Surgical complications

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 1: A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of a cough and hoarseness. He reports that the cough is worse when he lies down after lunch. His temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F); the remainder of his vital signs are within normal limits. Because the physician has recently been seeing several patients with the common cold, the diagnosis of a viral upper respiratory tract infection readily comes to mind. The physician fails to consider the diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease, which the patient is later found to have. Which of the following most accurately describes the cognitive bias that the physician had?

• A. Framing
• B. Anchoring
• C. Visceral
• D. Confirmation
• E. Availability (Correct Answer)

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Availability*** - The physician recently seeing several patients with the common cold led to this diagnosis readily coming to mind, demonstrating how easily recalled examples can disproportionately influence diagnosis. - This bias occurs when easily recalled instances or information (like recent cases of common cold) are used to estimate the likelihood or frequency of an event, even if other more relevant data exist. *Framing* - This bias occurs when the way information is presented (e.g., as a gain or a loss) influences a decision, rather than the intrinsic characteristics of the options themselves. - The scenario does not involve the presentation of information in different ways to sway the physician's judgment. *Anchoring* - This bias involves relying too heavily on an initial piece of information (the "anchor") when making subsequent judgments, often leading to insufficient adjustment away from that anchor. - While the physician initially considered a viral URI, the setup is more about the ease of recall influencing the decision rather than being stuck on an initial data point. *Visceral* - This is not a commonly recognized cognitive bias in the context of medical decision-making; "visceral" largely refers to emotional or intuitive feelings rather than a structured cognitive bias. - Cognitive biases describe systematic patterns of deviation from norm or rationality in judgment, not merely emotional responses. *Confirmation* - This bias involves seeking, interpreting, favoring, and recalling information in a way that confirms one's pre-existing beliefs or hypotheses. - The physician did not actively seek information to confirm the common cold diagnosis; rather, the diagnosis came to mind due to recent encounters, which aligns with availability bias.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 2: A 68-year-old woman presents to the hospital for an elective right hemicolectomy. She is independently mobile and does her own shopping. She has had type 2 diabetes mellitus for 20 years, essential hypertension for 15 years, and angina on exertion for 6 years. She has a 30-pack-year history of smoking. The operation was uncomplicated. On post-op day 5, she becomes confused. She has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F), respiratory rate of 28/min, and oxygen saturation of 92% on 2 L of oxygen. She is tachycardic at 118/min and her blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg. On chest auscultation, she has coarse crackles in the right lung base. Her surgical wound appears to be healing well, and her abdomen is soft and nontender. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Malignant hyperthermia
• B. Drug-induced fever
• C. Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome
• D. Sepsis (Correct Answer)
• E. Non-infectious systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Sepsis*** - The patient exhibits several signs of **systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)** (fever, tachycardia, tachypnea) coupled with evidence of infection (coarse crackles in the lung base suggests **pneumonia**). - The combination of **SIRS criteria** and a likely infection source in a postoperative patient strongly points to sepsis, a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. *Malignant hyperthermia* - This is a rare, life-threatening condition typically triggered by **volatile anesthetic agents** or **succinylcholine** during surgery. - It usually presents **intraoperatively or immediately postoperatively** with rapid onset of hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and metabolic acidosis, which is not consistent with a presentation on post-op day 5. *Drug-induced fever* - While drug-induced fever is possible, particularly in polymedicated patients, it would be a **diagnosis of exclusion** when other more likely causes of fever, such as infection, are present. - There are no specific clinical features in this case that strongly suggest a drug as the singular cause of fever and the systemic inflammatory response. *Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome* - **MODS** is the progressive failure of two or more organ systems and is often a **complication of severe sepsis or septic shock**, rather than an initial diagnosis. - While the patient is unwell, her current presentation describes a potential precursor (sepsis) rather than established multi-organ dysfunction. *Non-infectious systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)* - SIRS caused by non-infectious etiologies (e.g., pancreatitis, trauma, burns) can occur, but the presence of **localized lung crackles** and a **postoperative fever** makes an infectious etiology much more likely. - Postoperative SIRS can occur due to surgical stress, but the signs of infection (especially respiratory) shift the diagnosis towards sepsis.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 3: A 55-year-old woman is being managed on the surgical floor after having a total abdominal hysterectomy as a definitive treatment for endometriosis. On day 1 after the operation, the patient complains of fevers. She has no other complaints other than aches and pains from lying in bed as she has not moved since the procedure. She is currently receiving ondansetron, acetaminophen, and morphine. Her temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Her abdominal exam is within normal limits and cardiopulmonary exam is only notable for mild crackles. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient’s fever?

