answer: Nirmatrelvir
Flashcard 23: _____ presents with gummas, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis, meningovascular disease, Argyll-Robertson pupil), and aortitis
Answer: Tertiary syphilis
Flashcard 24: COVID-19 may cause complications including _____, MI, ARDS, Septic shock
Answer: AKI
Flashcard 25: Penicillin G is given to a patient with syphilis. They develop fever, chills, & myalgias within 12-48 hours. What is the likely diagnosis? _____
Answer: Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
Flashcard 26: Which pharmacological therapy may be given to COVID-19 patients being managed in hospital with mechanical ventilation? _____
Answer: Dexamethasone + Tocilizumab
Flashcard 27: _____, including EIA and TPPA, tests directly for antibodies against Treponema pallidum
Answer: Treponemal Tests (TT)
Flashcard 28: _____ syphilis can present with gummas that are soft growths with firm necrotic centres
Answer: Tertiary
Flashcard 29: Patients with COVID-19 should be advised to avoid _____ as their coughing will be less effective
Answer: lying on their back
Flashcard 30: -ve NTT and -ve TP indicates _____ or too early to detect
Answer: absent syphilis
Flashcard 31: A -ve RPR or VDRL likely indicates _____ or successfully treated or false -ve
Answer: absent syphilis
Flashcard 32: _____ microscopy can be useful in primary syphilis with an adequate lesion
Answer: Darkfield
Flashcard 33: Syphilis is transmitted through _____ or transplacentally
Answer: sexual contact
Flashcard 34: Which pharmacological therapy may be given to COVID-19 patients being managed in hospital with an O2 requirement? _____
Answer: Dexamethasone AND/OR Remdesivir
Flashcard 35: The incubation period of syphilis is _____-90 days
Answer: 10
Flashcard 36: What is the first-line management for late (3°) syphilis? _____
Answer: 3 doses of IM benzathine benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) once weekly
Flashcard 37: COVID-19 patients who are hypoxic despite supplemental oxygen may be managed with _____ or HFNC
Answer: CPAP
Flashcard 38: COVID-19 is transmitted via _____
Answer: droplet infection
Flashcard 39: _____ is an STI caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum
Answer: Syphilis
Flashcard 40: _____ syphilis has +ve investigations but no clinical symptoms
Answer: Latent
Flashcard 41: Severe COVID-19 may present with _____, Pneumonia, shock and hypoxia
Answer: ARDS
Flashcard 42: Syphilis is initially tested with _____ If +ve → test for TT If -ve → assess risk status
Answer: NTT
Flashcard 43: A false -ve RPR or VDRL can be caused by _____ or late infection (when antibody levels wane)
Answer: early (before seroconversion)
Flashcard 44: _____ syphilis is characterised by a painless anogenital chancre with non-tender lymphadenopathy
Answer: Primary
Flashcard 45: "Gas" gangrene is caused by _____ when it enters wounds causing myonecrosis & gas formation
Answer: Clostridium perfringens
Flashcard 46: _____ investigations are done for suspected syphilis or patients who meet the screening criteria
Answer: Serological
Flashcard 47: _____ is demyelination of the dorsal columns and dorsal roots in tertiary syphilis
Answer: Tabes dorsalis
Flashcard 48: +ve NTT and +ve TP indicates _____
Answer: active or past syphilis
Flashcard 49: What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with a penetrative wound (knife stab) that develops rapidly worsening severe pain. O/E the skin is tense, dusky, and bullous with palpable crepitus. _____
Answer: Gas gangrene
Flashcard 50: Syphilis is more prevalent in _____
Answer: men
Flashcard 51: Which pharmacological therapy may be given to COVID-19 patients being managed in hospital with NIV? _____
Answer: Dexamethasone +/- Remdesivir
Flashcard 52: What is the management of gas gangrene? _____
Answer: IV antibiotics, emergency surgical debridement
Flashcard 53: A +ve RPR or VDRL indicates _____ or false +ve
Answer: active syphilis
Flashcard 54: -ve NTT and +ve TP indicates _____ or late infection
Answer: successfully treated syphilis
Flashcard 55: What is the definitive management of osteomyelitis? _____
Answer: Bone debridement (& IV antibiotics)
Flashcard 56: A 25 year old pregnant women attends her GP with a 'bulls-eye' rash 3 weeks after wild camping. She has a penicillin allergy. What is the management given the likely diagnosis? _____
Answer: Oral Azithromycin
Flashcard 57: _____ reaction is a self-limiting reaction characterised by fevers, chills, tachycardia and mild hypotension that occurs soon after starting antibiotic treatment for lyme disease as a result of cytokine release in response to endotoxins
