Infectious Diseases — Flashcards

Flashcard 1: a case of kala azar is defined as

Answer: fever>2 weeks + splenomegaly+ RDT or biopsy positive

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Flashcard 2: TB patient becomes 95% non infective within _____ of treatment

Answer: 2 weeks

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Flashcard 3: 5c341ef5ff5d429098121a2448710a0a-ao-3

Answer: rules of HART in HIV

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Flashcard 4: _____% of Hep C cases are subclinical

Answer: 80-90

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Flashcard 5: 5c341ef5ff5d429098121a2448710a0a-ao-1

Answer: rules of HART in HIV

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Flashcard 6: 88b9ebddad914b6188296ad71113c2a0-ao-2

Answer: line of treatment of kala azar

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Flashcard 7: 2beac1d544f14e59a1ee5f0f3ac533f4-ao-2

Answer: paucibacillary vs multibacillary leprosy

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Flashcard 8: 5c341ef5ff5d429098121a2448710a0a-ao-4

Answer: rules of HART in HIV

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Flashcard 9: _____ is indication for cotrimoxazole prophylaxis is in adult/pregnant HIV

Answer: CD4<350

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Flashcard 10: 5c341ef5ff5d429098121a2448710a0a-ao-2

Answer: rules of HART in HIV

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Flashcard 11: rash starting from axillary folds is seen in _____

Answer: epidemic typhus

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Flashcard 12: IP of malaria is always >_____ days

Answer: 10

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Flashcard 13: 5c341ef5ff5d429098121a2448710a0a-ao-5

Answer: rules of HART in HIV

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Flashcard 14: incubation period  of hep B virus is _____

Answer: 30-180 days

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Flashcard 15: contraindications for TB preventive therapy are

Answer: hepatitis known contacts of MDR TB patients showing symptoms not contraindicated in HIV immunocompromised

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Flashcard 16: 88b9ebddad914b6188296ad71113c2a0-ao-1

Answer: line of treatment of kala azar

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Flashcard 17: TB regimen in liver disease

Answer: 18-24 months of SQE 2 months of SHE and 10 months of HE

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Flashcard 18: IOC for TB in HIV patients is _____

Answer: CBNAAT

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Flashcard 19: c12647b13c994b8b80e4c749a22faaf4-ao-2

Answer: rabies reexposure prophylaxis-MCQ AIIMS 19

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Flashcard 20: 5c341ef5ff5d429098121a2448710a0a-ao-6

Answer: rules of HART in HIV

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Flashcard 21: Candida albicans that extends from the mouth to the esophagus is known as _____, which is an AIDS-defining illness

Answer: candidal esophagitis

Flashcard 22: Common infectious causes of acute prostatitis in older adults include _____ and Pseudomonas

Answer: E. coli

Flashcard 23: Epstein-Barr Virus is associated with fever, _____-erior cervical lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, and hepatosplenomegaly.

Answer: post

Flashcard 24: Stage _____ HIV is also known as AIDS, with a CD4+ count < 200

Answer: 4

Flashcard 25: _____ syndrome will present with fever, shock (hypo-tension) and a diffuse red rash

Answer: Toxic Shock

Flashcard 26: _____ prophylaxis for Mycobacterium avium complex should be started with CD4+ counts < 50

Answer: Azithromycin

Flashcard 27: Cryptococcus is an _____ infection, with most symptoms occuring in immuno-compromised patients(ie: HIV+ patients, those with malignancies, high-dose steroid therapy, etc.)

Answer: opportunistic

Flashcard 28: _____ E. coli can result in glomerular damage and thus hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

Answer: Enterohemorrhagic

Flashcard 29: A distinguishing serologic feature of chronic hepatitis _____ is the presence in the circulation of antibodies to liver-kidney microsome (anti-LKM1).

