Acute Medical Presentations — Flashcards
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If a patient comes in with clincal signs of ACS and raised Troponin but no changes on ECG, what is the appropriate immediate step _____
_____ should be given in addition to dual antiplatelet therapy in NSTEMI patients who are not at a high risk of bleeding/ having angiography immediately
Patients undergoing fibrinolysis for a STEMI should also be given an _____ drug
What is the shape of the ST segment in Pericarditis _____
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Hypothermia is a cause of _____
Hint: arrythmia
_____ is a risk factor for acute pericarditis
Hint: rheumatological
The following ECG changes may be seen in hypothermia: J waves (Osborn waves) _____ Long QT interval
Hint: heart block
The ishaemic damage sustained may weaken the myocardium resulting in _____
A thrombus may form in a left ventricular aneurysm increasing the risk of _____
Acute Medical Presentations UK Medical PG Flashcards - Medical Study Cards
Master Acute Medical Presentations with OnCourse flashcards. These spaced repetition flashcards are designed for medical students preparing for NEET PG, USMLE Step 1, USMLE Step 2, MBBS exams, and other medical licensing examinations.
Acute Medical Presentations Flashcard Deck - 367 Cards
Flashcard 1: If a patient comes in with clincal signs of ACS and raised Troponin but no changes on ECG, what is the appropriate immediate step _____
Answer: Aspirin 300mg
Flashcard 2: _____ should be given in addition to dual antiplatelet therapy in NSTEMI patients who are not at a high risk of bleeding/ having angiography immediately
Answer: Fondaparinux
Flashcard 3: Patients undergoing fibrinolysis for a STEMI should also be given an _____ drug
Answer: antithrombin
Flashcard 4: What is the shape of the ST segment in Pericarditis _____
Answer: Concave
Flashcard 5: bf436201fdd2467bb4524075c13428c5-ao-1
Answer:
Flashcard 6: Hypothermia is a cause of _____
Answer: Torsades de Pointes
Flashcard 7: _____ is a risk factor for acute pericarditis
Answer: SLE
Flashcard 8: The following ECG changes may be seen in hypothermia: J waves (Osborn waves) _____ Long QT interval
Answer: first degree heart block
Flashcard 9: The ishaemic damage sustained may weaken the myocardium resulting in _____
Answer: aneurysm formation
Flashcard 10: A thrombus may form in a left ventricular aneurysm increasing the risk of _____
Answer: stroke
Flashcard 11: Management of patient on warfarin with major bleeding (e.g. variceal haemorrhage, intracranial haemorrhage) involves: _____ Prothrombin complex concentrate /FFP
Answer: Give IV vitamin K 5mg
Flashcard 12: Left Ventricular Aneurysm is associated with _____ and left ventricular failure on ECG
Answer: persistent ST elevation
Flashcard 13: Atrial Flutter is more sensitive to {{c2:cardioversion}} so lower energy levels may be used
Answer: Atrial Flutter is more sensitive to {{c2:cardioversion}} so lower energy levels may be used
Flashcard 14: Bivalirudin is a _____ used as a anticoagulant in the management of ACS
Answer: reversible direct thrombin inhibitor
Flashcard 15: The first cardiac biomarker to rise after myocardiac injury is _____
Answer: myoglobin
Flashcard 16: CK-MB is useful to look for _____ as it returns to normal after 2-3 days
Answer: reinfarction
Flashcard 17: What would cause an Acute presentation of AR due to aortic root disease; _____
Answer: Aortic Dissection
Flashcard 18: ECG features suggesting VT rather than SVT with aberrant conduction include: _____
Answer: AV dissociation Fusion or capture beats positive QRS concordance in chest leads Marked LAD QRS >160 ms
Flashcard 19: _____ is a Broad-Complex Tachycardia
Answer: VT
Flashcard 20: A lack of a response to _____ suggests VT rather than SVT with aberrant conduction
Answer: adenosine or carotid sinus massage
Flashcard 21: If thrombolytic drugs are given fo a suspected PE during ALS then _____
Answer: CPR should be extended for a period of 60-90 minutes
Flashcard 22: What are the 'Hs' of reversible causes of cardiac arrest: _____
Answer: Hypoxia Hypovolaemia Hyperkalaemia, Hypokalaemia, Hypoglycaemia, Hypocalcaemia, Acidaemia.. Hypothermia
Flashcard 23: When should a further dose of Amidarone 150mg be given to patients who are in shockable rhythms _____
Answer: after 5 shocks have been administered
Flashcard 24: _____ are shockable rhythms
Answer: ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VF/pulseless VT
Flashcard 25: _____ are non-shockable rhythms
Answer: asystole/pulseless-electrical activity (asystole/PEA)
Flashcard 26: Aortic Dissection can present with _____ with weak or absent carotid, brachial, or femoral pulse
Answer: pulse deficit
Flashcard 27: In medical management of acute pericarditis how is therapy guided _____
Answer: therapy is contined until symptom resolution and normalisation of inflammatory markers (usually 1-2 weeks), followed by a taper dose over a further 2-4 weeks
Flashcard 28: What can be used as an alternative if amiadorone is not available _____
Answer: lidocaine
Flashcard 29: Monomorphic Tachycardia means the QRS complexes are the _____
Answer: same shape and size from beat to beat
Flashcard 30: What would indicate whether a paitent would be managed as an inpatient rather than outpatient in acute pericarditis _____
Answer: fever >38 or elevated troponin
Flashcard 31: Aortic Dissection can involve specific arteries such as the coronary artery leading to _____
Answer: angina
Flashcard 32: Aortic Dissection can involve the spinal arteries leading to _____
Answer: paraplegia
Flashcard 33: The ratio of chest compressions to ventilation is _____
Answer: 30:2
Flashcard 34: Following resuscitation oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of _____
Answer: 94-98%
Flashcard 35: What can cause early acute pericarditis (1-3 days) post MI _____
Answer: fibrinous pericarditis
Flashcard 36: What should be avoided in acute pericarditis _____
Answer: strenuous exercise
Flashcard 37: Chest Pain is more common is type _____ dissection and upper back pain is more common in type B
Answer: A
Flashcard 38: What else can cause Acute Pericarditis other than viral causes: 8 _____
Answer: TB Uraemia Post-MI Radiotherapy Connective Tissue Disorders (SLE, RA) Hypothyroidism Malignancy (Lung/Breast Ca) Trauma