• A. Deep vein thrombosis
• B. Abscess formation
• C. Inflammatory stimulus of surgery (Correct Answer)
• D. Urinary tract infection
• E. Wound infection

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Inflammatory stimulus of surgery*** - Postoperative fever occurring within the first 24-48 hours after surgery, especially a major abdominal procedure, is most commonly due to the **systemic inflammatory response** to tissue trauma and stress from the surgery itself. - The temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) is a common reactive fever. In this timeframe, **atelectasis** (part of the inflammatory response to surgery) is the classic cause, supported by the patient's **immobility since surgery** and **mild crackles** on exam. - The patient has no other specific signs of infection, making this the most likely cause. *Deep vein thrombosis* - While DVT is a concern post-surgery, it typically presents with **leg pain, swelling, and tenderness**, not primarily as fever alone on day 1. - A fever from DVT would usually indicate a more advanced complication like pulmonary embolism, which is inconsistent with the mild crackles and stable oxygen saturation. *Abscess formation* - Abscesses usually take several days to form and present with significant fevers, localized pain, and possibly purulent drainage, not typically within the first **24 hours post-op**. - The abdominal exam is noted as within normal limits, making an abscess unlikely at this early stage. *Urinary tract infection* - UTIs are common post-op, especially with catheterization, but typically present with **dysuria, frequency, urgency**, and sometimes suprapubic pain, which are absent here. - While fever can be a symptom, the lack of urinary complaints makes it a less likely primary diagnosis on day 1. *Wound infection* - Wound infections rarely develop within the first **24-48 hours** post-surgery, as bacteria require time to proliferate and cause inflammatory signs. - Typical signs include **erythema, warmth, tenderness, and purulent drainage** at the incision site, which are not mentioned.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 4: A 34-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by fire and rescue following a motor vehicle accident in which the patient was an unrestrained driver. The paramedics report that the patient was struck from behind by a drunk driver. He was mentating well at the scene but complained of pain in his abdomen. The patient has no known past medical history. In the trauma bay, his temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 86/51 mmHg, pulse is 138/min, and respirations are 18/min. The patient is somnolent but arousable to voice and pain. His lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. He is diffusely tender to palpation on abdominal exam with bruising over the left upper abdomen. His distal pulses are thready, and capillary refill is delayed bilaterally. Two large-bore peripheral intravenous lines are placed to bolus him with intravenous 0.9% saline. Chest radiograph shows multiple left lower rib fractures. Which of the following parameters is most likely to be seen in this patient?

• A. Increased cardiac output
• B. Increased mixed venous oxygen saturation
• C. Decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (Correct Answer)
• D. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
• E. Increased right atrial pressure

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure*** - The patient presents with classic signs of **hemorrhagic shock** (hypotension, tachycardia, somnolence, abdominal bruising, thready pulses) due to trauma, likely involving the spleen or kidney given the left upper abdominal bruising and rib fractures. - **Decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)** is expected in hypovolemic shock because it reflects left atrial and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, which will be low due to reduced venous return and intravascular volume. *Increased cardiac output* - In **hemorrhagic shock**, the body attempts to compensate by increasing heart rate, but overall **cardiac output is typically decreased** due to profound reduction in preload (venous return) from blood loss. - While heart rate is elevated, the stroke volume is severely diminished, leading to a net decrease in cardiac output despite compensatory efforts. *Increased mixed venous oxygen saturation* - **Mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2)** is generally **decreased in hemorrhagic shock** due to increased oxygen extraction by tissues. - Inadequate oxygen delivery to the tissues forces them to extract more oxygen from the blood, leading to a lower SvO2. *Decreased systemic vascular resistance* - In **hemorrhagic shock**, the body activates compensatory mechanisms, including generalized **vasoconstriction**, to maintain blood pressure and prioritize blood flow to vital organs. - This leads to an **increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)**, not decreased, as reflected by the thready distal pulses and delayed capillary refill. *Increased right atrial pressure* - **Right atrial pressure (RAP)**, representing CVP, is typically **decreased in hemorrhagic shock** due to reduced circulating blood volume. - A lower RAP indicates decreased venous return to the heart, a hallmark of hypovolemia.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 5: An epidemiologist is evaluating the efficacy of Noxbinle in preventing HCC deaths at the population level. A clinical trial shows that over 5 years, the mortality rate from HCC was 25% in the control group and 15% in patients treated with Noxbinle 100 mg daily. Based on this data, how many patients need to be treated with Noxbinle 100 mg to prevent, on average, one death from HCC?