Answer: C

Flashcard 30: _____ is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell disease

Answer: Salmonella typhi

Flashcard 31: Opportunistic infections with _____ are seen with Hyper-IgM syndrome, most commonly caused by a defective CD40L

Answer: Cryptosporidium

Flashcard 32: HCV is associated with _____, which are IgM immunoglobulins that precipitate out of the blood at cool temperatures

Answer: cryoglobulins

Flashcard 33: Stage _____ HIV is characterized by clinical latency. CD4+ count drops to < 500

Answer: 2

Flashcard 34: ICU inpatients of community acquired pneumonia are treated with:_____ + azithromycin or fluoroquinolone

Answer: -lactam

Flashcard 35: _____ caused by Coxiella burnetti is associated with hepatitis, interstitial pneumonia and culture-negative endocarditis (visceral complications)

Answer: Q fever

Flashcard 36: The prodrome (onset) of HIV consists of flu or _____-like symptoms with cervical lymphadenopathy and fever

Answer: mono

Flashcard 37: What is the treatment (2) for Chagas Disease (Trypanosoma cruzi)?_____, Benznidazole

Answer: Nifurtimox

Flashcard 38: Vibrio cholerae causes profuse _____ diarrhea with visible flakes of mucous and epithelial cells

Answer: watery

Flashcard 39: _____ and varicella are live vaccines that can be given to HIV patients with CD4 counts > 200/mm3

Answer: MMR

Flashcard 40: Klebsiella can also cause pyogenic _____ and lung abscesses (organs)

Answer: liver

Flashcard 41: Asplenic sickle cell disease patients are commonly infected with _____ and Haemophilus influenzae

Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

Flashcard 42: Enterococcus spp. can result in _____, subacute endocarditis, and biliary tree infections

Answer: UTIs

Flashcard 43: _____ is generally preceded by group A strep pharyngitis and NOT GAS skin infections (impetigo).

Answer: Rheumatic fever

Flashcard 44: Treatment of Tularemia includes _____ and gentamicin

Answer: streptomycin

Flashcard 45: List of pathogens that can cause endocarditis in IVDUs:_____Candida albicans

Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Flashcard 46: Common infectious causes of orchitis in young adults include _____ and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K)

Flashcard 47: The foul-smelling diarrhea seen in a _____ infection is due to steatorrhea* (fatty diarrhea)

Answer: Giardia

Flashcard 48: If a previously healthy patient with CAP has not received any antibiotics in the past _____ months, a course of macrolide or doxycycline is given

Answer: 3

Flashcard 49: Common infectious causes of orchitis in older adults include _____ and Pseudomonas

Answer: E. coli

Flashcard 50: Babesiosis can cause _____, which results in hemoglobinuria and jaundice

Answer: hemolytic anemia

Flashcard 51: Mycobacterium _____ is a non-TB disease that causes disseminated infection in the late stages of AIDS

Answer: avium complex

Flashcard 52: Because of splenomegaly, patients with _____ are advisedto avoid contact sports (ie: football) for danger of splenic rupture

Answer: mononucleosis (EBV)

Flashcard 53: _____ are susceptible to acute bacterial endocarditis of the tricuspid valve from staphylococcus aureus

Answer: IV drug users

Flashcard 54: Nocardia can present with _____-like symptoms and cavitary lesions in the lungs

Answer: pneumonia

Flashcard 55: _____ and Colitis are GI complications that are often seen alongside CMV Retinitis in immunosuppressed patients.

Answer: Esophagitis

Flashcard 56: Individuals who are _____ will have a herpes zoster (shingles) rash that crosses midline and should be tested for HIV

Answer: immunocompromised

Flashcard 57: Stage _____ HIV is characterized by recurrent bacterial infections. CD4+ count drops to < 350

Answer: 3

Flashcard 58: In _____, Leptospira interrogans travels through the blood, causing dysfunction in the kidneys and liver

Answer: Weil's disease

Flashcard 59: Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis has a(n) _____ course that occurs over a period of one to two weeks. The most common symptoms are fever, malaise, and headache.