Flashcard 39: Adenosine should be ideally infused via a _____ due to it's short half-life
Answer: large-calibre cannula
Flashcard 40: What are the 'Ts' of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest: _____
Answer: Thrombosis (coronary/plumonary) Tension pneumothorax Cardiac Tamponade Toxins
Flashcard 41: In acute stroke patients, in the absence of haemorrhage, anticoagulation therapy for AF should be commenced _____
Answer: after 2 weeks
Flashcard 42: If a haemodynamically stable patient presents with AF within <48 hours then: _____
Answer: rate or rhythm control
Flashcard 43: What is adminstered to patients undergoing PCI with femoral access? _____
Answer: bivalirudin with bailout GPI
Flashcard 44: For those with a GRACE <3% and are opted for conservative management, what is the further drug therapy: - If low bleeding risk _____ - If high risk of bleeding aspirin + clopidogrel or aspirin alone
Answer: aspirin + ticagrelor
Flashcard 45: In Dual Antiplatelet therapy for STEMI patients prior to PCI aspirin + the second drug: If the patient is not taking an oral anticoagulant: _____ If taking an oral anticoagulant clopidogrel
Answer: prasugrel
Flashcard 46: How are nitrates administered in ACS Management _____ intravenously
Answer: sublingually
Flashcard 47: Is Troponin used to diagnose a STEMI _____
Answer: No
Flashcard 48: What is involved in a Confusion Screen? 9
Answer: • FBC • U&Es • LFTs • Coagulation/INR (e.g. intracranial bleeding) • TFTs • Calcium • B12 + folate/haematinics • Glucose • Blood Cultures *Urinalysis, CT Head, CXR
Flashcard 49: If a patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours then: _____ or perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus
Answer: Anticoagulation should be given for atleast 3 weeks prior to cardioversion
Flashcard 50: What are the other anti-platelets used in STEMI management: _____ prasugrel ticagrelor
Answer: clopidogrel
Flashcard 51: What Endocrine Differentials could cause Falls?
Answer: • Hypoglycaemia
Flashcard 52: What is the initial antithrombin therapy for NSTEMI/unstable angina if patients are: - not at high risk of bleeding/ not having angiography immediately _____ - immediate angiography is planned, or creatinine >265 umol/L unfractionated heparin (UFH)
Answer: fondaparinux
Flashcard 53: What is given to patients undergoing PCI with radial access during procedure: _____
Answer: unfractionated heparin (UFH) with bailout glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor (GPI)
Flashcard 54: If AF patients are considered for long-term ryhthm control, delay cardioversion until _____ for a minimum of 3 weeks
Answer: they have been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation
Flashcard 55: When should antiplatelet therapy commence in acute stroke patients _____
Answer: immediately
Flashcard 56: What are important questions to ask in a Falls History? 9
Answer: • Where was the patient when they fell? • When did they fall? • Did anyone else see the fall? (collateral) • What happened? Any associated features before/during/after • Why do you think they fell? • Have they fallen before? • Systems review • PMH (balance/gait/sight) • Social Hx
Flashcard 57: An NSTEMI is defined as _____ but no ST-segment elevation + elevated biomarkers of myocardial damage
Answer: ECG changes
Flashcard 58: Following electrical cardioversion patients should be anticoagulated for atleast? _____
Answer: 4 weeks
Flashcard 59: AF can degenerate rapidly to VF in Wolf-Parkinsons White Syndrome because The accessory pathway conducts the chaotic atrial activity during AF which bombards the ventricles Wheras usually the AV node acts as a _____ slowing conduction from the atria to ventricles This rapid ventricular activation can degenerate into Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
Answer: physiological gatekeeper
Flashcard 60: What type of cardioversion does NICE recommend for those that have been in AF for over 48 hours: _____
Answer: electrical cardioversion over pharmacological
Flashcard 61: What other ECG changes would be indicate an NSTEMI? _____ T wave inversion
Answer: ST depression
Flashcard 62: A STEMI is diagnosed as: _____ with persistent (> 20 mins) ECG features in ≥ 2 contiguous leads of: 2.5mm (i.e ≥ 2.5 small squares) ST elevation in V2-3 in men under 40 years or 2mm (i.e ≥ 2 small squares) ST elevation in V2-3 in men over 40 years or 1.5mm ST elevation in V2-3 in women or 1mm ST elevation in other leads or new LBBB
Answer: Clinical symptoms consistent with ACS (≥ 20 mins duration)
Flashcard 63: What can reduce BNP levels?
Answer: • ACE inhibitors • ARBs • Diuretics
Flashcard 64: Management for Broad-complex tachycardia?
Answer: • IV amiadarone
Flashcard 65: What is contraindicated in VT?
Answer: • Verapamil
Flashcard 66: QRS of 0.14 seconds and 130 HR?
Answer: • Broad complex tachycardia
Flashcard 67: What is the appropriate treatment for Torsades de Pointes?
Answer: • IV magnesium sulfate
Flashcard 68: Persistant ST elevation following recent MI, but no chest pain?
Answer: • Left Ventricular Aneurysm
Flashcard 69: What is the first-line management of SVT?
Answer: • Vagal manoeuvres e.g. Valsalva manouvre or unilateral carotid sinus massage
Flashcard 70: What MI presents with tall R waves V1-2
Answer: • Posterior MI
Flashcard 71: What does this ECG show?
Answer: Atrial Flutter with variable block
Flashcard 72: Difference between presentation of Myocarditis and Pericarditis?
Answer: • Pericarditis pain classically changes with movement and breathing
Flashcard 73: If patient treated with PCI for MI are experiencing pain or haemodynamic instability post PCI what is recommended?
Answer: • coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
Flashcard 74: What should be considered during CPR if a PE is suspected?
Answer: • Thrombolytic drugs
Flashcard 75: ACS may present with atypical chest pain in?
Answer: • Females
Flashcard 76: What is this?
Answer: • Wellen's syndrome *high-grade stenosis in the LAD *Pt pain may have resolved at the time, and trop = normal/minimially elevated **Biphasic or deep T wave inversion in Leads V2-3 Minimal ST Elevation • no Q waves
Flashcard 77: What are the ECG findings in hypokalaemia?
Answer: U have no Pot (K+) and no T, but a long PR and a long QT (small or absent T waves) - U waves - Small or absent T waves - Long PR - ST Depression - Long QT
Flashcard 78: Normal QRS duration?