• A. 20
• B. 73
• C. 10 (Correct Answer)
• D. 50
• E. 100

Surgical complications Explanation: ***10*** - The **number needed to treat (NNT)** is calculated by first finding the **absolute risk reduction (ARR)**. - **ARR** = Risk in control group - Risk in treatment group = 25% - 15% = **10%** (or 0.10). - **NNT = 1 / ARR** = 1 / 0.10 = **10 patients**. - This means that **10 patients must be treated with Noxbinle to prevent one death from HCC** over 5 years. *20* - This would result from an ARR of 5% (1/0.05 = 20), which is not supported by the data. - May arise from miscalculating the risk difference or incorrectly halving the actual ARR. *73* - This value does not correspond to any standard calculation of NNT from the given mortality rates. - May result from confusion with other epidemiological measures or calculation error. *50* - This would correspond to an ARR of 2% (1/0.02 = 50), which significantly underestimates the actual risk reduction. - Could result from incorrectly calculating the difference as a proportion rather than absolute percentage points. *100* - This would correspond to an ARR of 1% (1/0.01 = 100), grossly underestimating the treatment benefit. - May result from confusing ARR with relative risk reduction or other calculation errors.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 6: A 35-year-old male is brought into the emergency department for a trauma emergency. The emergency medical services states that the patient was wounded with a knife on his upper left thigh near the inguinal ligament. Upon examination in the trauma bay, the patient is awake and alert. His physical exam and FAST exam is normal other than the knife wound. Large bore intravenous lines are inserted into the patient for access and fluids are being administered. Pressure on the knife wound is being held by one of the physicians with adequate control of the bleeding, but the physician notices the blood was previously extravasating in a pulsatile manner. His vitals are BP 100/50, HR 110, T 97.8, RR 22. What is the next best step for this patient?

• A. CT lower extremities
• B. Radiograph lower extremities
• C. Coagulation studies and blood typing/crossmatch
• D. Tourniquet of proximal lower extremity
• E. Emergent surgery (Correct Answer)

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Emergent surgery*** - The pulsatile bleeding from a thigh wound near the inguinal ligament is highly suggestive of a major arterial injury, such as to the **femoral artery**. - Given the potential for rapid blood loss and hemodynamic instability, **emergent surgical exploration and repair** are necessary to control the bleeding and prevent further compromise. *CT lower extremities* - While CT angiography could further delineate vascular injury, the presence of **active pulsatile bleeding** necessitates immediate surgical intervention rather than delaying for imaging. - Delaying surgery for imaging risks **exsanguination** and worsening patient outcomes, especially with a blood pressure of **100/50 mmHg** and a heart rate of **110 bpm**, indicating early shock. *Radiograph lower extremities* - A radiograph would primarily visualize bone structures and foreign bodies but would not provide adequate information regarding the **vascular injury** and active bleeding. - It would not change the urgent need for **surgical exploration** to address the pulsatile hemorrhage. *Coagulation studies and blood typing/crossmatch* - These are important preparatory steps for major surgery involving significant blood loss, but they should be carried out **concurrently with preparations for emergent surgery**, not instead of it. - Delaying surgery to await these results would be inappropriate when facing **active arterial bleeding**. *Tourniquet of proximal lower extremity* - While a tourniquet can be used for temporary hemorrhage control, especially in an uncontrolled external hemorrhage, the current bleeding is being controlled by **direct pressure**. - Applying a tourniquet could cause **ischemic damage** to the extremity if applied for too long, and for a deep stab wound, direct compression is often effective until surgical control can be achieved.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 7: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?

• A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
• B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
• C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
• D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
• E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?*** - This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis. - In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions. *Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?* - While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience. - It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture. *Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?* - Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions. - However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed. *Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life* - Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time. - However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially. *Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?* - Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related. - This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 8: A 64-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office to find out the results of her recent abdominal CT. She had been complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and jaundice for 6 months prior to seeing the physician. The patient has a significant medical history of hypothyroidism, generalized anxiety disorder, and hyperlipidemia. She takes levothyroxine, sertraline, and atorvastatin. The vital signs are stable today. On physical examination, her skin shows slight jaundice, but no scleral icterus is present. The palpation of the abdomen reveals no tenderness, guarding, or masses. The CT results shows a 3 x 3 cm mass located at the head of the pancreas. Which of the following choices is most appropriate for delivering bad news to the patient?