Answer: indolent

Flashcard 60: Histoplasmosis prophylaxis in HIV/AIDS patients is started at CD4+ counts < _____, using itraconazole

Answer: 150

Flashcard 61: Klebsiella can be remembered by its "three A's"; _____, aspiration and abscesses

Answer: alcoholics

Flashcard 62: _____ due to Legionella pneumophila is characterized by a lobar* pneumonia

Answer: Legionnaires' disease

Flashcard 63: Paths of Progression after Primary Mycobacteria tuberculosis infection: _____ infection, which occurs by reactivated infection due to immunosuppression (HIV, old age, cancer, etc)

Answer: secondary

Flashcard 64: Babesiosis has a worse presentation in _____ patients, which commonly results from sickle cell disease

Answer: asplenic

Flashcard 65: Giardia (parasite) commonly presents with bloating, _____ and foul-smelling diarrhea

Answer: flatulence

Flashcard 66: _____ due to Bartonella henselae presents with axillary or cervical lymphadentitis

Answer: Cat scratch fever

Flashcard 67: Cystitis is characterized by _____ urine with > 10 WBCs/hpf (urinalysis)

Answer: cloudy

Flashcard 68: _____ syphilis can present with aortitis, particularly of the ascending thoracic aorta

Answer: Tertiary

Flashcard 69: _____ is a virus that can cause acute bronchitis, eventually leading to ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)

Answer: Coronavirus

Flashcard 70: What are the indications for percutaneous aspiration in amoebic liver abscess? (5)-Large abscesses (>_____ cm)-Lack of response to medical therapy (in 5 days)-Suspicion of superinfection-Abscesses of the left lobe of the liver at risk for rupture into the pericardium-Uncertain diagnosis

Answer: 5

Flashcard 71: _____ and diabetic patients are especially susceptible to Mucormycosis infections

Answer: Immuno-compromised (ie: those on glucocorticoids, HIV+/AIDS)

Flashcard 72: _____ caused by Legionella pneumophila is associated with low blood Na+ (hyponatremia)

Answer: Legonnaires' disease

Flashcard 73: _____ infection is characterized by a thick mucoid capsule that results in gelatinous, 'currant jelly' sputum

Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

Flashcard 74: In immunocompromised individuals with Cryptosporidium infection, anti-_____ therapy should be initiated since CD4 counts greater than 100 are associated with complete resolution of symptoms.Nitazoxanide can be used for immunocompromised patients if CD4 recovery is slow and symptoms are severe.

Answer: retroviral

Flashcard 75: _____ is a CNS protozoal infection that presents with brain abscesses in HIV patients; seen as ring-enhancing brain lesions on CT/MRI.

Answer: Toxoplasmosis

Flashcard 76: _____ pneumonia is an AIDS-defining illness that presents with a CD4+ count < 200

Answer: Pneumocystis

Flashcard 77: _____ pupil is a complication of Tertiary syphilis where the eye accommodates to near objects but does NOT react to light.

Answer: Argyll-Robertson

Flashcard 78: Secondary bacterial pneumonia is typically _____, Haemophilus influenzae, or Strep pneumo superimposed on Influenza

Answer: Staph aureus

Flashcard 79: Patients with _____ disease and asplenic patients are at a high risk of infection of Neisseria meningitidis

Answer: sickle cell

Flashcard 80: _____ therapy and Amphotericin B have been reported to be effective for the treatment of chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis.

Answer: Transfer factor

Flashcard 81: _____ leishmaniasis can present with pancytopenia (blood complication)

Answer: Visceral

Flashcard 82: Patients can become at increased risk for infections with vibrio vulnificus in the setting of _____ and chronic liver disease

Answer: achlorhydria

Flashcard 83: Are zoster lesions infectious or not?_____

Answer: infectious

Flashcard 84: Most common cause of chronic hepatitis (prevalence) is hepatitis _____

Answer: B

Flashcard 85: In patients with toxoplasmosis, ART can be started _____ weeks after treatment of toxoplasmosis and when patient is stabilized

Answer: 6

Flashcard 86: Screening of patients with CMV with low CD4 counts: _____ if levels are >100/l

Answer: yearly

Flashcard 87: Candida or Aspergillus lung infections are an _____ cause of post-HSCT infection

Answer: early

Flashcard 88: Cryptococcal meningitis is an AIDS-defining opportunistic fungal CNS infection that generally occurs in untreated patients, with CD4+ T cell counts

