Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Preoperative anesthesia evaluation. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 1: A 57-year-old man presents to his physician with dyspnea on exertion and rapid heartbeat. He denies any pain during these episodes. He works as a machine operator at a solar panels manufacturer. He has a 21-pack-year history of smoking. The medical history is significant for a perforated ulcer, in which he had to undergo gastric resection and bypass. He also has a history of depression, and he is currently taking escitalopram. The family history is unremarkable. The patient weighs 69 kg (152 lb). His height is 169 cm (5 ft 7 in). The vital signs include: blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg, heart rate 95/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.6℃ (97.9℉). Lung auscultation reveals widespread wheezes. Cardiac auscultation shows decreased S1 and grade 1/6 midsystolic murmur best heard at the apex. Abdominal and neurological examinations show no abnormalities. A subsequent echocardiogram shows increased left ventricular mass and an ejection fraction of 50%. Which of the options is a risk factor for the condition detected in the patient?
- A. History of gastric bypass surgery
- B. Exposure to heavy metals
- C. Escitalopram intake
- D. The patient’s body mass
- E. Smoking (Correct Answer)
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Smoking***
- The patient's 21-pack-year smoking history is a significant risk factor for **hypertension** and **cardiovascular disease**, contributing to increased left ventricular mass and cardiac dysfunction.
- Smoking directly damages blood vessels and the heart, leading to increased afterload and subsequent **left ventricular hypertrophy** (LVH), as seen on this patient's echocardiogram.
*History of gastric bypass surgery*
- While gastric bypass surgery is associated with malabsorption and nutritional deficiencies (including thiamine deficiency leading to wet beriberi), it is not a direct risk factor for **hypertensive heart disease** with LVH.
- The patient's elevated blood pressure (140/90 mm Hg) and smoking history are more directly responsible for the cardiac findings.
*Exposure to heavy metals*
- Exposure to certain heavy metals (e.g., lead, cadmium) can be associated with cardiovascular disease, but the patient's job as a machine operator at a solar panel manufacturer does not inherently imply significant exposure to these specific toxins.
- The presenting symptoms and echocardiogram findings are more directly attributable to **hypertension** and **smoking**, which are clearly documented risk factors in this patient.
*Escitalopram intake*
- Escitalopram is an SSRI antidepressant with a generally low cardiotoxicity profile; it is not associated with **left ventricular hypertrophy** or the development of structural heart disease.
- While some medications can affect cardiac function, escitalopram is not a primary risk factor for the observed changes.
*The patient's body mass*
- The patient's BMI can be calculated as 69 kg / (1.69 m)² ≈ 24.1 kg/m², which falls within the **normal weight range** (18.5-24.9 kg/m²).
- Therefore, obesity and its associated cardiac risks (which can contribute to hypertension and LVH) are not applicable to this patient's presentation.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 2: A 41-year-old man presents to his primary care provider because of chest pain with activity for the past 6 months. Past medical history is significant for appendectomy at age 12 and hypertension, and diabetes mellitus type 2 that is poorly controlled. He takes metformin and lisinopril but admits that he is bad at remembering to take them everyday. His father had a heart attack at 41 and 2 stents were placed in his heart. His mother is healthy. He drinks alcohol occasionally and smokes a half of a pack of cigarettes a day. He is a sales executive and describes his work as stressful. Today, the blood pressure is 142/85 and the body mass index (BMI) is 28.5 kg/m2. A coronary angiogram shows > 75% narrowing of the left anterior descending coronary artery. Which of the following is most significant in this patient?
- A. Obesity
- B. Family history
- C. Hypertension
- D. Smoking
- E. Diabetes mellitus (Correct Answer)
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Diabetes mellitus***
- **Diabetes mellitus** is a significant risk factor for **atherosclerosis** and contributes to accelerated progression of **coronary artery disease (CAD)**, often leading to more widespread and severe disease.
- Poorly controlled diabetes can cause **endothelial dysfunction**, increasing oxidative stress and inflammation, which are key processes in **plaque formation** and destabilization.
*Obesity*
- **Obesity** (BMI 28.5 kg/m2) is a risk factor for **CAD** but often acts through associated conditions like **hypertension**, **diabetes**, and **dyslipidemia**.
- While it contributes to overall cardiovascular risk, it is less directly pathogenic than diabetes which independently accelerates **atherosclerosis**.
*Family history*
- The patient's father had a **heart attack at 41**, which is a significant risk factor for **early-onset CAD**.