• A. Refer the patient to an oncologist without informing the patient of their cancer
• B. Ask that a spouse or close relative come to the appointment, explain to them the bad news, and see if they will tell the patient since they have a closer relationship
• C. Set aside an appropriate amount of time in your schedule, and ensure you will not have any interruptions as you explain the bad news to the patient (Correct Answer)
• D. Call the patient over the phone to break the bad news, and tell them they can make an office visit if they prefer
• E. Train one of the nursing staff employees on this matter, and delegate this duty as one of their job responsibilities

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Set aside an appropriate amount of time in your schedule, and ensure you will not have any interruptions as you explain the bad news to the patient*** - Delivering bad news requires a **dedicated, uninterrupted environment** to allow for clear communication, emotional support, and time for the patient to process the information and ask questions. - Adequate time ensures that the physician can address immediate concerns, explore the patient's understanding, and collaboratively plan the next steps, fostering **trust and patient-centered care**. *Refer the patient to an oncologist without informing the patient of their cancer* - This approach violates the principle of **patient autonomy** and the ethical obligation to provide complete and accurate information about their diagnosis. - Patients have a right to know their medical status and actively participate in decisions regarding their care, which includes being informed of a **cancer diagnosis**. *Ask that a spouse or close relative come to the appointment, explain to them the bad news, and see if they will tell the patient since they have a closer relationship* - While involving family is important for support, the **primary responsibility** to deliver difficult medical news rests with the physician directly to the patient. - This avoids potential miscommunication, ensures the patient receives accurate information from the medical professional, and respects the patient's individual right to hear their diagnosis without an intermediary. *Call the patient over the phone to break the bad news, and tell them they can make an office visit if they prefer* - Delivering significant bad news, especially a potential cancer diagnosis, over the phone is generally **inappropriate and insensitive**, as it lacks the personal presence and immediate support needed. - A phone call does not allow for non-verbal cues, immediate emotional support, or a comprehensive discussion of complex medical information, making an **in-person consultation preferential**. *Train one of the nursing staff employees on this matter, and delegate this duty as one of their job responsibilities* - Delivering a new and serious medical diagnosis, such as cancer, is primarily the **responsibility of the treating physician** due to the complexity of the information and the need for medical expertise. - While nurses play a crucial role in patient education and support, conveying initial diagnoses of this gravity falls outside their typical scope of practice and could erode **patient trust**.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 9: Three days after undergoing an open cholecystectomy, a 73-year-old man has fever and abdominal pain. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He had smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years but quit 1 year ago. He does not drink alcohol. Prior to admission to the hospital, his medications included lisinopril, metformin, ipratropium, and tamsulosin. He appears acutely ill and lethargic. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), pulse is 108/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/84 mm Hg. He is oriented only to person. Examination shows a 10-cm subcostal incision that appears dry and non-erythematous. Scattered expiratory wheezing is heard throughout both lung fields. His abdomen is distended with tenderness to palpation over the lower quadrants. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dl Leukocyte count 19,000/mm3 Serum Glucose 180 mg/dl Urea Nitrogen 25 mg/dl Creatinine 1.2 mg/dl Lactic acid 2.5 mEq/L (N = 0.5 - 2.2 mEq/L) Urine Protein 1+ RBC 1–2/hpf WBC 32–38/hpf Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's current condition?

• A. Wound contamination
• B. Peritoneal inflammation
• C. Impaired alveolar ventilation
• D. Intraabdominal abscess formation (Correct Answer)
• E. Bladder outlet obstruction