Answer: • 0.8 - 0.12 seconds
Flashcard 79: What management can Complete Heart Block warrant?
Answer: • Transvenous pacing -> risk factor for asystole *When an emergency flexible pacing wire is placed through the [Internal Jugular/Subclavian Vein] to the right ventricle to correct life-threatening bradycardias
Flashcard 80: Managment of a peri-arrest tachycardia with any of these following signs: shock (hypotension, cofusion, cold extremities), syncope, MI, heart failure
Answer: • Synchronised DC shocks Up to 3 shocks can be given, after this expert help should be soughted
Flashcard 81: Which patient group can present without Chest Pain during an MI ?
Answer: • Elderly patients
Flashcard 82: What is the first-line treatment in Sinus bradycardia?
Answer: • Atropine 500mcg IV
Flashcard 83: What are the ECG changes for Torsades de Pointes?
Answer: • Vetricular tachycardia • Prolonged QT intervals • Rapid polymorphic QRS complexes
Flashcard 84: What is this?
Answer: Supraventricular Tachycardia
Flashcard 85: What is the Medical Management for Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT) ?
Answer: • IV bolus adenosine 6mg
Flashcard 86: What presents as narrow complex tachycardia?
Answer: • Supraventricular Tachycardia
Flashcard 87: If the first Bolus of Adenosine is unsuccessful , what is the next step?
Answer: • 12mg IV adenosine
Flashcard 88: If the 12mg adenosine is unsuccessful, what is the next step in SVT management?
Answer: • 18mg IV adenosine
Flashcard 89: 8892364799924d4aa95741d3852db59a-ao-2
Answer:
Flashcard 90: What is the immediate management of brain metastases with significant peritumoral oedema? _____
Answer: Dexamethasone
Flashcard 91: What is apropriate in bradycardia treatment if atropine allergy?
Answer: Adrenaline infusion
Flashcard 92: What ECG signs are suggestive of previous myocardial infarction?
Answer: • Q waves inferiorly
Flashcard 93: In ALS what should be given in patients who are in VF/pulseless VT after 5 shocks have been administered?
Answer: • Amiodarone 150mg
Flashcard 94: What artery infarction can cause arrythmias following MI?
Answer: • RCA [supplies the AV node]
Flashcard 95: Past history of _____ ↑ the risk of Parkinson's disease
Answer: traumatic brain injury
Flashcard 96: Superantigens result in a massive cytokine response causing _____ syndrome
Answer: toxic shock
Flashcard 97: _____ syndrome will present with sudden-onset high fever (>39°C), rash, and hypotension leading to multiorgan dysfunction
Answer: Toxic shock
Flashcard 98: Peak incidence of toxic shock syndrome occurs in young adults that are _____ **bonus, why?
Answer: females
Flashcard 99: Toxic shock syndrome presents with a "_____-like" rash that desquamates 1-2 weeks later particularly affected the soles & palms
Answer: sunburn
Flashcard 100: Toxic shock syndrome is associated with _____ caused by group A Strep (GAS) infection of soft tissue
Answer: necrotising fasciitis
Flashcard 101: _____ is a rare, fatal condition caused by bacterial exotoxins from Staphylococcus aureus & Streptococcus pyogenes leading to a severe, multi-system inflammatory response
Answer: Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)
Flashcard 102: Toxic shock syndrome is most commonly caused by _____ & Streptococcus pyogenes
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Flashcard 103: Mortality of toxic shock syndrome is _____
Answer: high
Flashcard 104: Broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g. flucoxacillin) & _____ are 1st-line antibiotics in toxic shock syndrome
Answer: clindamycin
Flashcard 105: What is the management of toxic shock syndrome? 1. Stabilise the patient with _____ 2. Identify & remove the source of infection 3. Obtain blood cultures then administer empirical antibiotics
Answer: IV fluids
Flashcard 106: Toxic shock syndrome can be caused by _____ in menstruation
Answer: high-absorbency tampons
Flashcard 107: What are the initial investigations for toxic shock syndrome? _____
Answer: Blood cultures
Flashcard 108: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: toxic shock syndrome
Flashcard 109: Toxic shock syndrome is a form of distributive shock that may affect the CNS, resulting in _____
Answer: confusion
Flashcard 110: _____ can occur from leaving a wound packing in too long, or a tampon in too long
Answer: Toxic shock syndrome
Flashcard 111: _____ is a sudden, transient loss of consciousness from global cerebral hypoperfusion with spontaneous recovery
Answer: Syncope
Flashcard 112: CXR is indicated in all heart failure, but is especially useful in _____ heart failure
Answer: acute
Flashcard 113: Secondary hypertension often presents as _____ hypertension or hypertensive emergencies
Answer: resistant
Flashcard 114: What is the most common cause of syncope? _____
Answer: Vasovagal
Flashcard 115: _____ syncope is caused by reflex vagal activation leading to bradycardia and hypotension, resulting in transient cerebral hypoperfusion
Answer: Vasovagal
Flashcard 116: Vasovagal syncopes typically occur in _____ populations
Answer: younger
Flashcard 117: _____ syncope is a reflex-mediated neurocardiogenic syncope
Answer: Vasovagal
Flashcard 118: Vasovagal syncope triggers include emotions, stress, pain, prolonged _____
Answer: standing
Flashcard 119: Vasovagal syncopes are initially examined with _____
Answer: blood pressure (lying, standing)
Flashcard 120: A patient with accelerated (malignant) hypertension or life threatening symptoms should be _____
Answer: referred for specialist assessment on the same-day
Flashcard 121: What is the management for acute decompensated heart failure? _____ - most important intervention Modify medications Nitrates Oxygen Position
Answer: Loop diuretic (IV furosemide)
Flashcard 122: Oxygen target saturations for acute heart failure are _____-98%
Answer: 94
Flashcard 123: Nitrates for acute heart failure are contraindicated if patient is _____
Answer: hypotensive
Flashcard 124: Consider _____ in acute heart failure with reversible cardiogenic shock
Answer: iontropes e.g. dobutamine
Flashcard 125: O/E acute heart failure has _____, S3 gallop, & jugular venous distension
Answer: bibasal coarse crackles
Flashcard 126: De novo heart failure (acute) is most commonly precipitated because of _____
Answer: ACS
Flashcard 127: BNP > _____ pg/mL & NT-proBNP > 300 pg/mL rules in acute heart failure
Answer: 100