- However, the patient has multiple modifiable risk factors (smoking, hypertension, diabetes) that are independently and more directly contributing to his current presentation.
*Hypertension*
- **Hypertension** (142/85 mmHg) is a major modifiable risk factor that causes **endothelial damage** and promotes **atherosclerosis**.
- While important, the patient's **poorly controlled diabetes mellitus** often creates a more aggressive environment for plaque formation and progression compared to hypertension alone.
*Smoking*
- **Smoking** is a potent, modifiable risk factor that causes direct vascular injury, promotes **thrombogenesis**, and contributes to **atherosclerosis**.
- Although highly detrimental, smoking is one of several significant risk factors; **diabetes mellitus**, with its systemic metabolic impact, can be considered more broadly influential in the severity and diffuse nature of **CAD**.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 3: A 5-year-old non-verbal child with a history of autism is brought into the emergency department by his grandmother. The patient’s grandmother is concerned her grandchild is being abused at home. The patient lives in an apartment with his mother, step-father, and two older brothers in low-income housing. The department of social services has an open case regarding this patient and his family. The patient is afebrile. His vital signs include: blood pressure 97/62 mm Hg, pulse 175/min, respiratory rate 62/min. Physical examination reveals a malnourished and dehydrated child in dirty and foul-smelling clothes. Which one of the following people is most likely abusing this patient?
- A. Mother (Correct Answer)
- B. Neighbor
- C. Brother
- D. Stranger
- E. Step-father
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Mother***
- **Child abuse** is complex, but the **mother (or primary caregiver)** is often the abuser, especially in cases where the child is non-verbal and has a disability.
- The child's **malnutrition and poor hygiene** point to neglect, which is a form of abuse, and the primary caregiver is responsible for the child's basic needs.
*Neighbor*
- While abuse can occur outside the home, a **neighbor is highly unlikely** to be responsible for the child's chronic neglect, malnutrition, and dehydration, given the living circumstances described.
- **Neighbors typically do not have consistent, unsupervised access** to a child in a manner that would lead to such severe and ongoing neglect.
*Brother*
- Although **siblings can be perpetrators of abuse**, particularly physical or sexual abuse, it is **uncommon for siblings to be responsible for severe neglect** leading to malnutrition and chronic poor hygiene in a younger child.
- This kind of chronic neglect usually points to a **primary caregiver's failure** to provide basic needs.
*Stranger*
- Abuse by a **stranger is relatively rare** compared to abuse by a family member or acquaintance.
- The consistent pattern of **neglect, malnutrition, and poor hygiene** suggests ongoing failure of care within the home environment, not a single or intermittent encounter with a stranger.
*Step-father*
- A **step-father is a recognized risk factor for child abuse**, and he could certainly be involved, especially given the child's vulnerability.
- However, in cases of **chronic neglect and failure to provide basic care**, the primary responsibility often lies with the **biological parent** who is also a co-resident caregiver.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 4: A 44-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by fire and rescue after he was the unrestrained driver in a motor vehicle accident. His wife notes that the patient’s only past medical history is recent development of severe episodes of headache accompanied by sweating and palpitations. She says that these episodes were diagnosed as atypical panic attacks by the patient’s primary care provider, and the patient was started on sertraline and alprazolam. In the trauma bay, the patient’s temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 81/56 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, and respirations are 14/min. He has a Glascow Coma Score (GCS) of 10. He is extremely tender to palpation in the abdomen with rebound and guarding. His skin is cool and clammy, and he has thready peripheral pulses. The patient's Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) exam reveals bleeding in the perisplenic space, and he is taken for emergency laparotomy. He is found to have a ruptured spleen, and his spleen is removed. During manipulation of the bowel, the patient’s temperature is 97.8°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 246/124 mmHg, and pulse is 104/min. The patient is administered intravenous labetalol, but his blood pressure continues to worsen. The patient dies during the surgery.
Which of the following medications would most likely have prevented this outcome?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Propylthiouracil
- C. Phenoxybenzamine (Correct Answer)
- D. Dantrolene
- E. Phentolamine
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Phenoxybenzamine***
- This patient likely had an undiagnosed **pheochromocytoma**, which is a **catecholamine-secreting tumor**. The severe labile hypertension during surgery, unresponsive to labetalol, is a classic sign of a catecholamine surge.
- **Phenoxybenzamine** is an **irreversible alpha-adrenergic blocker** that would have been used pre-operatively to control blood pressure and prevent such a hypertensive crisis by blocking the effects of excess catecholamines.