Answer: Jarisch-Herxheimer
Flashcard 58: What is the management for P. falciparum malaria? _____
Answer: ACT; artemether with lumefantrine
Flashcard 59: _____ is classically associated with an erythema migrans rash described as a 'bulls-eye' at the site of a tick bite around 1-4 weeks after
Answer: Lyme disease
Flashcard 60: Following successful treatment of Lyme disease, patients _____ have lifelong immunity
Answer: Will not
Flashcard 61: What initial investigation can be done for malaria? _____
Answer: Rapid Diagnostic Tests (RDTs); however blood smears are gold-standard and the investigation of choice
Flashcard 62: A patient presents with bone pain, systemic signs of infection (e.g., fever, leukocytosis) and +ve blood cultures? _____
Answer: Osteomyelitis
Flashcard 63: What is the management for severe P. falciparum malaria? _____
Answer: IV artesunate
Flashcard 64: Lyme disease is _____ to be transmitted to a foetus during maternal infection
Answer: unlikely
Flashcard 65: What is the management of Lyme disease with CNS involvement? _____
Answer: IV ceftriaxone
Flashcard 66: Haematogenous osteomyelitis in children from bacterial seeding from the blood stream to the _____ of a long bone
Answer: metaphysis
Flashcard 67: What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient presenting with a erythematous, oedematous, and warm wound on their thigh. Your observant medical student notices sinus draining tracts. _____
Answer: Osteomyelitis
Flashcard 68: What is the management of persistent lyme disease despite 1 full course of antibiotics? _____
Answer: 2nd course with an alternative antibiotic
Flashcard 69: _____ is a bacterial infection associated with tick bites
Answer: Lyme disease
Flashcard 70: _____ often used in Lyme disease management should not be used in patients with cardiac involvement due to QT prolongation
Answer: Azithromycin
Flashcard 71: If there is still a strong suspicion of Lyme disease in patients with a -ve antibody ELISA test who have been symptomatic for ≥12 weeks → _____
Answer: Immunoblot test
Flashcard 72: Rarely, lyme disease can cause serious complications such as: Neurological: _____, Meningitis, Radiculopathy Rheumatological: Inflammatory arthritis Cardiac:: Heart block, Pericarditis
Answer: Facial nerve palsy
Flashcard 73: What is the initial management of osteomyelitis with signs of sepsis? _____
Answer: Blood cultures & empiric antibiotics
Flashcard 74: How is Lyme disease diagnosed in patients WITHOUT erythema migrans? _____ followed by an Immunoblot test if positive or equivocal
Answer: ELISA antibody test
Flashcard 75: The incubation period of malaria is _____-30 days, consider alternative diagnosis if < time
Answer: 7
Flashcard 76: P. _____ & P. ovale form dormant hypnozoites, which can reactivate weeks-to-years later
Answer: vivax
Flashcard 77: Plasmodium _____ is the most severe cause of malaria
Answer: falciparum
Flashcard 78: Malaria is most common in _____
Answer: Sub-Saharan Africa
Flashcard 79: In malaria, RBCs rupture as part of the Plasmodium life cycle, resulting in _____ and cyclical fever
Answer: intravascular haemolysis
Flashcard 80: HSV-2 remains latent in the _____ ganglion
Answer: sacral
Flashcard 81: Anopheles mosquito injects _____ into the bloodstream, which invade hepatocytes, mature into schizonts, and rupture/release merozoites into the blood stream
Answer: sporozoites
Flashcard 82: What is the management of genital herpes in a child? _____
Answer: Safeguarding; genital herpes is transmitted via sexual contact, consider child sexual abuse and take swabs for PCR
Flashcard 83: Plasmodium _____ present with milder disease than P. falciparum
Answer: vivax, ovale, & malariae
Flashcard 84: What is the investigation for gonorrhoea with persistent infection resistant to treatment? _____
Answer: Culture for antibiotic sensitivities
Flashcard 85: The paroxysmal stage of pertussis presents with _____ followed by "whooping" on inhalation
Answer: coughing fits
Flashcard 86: What are the stages of pertussis? _____ Paroxysmal Convalescent
Answer: Catarrhal
Flashcard 87: The convalescent stage of pertussis is characterized by _____
Answer: gradual recovery
Flashcard 88: Disseminated gonococcal infection presents with the classic triad of _____, tenosynovitis, & migratory polyarthritis
Answer: dermatitis
Flashcard 89: What is the confirmatory investigation for pertussis? _____
Answer: PCR or culture; nasopharyngeal swab/aspirate