Flashcard 128: What position should patients be with acute heart failure? _____
Answer: Elevated upper body
Flashcard 129: Acute _____ heart failure occurs with pre-existing heart failure often precipitated by non-adehrence to HF medications, ACS, arrhythmia
Answer: decompensated
Flashcard 130: What is the gold standard investigation for acute heart failure? _____
Answer: Transthoracic Echogardiogram
Flashcard 131: Acute decompensated heart failure is most commonly precipitated because of _____
Answer: non-adherence to heart failure medications
Flashcard 132: Acute heart failure often presents with a _____ or blood-tinged cough
Answer: frothy
Flashcard 133: What bed-side investigation is done for acute heart failure? _____
Answer: ECG :)
Flashcard 134: Acute heart failure is categorised into _____ HF (~70%) and de novo HF (~15%)
Answer: acute decompensated
Flashcard 135: Acute _____ heart failure occurs for the first time often precipitated by ACS, hypertension, valvular heart disease, cardiomyopathies
Answer: de novo
Flashcard 136: What is the initial imaging for acute heart failure? _____
Answer: CXR
Flashcard 137: What are the findings of heart failure on CXR? _____
Answer: Alveolar oedema (bat wings) Kerley B lines (interstiital oedema) Cardiomegaly (>50%) Dilated prominent pulmonary vessels Effusions (pleural)
Flashcard 138: Patients with acute _____ heart failure typically present with acute dyspnoea, orthopnea, lower extremity oedema, along with bilateral crackles / wheezing (known as cardiac asthma)
Answer: decompensated
Flashcard 139: What is the likely diagnosis in a child that presents with fever and signs of heart failure after several days of a URI (runny nose and nasal congestion)? _____
Answer: Viral myocarditis
Flashcard 140: Spot diagnosis = _____ [https://youtu.be/TvcU-WPrRkI?si=6F6ys4M2b0bQkSQA]
Answer: heart failure
Flashcard 141: Hypoperfusion in acute heart failure can result in _____ skin
Answer: cold
Flashcard 142: Hypertension, pulmonary congestion, and minimal peripheral oedema after a myocardial infarction is suggestive of _____
Answer: flash pulmonary oedema
Flashcard 143: What bloods are done for acute heart failure? _____ for heart failure Troponins to exclude ACS
Answer: BNP / NT-proBNP
Flashcard 144: Myocardial infarction-induced acute left ventricular failure can result in rapid onset _____ and acute pulmonary oedema
Answer: pulmonary venous hypertension
Flashcard 145: _____ is rapid onset of worsening symptoms of heart failure
Answer: Acute heart failure
Flashcard 146: What are the life threatening features in bradyarrhythmia resuscitation? _____
Answer: 1. Shock (<90mmHg systole, pallor, sweating, cold) 2. Syncope 3. Myocardial ischaemia (chest pain, ↑ troponins) 4. Severe heart failure (severe pulmonary oedema, cyanosis)
Flashcard 147: If bradyarrhythmias present with life-threatening features then manage with _____ to a maximum of 3mg
Answer: IV Atropine 500mcg
Flashcard 148: If 6mg adenosine fails to treat stable SVT then give _____ adenosine, then 18mg adenosine
Answer: 12mg
Flashcard 149: If vagal manoeuvres fail, treat stable SVT with _____
Answer: rapid IV bolus of adenosine 6mg
Flashcard 150: If all options to treat stable tachyarrhytmias are ineffective, then resort to _____
Answer: synchronised DC cardioversion up to 3 attempts
Flashcard 151: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: 2nd degree heart block Mobitz type I (Wenckebach phenomenon)
Flashcard 152: If 3mg of atropine fails in bradyarrhythmia resuscitation, then attempt _____
Answer: transcutaneous pacing
Flashcard 153: Bradyarrhythmias < _____ beats per minute
Answer: 60
Flashcard 154: If transcutaneous pacing fails in bradyarrhythmia resuscitation, then attempt _____
Answer: transvenous pacing
Flashcard 155: Treat stable bradyarrhythmias with _____
Answer: observation
Flashcard 156: Treat stable atrial fibrillation with _____
Answer: rate control (beta blocker) & stroke prevention (DOAC)
Flashcard 157: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: 3rd degree (complete) heartblock
Flashcard 158: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: 2nd degree heart block Mobitz type 2
Flashcard 159: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: 1st degree heart block
Flashcard 160: Irregular, narrow-complex QRS tachyarrhythmia indicates possible _____
Answer: atrial fibrillation
Flashcard 161: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Sinus bradycardia (49bpm)
Flashcard 162: Treat stable SVT with _____ first
Answer: vagal manoeuvres
Flashcard 163: Ventricular fibrillation is incompatible with life and requires immediate _____
Answer: resuscitation
Flashcard 164: Tachyarrhythmias > _____ beats per minute
Answer: 100
Flashcard 165: If synchronised DC cardioversion fails up to 3 attempts in tachyarrhythmia resuscitation, then administer _____
Answer: IV amiodarone 300mg
Flashcard 166: If there are NO life threatening features in tachyarrhythmias, then identify if it is a _____ tachycardia on ECG
Answer: narrow or broad QRS complex
Flashcard 167: Regular, narrow-complex QRS tachyarrhythmia indicates possible _____
Answer: SVT
Flashcard 168: Regular, broad-complex QRS tachyarrhythmia indicates possible _____
Answer: ventricular tachycardia
Flashcard 169: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Flashcard 170: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Torsades de pointes (polymorphic VT)
Flashcard 171: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Ventricular tachycardia
Flashcard 172: If tachyarrhythmias present with life-threatening features then manage with _____ up to 3 attempts
Answer: synchronised DC cardioversion
Flashcard 173: Treat stable torsades de pointes with _____ over 10 minutes
Answer: magnesium 2g
Flashcard 174: Treat stable ventricular tachycardia with _____ over 10-60 minutes transfusion
Answer: IV amiodarone 300mg
Flashcard 175: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Ventricular fibrillation
Flashcard 176: What are the life threatening features in tachyarrhythmia resuscitation? _____
Answer: 1. Shock (<90mmHg systole, pallor, sweating, cold) 2. Syncope 3. Myocardial ischaemia (chest pain, ↑ troponins) 4. Severe heart failure (severe pulmonary oedema, cyanosis)
Flashcard 177: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT); ~180bpm
Flashcard 178: Irregular, broad-complex QRS tachyarrhythmia indicates possible _____ or torsades de pointes