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Intraabdominal abscess formation*** - The patient presents with **fever**, **leukocytosis**, **abdominal pain** and **distension** three days post-cholecystectomy. These symptoms, coupled with signs of systemic illness (lethargy, altered mental status, tachycardia, elevated lactic acid), are highly suggestive of an **intraabdominal infection** such as an abscess. - The surgical site incision appears dry and non-erythematous, making a superficial wound infection less likely to explain the systemic symptoms and deep abdominal pain. *Wound contamination* - While wound contamination can cause infection, the incision site is described as **dry and non-erythematous**, suggesting that a superficial surgical site infection is not the primary cause of the patient's systemic illness and deep abdominal pain. - A simple wound infection generally would not lead to such significant systemic symptoms, including **lethargy** and **altered mental status**, within three days post-surgery, especially without local signs of inflammation. *Peritoneal inflammation* - Peritoneal inflammation (peritonitis) is a consequence of an intraabdominal process like an abscess or anastomotic leak, rather than the primary underlying mechanism itself. - The symptoms of **localized tenderness** and **distension** are more indicative of a contained process like an abscess rather than diffuse peritoneal inflammation as the initial cause. *Impaired alveolar ventilation* - While the patient has COPD and scattered expiratory wheezing, suggesting some degree of respiratory compromise, **impaired alveolar ventilation** alone does not explain the fever, elevated leukocyte count, abdominal pain, and an elevated lactic acid (though respiratory distress can contribute to lactic acidemia, an infection is a more direct cause here). - Post-operative pulmonary complications are common, but the abdominal findings and systemic signs of infection point away from a purely respiratory origin for this acute deterioration. *Bladder outlet obstruction* - The patient has BPH and is on tamsulosin, but his current symptoms of fever, leukocytosis, abdominal pain, and elevated lactic acid are not typical for **bladder outlet obstruction**. - Although the urine analysis shows pyuria (WBC 32-38/hpf), which could suggest a urinary tract infection (UTI), a UTI alone is less likely to cause this degree of systemic illness with **significant abdominal distension** and **tenderness** in the lower quadrants shortly after abdominal surgery; it's more probable that the pyuria is a secondary finding or contributing factor in a patient with a more severe intraabdominal process.

Surgical complications US Medical PG Question 10: A 37-year-old-woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of fever and abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 130/74 mmHg, pulse is 98/min, temperature is 101.5°F (38.6°C), and respirations are 23/min. The patient reports that she had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 4 days ago but has otherwise been healthy. She is visiting her family from Nebraska and just arrived this morning from a 12-hour drive. Physical examination revealed erythema and white discharge from abdominal incisions and tenderness upon palpations at the right upper quadrant. What is the most probable cause of the patient’s fever?

• A. Pulmonary atelectasis
• B. Residual gallstones
• C. Urinary tract infection
• D. Wound infection (Correct Answer)
• E. Pulmonary embolism

Surgical complications Explanation: ***Wound infection*** - The presence of **erythema**, **white discharge from abdominal incisions**, and **fever** 4 days post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy strongly indicates a surgical site infection. - This is a common complication after surgery, especially with visible signs of local inflammation and purulent discharge. *Pulmonary atelectasis* - **Atelectasis** typically presents within **24-48 hours post-op** and usually resolves spontaneously. - While it can cause fever, the prominent local wound signs and the timing (4 days post-op) make it less likely to be the primary cause of fever. *Residual gallstones* - **Residual gallstones** would typically present with symptoms resembling acute cholecystitis or cholangitis, such as **right upper quadrant pain**, **jaundice**, or **elevated liver enzymes**, without direct signs of wound infection. - These do not account for the **erythema and discharge from the incision sites**. *Urinary tract infection* - A **urinary tract infection (UTI)** would present with **dysuria**, **frequency**, **urgency**, or **suprapubic pain**, and would not explain the local wound findings. - While surgery can increase the risk of nosocomial UTIs, the clinical presentation is primarily focused on the surgical site. *Pulmonary embolism* - A **pulmonary embolism (PE)** would likely cause **dyspnea**, **tachycardia**, **hypoxia**, and **pleuritic chest pain**, which are not reported in this case. - Though prolonged immobility (e.g., long drive) is a risk factor, the specific local signs of infection are not consistent with PE.

Surgical complications Flashcard 1 of 7

Question: _____ is caused by GAS and enters through trauma openings causing infection and ultimately necrotic skin with large bullae.

Answer: Necrotizing fasciitis

Surgical complications Flashcard 2 of 7

Question: A _____ is indicated when an emergency airway is required or orotracheal / nasotracheal intubation is unsuccessful / contraindicated

Answer: cricothyrotomy

Surgical complications Flashcard 3 of 7

Question: Patients who have undergone _____ surgery can sometimes manifest with symptoms of hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcemia.

Answer: Thyroid

Surgical complications Flashcard 4 of 7

Question: Gas emboli may be iatrogenic, secondary to _____ procedures as air is pumped into the abdomen

Answer: laparoscopic

Surgical complications Flashcard 5 of 7

Question: Herniated contents may be at risk for _____, which is the inability to reduce contents back into the abdomen/pelvis

Answer: incarceration

Surgical complications Flashcard 6 of 7

Question: Meckel diverticulum is associated with the "rule of _____"

Answer: 2s

Surgical complications Flashcard 7 of 7

Question: _____ is the most common cause of iatrogenic phrenic nerve injury

Answer: Cardiothoracic surgery