Flashcard 90: _____ with pertussis can present with apnoea & cyanosis even in the absence of a cough
Answer: Young infants
Flashcard 91: What is the investigation for gonorrhoea in females? _____
Answer: NAAT*; taken from vulvovaginal swab
Flashcard 92: Acute pelvic inflammatory disease caused by _____ presents with acute onset of symptoms
Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Flashcard 93: What is the management for pertussis? _____
Answer: Macrolides (e.g. azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin)
Flashcard 94: What is the management for gonorrhoea? _____
Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Flashcard 95: Pertussis is a notifiable diasese _____
Answer: T
Flashcard 96: _____ is a highly contagious respiratory infection characterised by severe, paroxysmal coughing fits often followed by a "whooping" sound on inhalation
Answer: Whooping cough (pertussis)
Flashcard 97: What is the likely causative organism in a male that presents with dysuria and white / yellow-green purulent discharge? Thayer-Martin agar growth showed gram-ve diplococci _____
Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Flashcard 98: Whooping cough is caused by _____
Answer: Bordetella pertussis
Flashcard 99: Close contacts of a patient with pertussis should be managed with prophylactic _____ REGARDLESS of immunisation status!!
Answer: macrolides
Flashcard 100: What is the most common cause of bacterial myocarditis? _____
Answer: Diptheria
Flashcard 101: The mnemonic FROM JANE describes the symptoms of _____
Answer: infective (bacterial) endocarditis
Flashcard 102: Initial antibiotic management for infective endocarditis in a native valve is _____
Answer: amoxicillin
Flashcard 103: Initial antibiotic management for infective endocarditis in severe sepsis or penicillin allergy is _____
Answer: vancomycin + gentamicin
Flashcard 104: One symptom associated with bacterial endocarditis is _____ in the nail bed
Answer: splinter hemorrhages
Flashcard 105: What imaging is done for infective endocarditis (esp. if there is a heart murmu)? _____
Answer: Echocardiography
Flashcard 106: 1. _____ and 2. Endocardial insult need to be present for infective endocarditis to occur
Answer: Bacteraemia
Flashcard 107: What is the prophylaxis for infective endocarditis in dental procedures? _____
Answer: None, NICE recommend no prophylaxis contradictory to other recommendations
Flashcard 108: Infective endocarditis is assessed with the _____ criteria
Answer: Modified Duke
Flashcard 109: _____ valves increase the risk of infective endocarditis
Answer: Prosthetic
Flashcard 110: One symptom associated with bacterial endocarditis is _____, which are tender, raised lesions on the finger or toe pads
Answer: Osler nodes
Flashcard 111: Endocarditis secondary to IVDU most commonly affects the _____ valve
Answer: tricuspid
Flashcard 112: What is the initial investigation for infective endocarditis? _____
Answer: Blood cultures - 3 sets of blood cultures taken from different sites
Flashcard 113: One symptom associated with bacterial endocarditis is _____ most likely because of turbulent blood flow in the valve causing haemolysis
Answer: anaemia
Flashcard 114: Mortality in infective endocarditis is ~_____%
Answer: 25
Flashcard 115: One symptom associated with bacterial endocarditis is _____, which are small, nontender, erythematous lesions on the palm or sole
Answer: Janeway lesions
Flashcard 116: One symptom associated with bacterial endocarditis is _____ as parts of the vegetations on the valves dislode and lodge in blood vessels
Answer: (septic) emboli
Flashcard 117: Initial antibiotic management for infective endocarditis in a prosthetic valve is _____
Answer: vancomycin + gentamicin + rifampicin
Flashcard 118: A patient with _____ AND new heart murmur is infective endocarditis until proven otherwise
Answer: fever
Flashcard 119: What is the management in severe infective endocarditis (valvular incompetence, resistance, heart failure, embolic events)? _____
Answer: Surgery - valve replacement/repair to remove the infection
Flashcard 120: What is the most common symptom of bacterial endocarditis? _____
Answer: Fever
Flashcard 121: One symptom associated with bacterial endocarditis is _____, which occurs as blood flows over vegetations on the heart valve
Answer: murmur
Keywords: Serious & Notifiable Infections flashcards, medical flashcards, NEET PG preparation, USMLE Step 1 flashcards, Anki alternative, spaced repetition medical, OnCourse flashcards
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