Answer: atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block
Flashcard 179: The patient must be _____ when providing synchronised DC shocks if they are conscious
Answer: sedated
Flashcard 180: Hypothermic patients should be given _____ oxygen during re-warming
Answer: warmed, humidified
Flashcard 181: The above ECG shows _____, which are commonly associated with hypothermia
Answer: J waves (Osborn Wave's)
Flashcard 182: Which re-warming techniques should be used for patients with moderate-severe hypothermia (<32°C)? _____ & warmed IV fluids & active external re-warming & active internal re-warming
Answer: Humidified, warmed oxygen
Flashcard 183: _____ is most commonly associated with hypothermia
Answer: J wave (Osborn Wave)
Flashcard 184: What is the management of frostbite? _____
Answer: Rapid rewarming with warm water (37-39°C)
Flashcard 185: Patients with hypothermia should have continuous _____ monitoring
Answer: ECG
Flashcard 186: _____ re-warming may be used for severe hypothermia (<28°C) that has not responded to other re-warming techniques
Answer: Extracorporeal life support (ECLS)
Flashcard 187: Which re-warming technique should be used for patients with mild hypothermia (32-35°C)? _____
Answer: Passive external warming
Flashcard 188: PT and PTT may be _____ in hypothermic patients
Answer: prolonged
Flashcard 189: Tachypnoea, tachycardia, hypertension, increased shivering are associated with _____ hypothermia
Answer: mild
Flashcard 190: Coma & apnoea are associated with _____ hypothermia
Answer: severe
Flashcard 191: Hypothermia temperature classification: Mild: _____°C Moderate: 28-32°C Severe: <28°C
Answer: 32-35
Flashcard 192: Hypothermic patients who appear to be dead cannot be pronounced dead until they are _____
Answer: warm (35°C)
Flashcard 193: The prefered way to measure core temperature in hypothermic patients is via _____ or rectal thermometer
Answer: oesophageal probe
Flashcard 194: Bradycardia in hypothermic patients is generally _____ to atropine
Answer: refractory
Flashcard 195: Bradycardia, hypoventilation, hypotension and decreased shivering are associated with _____ hypothermia
Answer: moderate
Flashcard 196: Intense exercise and excessive sweating may cause _____ if fluid intake is insuffcient
Answer: dehydration
Flashcard 197: Lightheadedness, headache & muscle cramp are all symptoms of _____ dehydration in adults
Answer: moderate
Flashcard 198: Patients with suspected anaphylaxis should be positioned _____. Standing these patients up too quickly can cause a massive drop in cardiac preload
Answer: lying flat with legs raised
Flashcard 199: _____ is defined as urinary output of <400ml per day in adults
Answer: Oliguria
Flashcard 200: Long durations of sun exposure during hot weather may cause _____ if fluid intake is insuffcient
Answer: dehydration
Flashcard 201: Prolonged CRT, sunken eyes, reduced skin turgor, oliguria may be a sign of _____ dehydration in adults
Answer: moderate
Flashcard 202: Most adult adrenaline auto-injectors contain _____
Answer: 0.3mg adrenaline (0.3ml of 1 in 1000)
Flashcard 203: Diarrhoea and vomiting may cause _____ due to increased fluid losses
Answer: dehydration
Flashcard 204: Extreme fatigue, fainting & confusion/coma are all symptoms of _____ dehydration in adults
Answer: severe
Flashcard 205: Cold skin/extremities, hypotension, tachypnoea/cardia & anuria may be a sign of _____ dehydration in adults
Answer: severe
Flashcard 206: The most common trigger of anaphylaxis in children is _____
Answer: food
Flashcard 207: What is the management of _____ dehydration in adults & children? Increase oral fluid intake
Answer: mild
Flashcard 208: Fatigue, nausea & lightheadedness are all symptoms of _____ dehydration in adults
Answer: mild
Flashcard 209: Approximately _____% of all anaphylaxis cases are due to iatrogenic causes
Answer: 50
Flashcard 210: Postural hypotension alone may be a sign of _____ dehydration in adults
Answer: mild
Flashcard 211: The most common triggers of anaphylaxis in adults are _____ and latex
Answer: insect bites
Flashcard 212: What is the management of _____ dehydration in adults & children? IV fluid bolus Followed by IV fluid infusion (slower rate)
Answer: severe
Flashcard 213: The most common blood test abnormalities seen in patients with dehydration are _____, ↑Albumin, ↑Haematocrit
Answer: ↑Urea
Flashcard 214: Follow up in a(n) _____ is indicated following a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis
Answer: allergy clinic
Flashcard 215: Patients may be discharged after 2 hours of total symptom resolution following anaphylaxis if _____
Answer: they have a good response to a single dose of adrenaline
Flashcard 216: Serum tryptase levels remain elevated for up to _____ following anaphylaxis
Answer: 12 hours
Flashcard 217: Patients should be prescribed _____ adrenaline auto-injectors following confirmed anaphylaxis. It is necessary that they are provided with training on how to use them
Answer: 2
Flashcard 218: _____ anaphylactic reactions occur anywhere between 1 hour and 72 hours in ~5% of patients
Answer: Bi-phasic
Flashcard 219: Patients must be admitted for a minimum of 12 hours of total symptom resolution following anaphylaxis if _____ OR they have severe asthma OR they live in a remote area
Answer: they required >2 doses of IM adrenaline
Flashcard 220: Patients must be admitted for a minimum of 6 hours of total symptom resolution following anaphylaxis if they _____ OR they have had a previous bi-phasic reaction
Answer: required 2 doses of IM adrenaline
Flashcard 221: What is the concentration and dose of adrenaline given for anaphylaxis in _____? 500 micrograms of 1 in 1000 (0.5ml)
Answer: adults & children >12 years
Flashcard 222: Adrenaline should be injected in the _____ for anaphylaxis
Answer: anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh
Flashcard 223: Persistent skin symptoms (urticaria, angioedema) in anaphylaxis may be managed with _____ following initial stabilisation
Answer: non-sedating oral antihistamines
Flashcard 224: What is the management of refractory anaphylaxis? _____ & adrenaline infusion
Answer: Rapid IV crystalloid fluid bolus
Flashcard 225: Anaphylaxis should be recognised if there is _____-onset and rapid progression of symptoms affecting the airway and/or breathing and/or circulation with or without skin/mucosal changes
Answer: sudden