Answer: Cryptococcal meningitis is an AIDS-defining opportunistic fungal CNS infection that generally occurs in untreated patients, with CD4+ T cell counts

Flashcard 89: Most common cause of acute viral hepatitis, leading to chronic hepatitis is hepatitis _____

Answer: C

Flashcard 90: Weingarten syndrome is also known as _____

Answer: tropical eosinophilia

Flashcard 91: Screening of patients with CMV with low CD4 counts: _____-monthly if levels are

Answer: 3

Flashcard 92: A patient of dengue hemorrhagic fever can be discharged if there is absence of fever for at least _____ hours without the use of antipyretic drugs

Answer: 24

Flashcard 93: BK virus and disseminated Candida, Aspergillus or EBV are a(n) _____ cause of post-HSCT infection

Answer: middle

Flashcard 94: The most useful laboratory evaluation in patients of amoebic liver abscess is the presence of _____

Answer: circulating antibodies

Flashcard 95: Screening of patients with CMV with low CD4 counts: _____-monthly if levels are 50-100/l

Answer: 6

Flashcard 96: Most common cause of late (>12 months) prosthetic valve endocarditis after replacement is?_____

Answer: Streptococci

Flashcard 97: Delayed anastomotic bleeding in a patient with renal transplant is highly suggestive of _____ infection

Answer: Candida

Flashcard 98: If the HCW is previously infected/treated and the source is HbsAg +ve, what is the next step?_____

Answer: no rx

Flashcard 99: What is the treatment of pyelephlebitis?_____

Answer: systemic antibiotics and percutaneous drainage of hepatic abscesses as appropriate

Flashcard 100: In patients with CMV retinitis, ART can be started _____ weeks after treatment of CMV

Answer: 2

Flashcard 101: What is the most common trigger for hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis?_____

Answer: EBV infection

Flashcard 102: Which Hepatitis B marker will always be present in a patient's serum, after recovery, even during recurrences or development of chronic hepatitis?_____

Answer: Anti-Hbc IgG

Flashcard 103: EBV positive mucocutaneous ulcer is a circumscribed ulcer involving oropharyngeal mucosa, skin, or GIT in immuno_____ patients

Answer: compromised

Flashcard 104: Clostridium difficile and HSV are an _____ cause of post-HSCT infection

Answer: early

Flashcard 105: Is systemic toxicity common in a patient of amoebic liver abscess?_____

Answer: No

Flashcard 106: After treatment of Whipple's disease, patients should be followed up for a year atleast with duodenal biospies and _____ PCR analysis

Answer: CSF

Flashcard 107: In dengue indication of platelet transfusion include presence of bleeding manifestation or platelet count less than _____/microL

Answer: 10,000

Flashcard 108: In which opportunistic infections can ART be started immediately?_____

Answer: MAC, cryptosporidiosis, microsporidiosis and PML

Flashcard 109: The most common clinical course seen in hepatitis C infection is _____ state

Answer: chronic carrier

Flashcard 110: The most common infectious cause of aplastic anemia is _____

Answer: Non-A Non-B Non-C hepatitis

Flashcard 111: JC virus and gastrointestinal EBV infection are a(n) _____ cause of post-HSCT infection

Answer: late

Flashcard 112: Ty21a vaccine can be administered in an HIV-positive asymptomatic patient as long as the CD4+ count is >_____/ cubic mm.

Answer: 200

Flashcard 113: In Escherichia coli and streptococcal pyelonephritis, the urine is _____

Answer: acidic (acidic/alkaline)

Flashcard 114: The first line of treatment for Isospora diarrhoea condition is _____.

Answer: cotrimoxazole

Flashcard 115: Whipple's disease is best treated with _____ + _____.

Answer: Ceftriaxone/Meropenem; TMP-SMX

Flashcard 116: The first line in the management of Cryoglobulinemic vasculitis is to _____

Answer: treat underlying Hepatitis C infection

Flashcard 117: _____ syndrome is septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein.

Answer: Lemierre

Flashcard 118: What is the treatment of choice for decompensated cirrhosis in Hepatitis-B infection? _______

Answer: Tenofovir