Flashcard 226: What volume of crystalloid fluid should be given as a bolus in anaphylaxis? Adult: _____ Child: 10ml/kg
Answer: 500-1000ml
Flashcard 227: What is the management of anaphyhlaxis (after calling resus/ambulance)? Immediate: _____ then establish airway & high flow oxygen No response after 5 mins: repeat IM adrenaline and IV fluid bolus
Answer: IM adrenaline
Flashcard 228: Anaphylaxis is a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction
Answer: I
Flashcard 229: Patients with refractory anaphylaxis should be given _____ every 5 minutes until a(n) adrenaline infusion is started
Answer: IM adrenaline
Flashcard 230: What is the concentration and dose of adrenaline given for anaphylaxis in _____? 150 micrograms of 1 in 1000 (0.15ml)
Answer: children 6 months-6 years
Flashcard 231: _____ anaphylaxis is defined as no improvement in respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms despite 2 doses of IM adrenaline
Answer: Refractory
Flashcard 232: What is the concentration and dose of adrenaline given for anaphylaxis in _____? 100-150 micrograms of 1 in 1000 (0.1-0.15ml)
Answer: children <6 months
Flashcard 233: A _____ may be done in anaphylaxis to determine if the patient is having a true episode of anaphylaxis
Answer: mast cell tryptase blood test
Flashcard 234: What is the concentration and dose of adrenaline given for anaphylaxis in _____? 300 micrograms of 1 in 1000 (0.3ml)
Answer: children 6-12
Flashcard 235: What is the immediate management of suspected or confirmed metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC)? _____
Answer: Immobilisation
Flashcard 236: People with suspected metastatic spinal cord compression should recieve an _____ within 24 hours
Answer: full spine MRI
Flashcard 237: What is the initial medical management of suspected mestatic spinal cord compression? _____
Answer: 16 mg oral dexamethasone
Flashcard 238: _____ therapy may be used in palliative patients for dyspnoea if they are at risk of symptomatic hypoxia
Answer: Oxygen
Flashcard 239: What is the initial management of dyspnoea in palliative patients? _____
Answer: Correct the correctable (e.g. drain pleural effusion, treat chest infection or PE, blood transfusion)
Flashcard 240: Gurgling and 'death rattle' in the end stages of terminal illness are due to airway _____
Answer: secretions
Flashcard 241: What non-pharmacological measures can be taken to reduce noisy respiratory secretions? _____ or suction
Answer: Elevating the head of the bed with the patient on their side
Flashcard 242: Impaired cognition, reduced oral intake, peripheral cyanosis and altered breathing pattern are all signs that a palliative patient is _____
Answer: dying
Flashcard 243: _____ can be used to treat nausea & vomiting caused by raised ICP
Answer: cyclizine
Flashcard 244: _____ and chemical disturbance are the 2 most common causes of nausea & vomiting in palliative patients
Answer: Gastric stasis
Flashcard 245: _____ can present with electrical alternans on ECG
Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Flashcard 246: Brugada syndrome is diagnosed with _____ AND clinical criteria
Answer: ECG findings
Flashcard 247: What is the management for cardiac tamponade? _____
Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Flashcard 248: Cardiac tamponade causes _____-sided heart failure
Answer: right
Flashcard 249: What investigation is used for cardiac tamponade? _____
Answer: Bedside echocardiogram (quick)
Flashcard 250: Cardiac tamponade can be caused by a _____, particularly penetrating
Answer: traumatic injury
Flashcard 251: ECG finding: _____ [Credit: litfl.com]
Answer: Brugada sign - Convex ST segment elevation > 2mm in > 1 of V1-V3 followed by a negative T wave
Flashcard 252: Cardiac tamponade may be associated with _____, which is a(n) decrease in systolic BP > 10 mmHg during inspiration
Answer: pulsus paradoxus
Flashcard 253: What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with an aortic dissection that develops hypotension, JVD, and pulsus paradoxus? _____
Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Flashcard 254: What is pulsus paradoxus? _____
Answer: > 10 mmHg decrease in BP on inspiration seen in cardiac tamponade
Flashcard 255: A provoked DVT involves anticoagulation for _____
Answer: 3 months
Flashcard 256: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome with atrial fibrillation may cause _____ which can result in death, particularly when administering AV node node blockers (BB, CCB)
Answer: ventricular fibrillation
Flashcard 257: If a DVT is unlikely (≤ 1 points) and the D-dimer is +ve then _____
Answer: arrange a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan within 4 hours
Flashcard 258: Using the _____: ≥ 2 points = DVT is likely ≤ 1 points = DVT is unlikely
Answer: two-level DVT Wells score
Flashcard 259: What is the recommended management for a hemodynamically unstable Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome patient with atrial fibrillation? _____
Answer: Syncrhonised DC cardioversion
Flashcard 260: If a DVT is likely (≥ 2 points) a _____ with the results available within 4 hours
Answer: proximal leg vein ultrasound scan
Flashcard 261: The likelihood of DVT should be evaluated using the _____
Answer: two-level DVT Wells score
Flashcard 262: Cardiac tamponade features are _____, jugular venous distension, & muffled heart sounds (Beck's triad)
Answer: hypotension
Flashcard 263: If a DVT is likely (≥ 2 points) a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan is -ve then _____
Answer: D-dimer is done
Flashcard 264: _____ is a condition where the heart becomes compressed by excess fluid in the pericardium
Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Flashcard 265: If a DVT is likely (≥ 2 points) a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan is +ve then _____
Answer: start immediate anticoagulation
Flashcard 266: If a DVT is likely (≥ 2 points) a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be performed within 4 hours then _____
Answer: arrange a D-dimer and DOAC anticoagulation
Flashcard 267: What is the management of asymptomatic Wolff-Parkinson-White pattern? _____
Answer: Monitor
Flashcard 268: If a DVT is unlikely (≤ 1 points) and the D-dimer is -ve then _____
Answer: diagnosis is unlikely
Flashcard 269: If a DVT is likely (≥ 2 points) a D-dimer is +ve but proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (24 hours) is -ve then _____
Answer: stop anticoagulation & repeat proximal leg vein ultrasound 6-8 days later
Flashcard 270: WPW _____ is most commonly located at the left lateral area
Answer: Bundle of Kent
Flashcard 271: If a DVT is unlikely (≤ 1 points) a _____
Answer: D-dimer is performed
Flashcard 272: The most dangerous complication of a DVT is _____
Answer: pulmonary embolism
Flashcard 273: What are the indications for rhythm control for atrial fibrillation? _____
Answer: - Haemodynamically unstable (hypotensive) - Heart failure - New onset 48 hours - Reversible cause
Flashcard 274: ECG changes in _____ show diffuse "saddle-shaped" ST elevation & PR depression
Answer: pericarditis
Flashcard 275: Aside from an ECG, what investigation should patients with suspected acute pericarditis have? _____
Answer: Echocardiogram
Flashcard 276: _____ is inflammation of the pericardial sac with a duration of < 6 weeks
Answer: Acute pericarditis
Flashcard 277: Pericarditis often presents with _____ pain that is made worse on inspiration
Answer: pleuritic
Flashcard 278: A patient presents complaining of intermittent chest pain. He states that the pain worsens when he takes a deep breath and that it is relieved when he leans forward. Physical exam reveals a multiphasic friction rub on heart auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? _____
Answer: Pericarditis
Flashcard 279: Pericarditis can be complicated with pericardial effusion which can develop into _____
Answer: cardiac tamponade
Flashcard 280: Electrical cardioversion for AF is synchronised to the _____ to prevent ventricular fibrillation as the cardiac repolarisation is vulnerable
Answer: R wave
Flashcard 281: What is the mangement of cardiac tamponade secondary to pericarditis? _____
Answer: NSAIDs + colchicine + pericardiocentesis
Flashcard 282: Dressler's syndrome is _____
Answer: autoimmune pericarditis after a myocardial infarction
Flashcard 283: Pericarditis chest pain is often relieved by _____
Answer: leaning forwards
Flashcard 284: What is the management of acute pericarditis? _____
Answer: NSAIDs + colchicine
Flashcard 285: Quick ECG diagnosis: _____
Answer: Pericarditis
Flashcard 286: _____ is pericarditis that occurs at least 2 weeks after a myocardial infarction
Answer: Dressler's syndrome
Flashcard 287: A _____ on auscultation is diagnostic of pericarditis
Answer: pericardial friction rub
Flashcard 288: Myocarditis is a significant differential for acute chest pain because it can cause _____ even in young, healthy individuals
Answer: sudden cardiac death
Flashcard 289: If a patient is haemodynamically unstable from atrial fibrillation, they should be treated with _____
Answer: synchronised DC electrical cardioversion
Flashcard 290: A patient with pericarditis and ↑ troponin may indicate _____
Answer: myocarditis coinfection
Flashcard 291: Rhythm control for _____ is done to get the patient back into normal sinus rhythm via an electrical or pharmacological cardioversion
Answer: atrial fibrillation
Flashcard 292: When is electrical cardioversion used as opposed to pharmacological cardioversion in atrial fibrillation? _____
Answer: If the patient is haemodynamically unstable
Flashcard 293: What is the best investigation for pericarditis? _____
Answer: ECG
Flashcard 294: What is the most common cause of pericarditis? _____
Answer: Viral infection - Cocksackie B, influenza, adenovirus, echovirus
Flashcard 295: If atrial fibrillation is present for ≥ 48 hours then _____ should be used for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion
Answer: anticoagulation
Flashcard 296: Acute mitral regurgitation presents with a triad of _____, cardiogenic shock and hypotension
Answer: pulmonary oedema
Flashcard 297: What is the initial & diagnostic investigation for atrial fibrillation? _____
Answer: ECG
Flashcard 298: Non-ischaemic acute mitral regurgitation is caused by rupture of _____
Answer: chordae tendineae
Flashcard 299: What investigation is done for aortic dissection in unstable patients? _____
Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE)
Flashcard 300: Aortic dissection can cause _____
Answer: aortic regurgitation
Flashcard 301: A patient presents complaining of severe chest pain that radiates to the back in between his scapulae. Physical exam reveals BP of 169/108 in the left arm and 120/70 in the right arm. What is the most accurate test? _____
Answer: CT Angiography if stable TOE transoesophageal echocardiography if unstable
Flashcard 302: What is the best initial investigation for aortic dissection? _____
Answer: CXR
Flashcard 303: An NSTEMI/unstable angina patient with a GRACE score > 3% (_____) should have coronary angiography→PCI within 72 hours
Answer: high
Flashcard 304: The _____ score risk stratifies patients with ACS to predict the 6 month mortality
Answer: GRACE
Flashcard 305: _____ management is determined by a risk assessment score such as GRACE
Answer: NSTEMI/unstable angina
Flashcard 306: Aortic dissection can present with _____ between each arm
Answer: BP difference > 20mmHg
Flashcard 307: If there is persistent myocardial ischaemia after fibrinolyis, then consider _____ management
Answer: PCI
Flashcard 308: A patient with NSTEMI/unstable angina should have immediate coronary angiography→PCI if they are _____
Answer: hypotensive / unstable
Flashcard 309: An ECG should be repeated _____ after fibrinolysis for STEMI
Answer: 60-90 minutes
Flashcard 310: According to the Killip Class, what prognostic feature is the highest risk of 30 day mortality post-MI? _____
Answer: Cardiogenic shock
Flashcard 311: Chest X-ray of a patient with aortic dissection shows _____ widening
Answer: mediastinal
Flashcard 312: What is the gold-standard investigation for aortic dissection? _____
Answer: CT angiography chest, abdomen, pelvis
Flashcard 313: NSTEMI patients with a GRACE score < 3% (_____ risk) should have dual antiplatelet management (aspirin + ticagrelor)
Answer: low
Flashcard 314: Initial management for NSTEMI/unstable angina includes _____ & fondaparinux if ↓ bleed risk and angiography is not being immediately performed
Answer: aspirin 300mg
Flashcard 315: Aortic dissection can be complicated by _____ murmur
Answer: aortic regurgitation
Flashcard 316: Killip class is used to stratify _____
Answer: 30 day mortality post-MI
Flashcard 317: A aortic dissection with a backwards tear can be complicated with _____ and/or inferior MI
Answer: aortic regurgitation
Flashcard 318: A aortic dissection with a forwards tear can be complicated with _____ pulses, stroke, and/or renal failure
Answer: unequal/absent arm
Flashcard 319: _____ is a group of conditions caused by sudden decrease in blood flow to the heart - STEMI - NSTEMI - Unstable angina
Answer: Acute coronary syndrome (ACS)
Flashcard 320: Modifiable risk factors for ischaemic heart disease include _____, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, obesity, & low physical activity
Answer: smoking
Flashcard 321: Mainstay of management for STEMI = _____ Mainstay of management for NSTEMI/unstable angina = GRACE score to determine if PCI is needed
Answer: PCI
Flashcard 322: _____ stents are now the preferred stent type for PCI
Answer: Drug eluting
Flashcard 323: Which area is affected in leads II, III, aVF? _____
Answer: Inferior MI
Flashcard 324: Secondary prevention for ACS/chest pain: D_____ ACE inhibitor Beta blocker Statin
Answer: ual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + 2nd antiplatelet)
Flashcard 325: Sudden onset of severe tearing chest and/or upper back, or stomach pain with weak pulses is most likely what? _____
Answer: Aortic Dissection
Flashcard 326: For the initial management for ACS/chest pain, morphine is used if _____
Answer: patient is in severe pain
Flashcard 327: STEMI is diagnosed with _____ or new LBBB
Answer: ST elevation
Flashcard 328: In a STEMI, _____ should be considered if there is a 120 minute delay in being able to perform PCI
Answer: fibrinolysis
Flashcard 329: Which area is affected in leads V1-V4? _____
Answer: Anterior MI
Flashcard 330: What gastrointestinal symptom can present in ACS? _____
Answer: Nausea & vomiting
Flashcard 331: Which ECG changes are associated with an inferior myocardial infarction? _____
Answer: II, III, aVF
Flashcard 332: _____ troponin levels points towards NSTEMI Normal troponin levels points towards unstable angina
Answer: Elevated
Flashcard 333: Nitrates for ACS are contraindicated in _____ patients
Answer: hypotensive
Flashcard 334: Patients receiving fibrinolysis for STEMI should also receive an _____ drug
Answer: antithrombin
Flashcard 335: What are the initial investigations for a patient presenting with ACS/chest pain? _____
Answer: ECG & troponin (biomarker of cardiac injury)
Flashcard 336: What demographics may NOT present with chest pain for ACS? _____
Answer: Elderly & diabetic patients
Flashcard 337: An aortic dissection is defined as a tear in the _____ of the aorta
Answer: tunica intima
Flashcard 338: STEMI is managed with _____ if the patient presents within 12 hours of symptom onset and PCI can be performed within 120 minutes
Answer: PCI
Flashcard 339: What dermatological symptom can present in ACS? _____
Answer: Sweating
Flashcard 340: STEMI diagnostic criteria includes clinical symptoms lasting ≥ _____
Answer: 20 minutes
Flashcard 341: Which ECG changes are associated with a lateral myocardial infarction? _____
Answer: I, aVL, V5-V6
Flashcard 342: For the initial management for ACS/chest pain, oxygen is used if patient has O2 saturations < _____%
Answer: 94
Flashcard 343: What respiratory symptom can present in ACS? _____
Answer: Dyspnoea
Flashcard 344: What is the mnemonic for the initial management of ACS/chest pain? _____
Answer: MONA Sick
Flashcard 345: Which ECG changes are associated with an anterior myocardial infarction? _____
Answer: V1-V4
Flashcard 346: What is the management of STEMI if PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes? _____
Answer: Fibrinolysis
Flashcard 347: Which area is affected in leads I, aVL, V5-V6? _____
Answer: Lateral MI
Flashcard 348: Which artery is associated with posterior myocardial infarction? _____
Answer: Posterior descending artery
Flashcard 349: Which artery is associated with lateral myocardial infarction? _____
Answer: Left circumflex artery
Flashcard 350: Which area is affected in leads V7-V9? _____
Answer: Posterior MI
Flashcard 351: Which artery is associated with anterior myocardial infarction? _____
Answer: Left anterior descending (LAD) artery
Flashcard 352: Which artery is associated with inferior myocardial infarction? _____
Answer: Right coronary artery
Flashcard 353: Initial management for ACS/chest pain: M_____ Oxygen (if sats < 94%) Nitrates Aspirin
Answer: orphine (if severe pain)
Flashcard 354: Which ECG changes are associated with a posterior myocardial infarction? _____
Answer: V7-V9
Flashcard 355: Acute coronary syndrome presents with _____/left-sided chest pain which radiates to the jaw or both arms
Answer: central
Flashcard 356: What is the mneumonic for the secondary prevention of ACS/chest pain? _____
Answer: DABS
Flashcard 357: Non-modifiable risk factors for ischaemic heart disease include _____, male, and family history
Answer: age
Flashcard 358: How are basic obs (BP, HR, temp, O2 sats) altered in ACS? _____
Answer: Generally normal
Flashcard 359: PCI is done via access to the _____ artery
Answer: radial
Flashcard 360: If cardiac arrest is witnessed (coronary care unit), and the rhythm is shockable, give _____ shock followed by 2min of CPR
Answer: up to 3 quick successive (stacked)
Flashcard 361: In advanced life support drug delivery should be done through _____ (second-line) if IV access cannot be achieved
Answer: IO (intraosseous) route
Flashcard 362: In advanced life support drug delivery should be done through _____ (first-line)
Answer: IV access
Flashcard 363: For non-shockable rhythms, _____ should be given as soon as possible
Answer: adrenaline 1mg
Flashcard 364: _____ should be given to patients who are in VF/pulseless VT after 3 shocks have been administered
Answer: Amiodarone 300 mg
Flashcard 365: In advanced life support repeate adrenaline 1mg should be given every _____-5 minutes whilst ALS continues
Answer: 3
Flashcard 366: For shockable (VF/VT cardiac arrest) rhythms, _____ should be given once chest compressions have restarted after the third shock
Answer: adrenaline 1mg
Flashcard 367: If cardiac arrest is NOT witnessed, and the rhythm is shockable, give _____ shock followed by 2min of CPR
Answer: 1
Keywords: Acute Medical Presentations flashcards, medical flashcards, NEET PG preparation, USMLE Step 1 flashcards, Anki alternative, spaced repetition medical, OnCourse flashcards
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