*Lorazepam*
- **Lorazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** used for anxiety and seizure control. While it might have helped to calm the patient or manage panic, it would not address the underlying physiological cause of the hypertensive crisis associated with an endocrine tumor.
- Its effects on blood pressure are generally mild and would not counteract the massive catecholamine release seen in a pheochromocytoma.
*Propylthiouracil*
- **Propylthiouracil** is an **antithyroid medication** used to treat **hyperthyroidism**. There is no indication of thyroid dysfunction in this patient's presentation.
- The symptoms of palpitations and sweating are common to both pheochromocytoma and hyperthyroidism, but the rapid, extreme hypertensive crisis points away from thyroid storm and towards a catecholamine-secreting tumor.
*Dantrolene*
- **Dantrolene** is a **skeletal muscle relaxant** primarily used to treat and prevent **malignant hyperthermia**.
- There is no evidence in the clinical presentation to suggest malignant hyperthermia as the cause of this patient's deterioration; the extreme hypertension is the primary issue.
*Phentolamine*
- **Phentolamine** is a **reversible alpha-adrenergic blocker** used to manage hypertensive crises, particularly those due to pheochromocytoma or monoamine oxidase inhibitor interactions.
- While phentolamine could be used during a crisis, **phenoxybenzamine** is preferred for *pre-operative preparation* due to its longer-acting and irreversible blockade, preventing the crisis more effectively when surgery is anticipated for pheochromocytoma.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 5: A 66-year-old female with hypertension and a recent history of acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) 6 days previous, treated with percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA), presents with sudden onset chest pain, shortness of breath, diaphoresis, and syncope. Vitals are temperature 37°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, pulse 125/min, respirations 12/min, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air. On physical examination, the patient is pale and unresponsive. Cardiac exam reveals tachycardia and a pronounced holosystolic murmur loudest at the apex and radiates to the back. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly with clear lung fields. ECG is significant for ST elevations in the precordial leads (V2-V4) and low-voltage QRS complexes. Emergency transthoracic echocardiography shows a left ventricular wall motion abnormality along with a significant pericardial effusion. The patient is intubated, and aggressive fluid resuscitation is initiated. What is the next best step in management?
- A. Immediate cardiac catheterization
- B. Immediate transfer to the operating room (Correct Answer)
- C. Emergency pericardiocentesis
- D. Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation
- E. Administer dobutamine 5-10 mcg/kg/min IV
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Immediate transfer to the operating room***
- The patient's presentation with sudden onset chest pain, shortness of breath, profound cardiogenic shock, and a new **holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the back** in the context of a recent **STEMI**, strongly suggests **acute papillary muscle rupture** causing severe mitral regurgitation. This is a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
- The holosystolic murmur at the apex is pathognomonic for acute mitral regurgitation, distinguishing this from ventricular free wall rupture (which would present with tamponade physiology without a murmur).
- The patient requires urgent surgical repair (mitral valve replacement or repair) to address this mechanical complication of **myocardial infarction (MI)**, which is causing severe hemodynamic compromise.
*Immediate cardiac catheterization*
- While cardiac catheterization is essential for diagnosing coronary artery disease and revascularization, in this emergent situation with profound shock and a mechanical complication (papillary muscle rupture), the primary issue is structural cardiac damage requiring surgical repair, not ongoing ischemia alone.
- Delaying surgical intervention for catheterization in this hemodynamically unstable patient would be detrimental and potentially fatal.
*Emergency pericardiocentesis*
- Although there is a **pericardial effusion** on echocardiography, the patient's presentation with a new holosystolic murmur and profound shock after STEMI indicates **papillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation**, not cardiac tamponade.
- The presence of a loud murmur excludes ventricular free wall rupture as the primary cause. The effusion is likely reactive or incidental.
- Pericardiocentesis would not address the underlying mitral valve pathology causing the hemodynamic collapse.
*Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation*
- **Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)** can improve cardiac output and reduce afterload, which may provide temporary hemodynamic support in cardiogenic shock.
- However, in cases of **papillary muscle rupture** with severe acute mitral regurgitation, IABP provides only temporary support and does not fix the underlying structural problem.
- It could be considered as a bridge to surgery, but the definitive treatment is surgical repair, which should be expedited without delay.
*Administer dobutamine 5-10 mcg/kg/min IV*
- **Dobutamine** is an inotrope that increases cardiac contractility. While it might improve cardiac output in some forms of cardiogenic shock, in the setting of **acute severe mitral regurgitation from papillary muscle rupture**, it cannot resolve the structural valvular incompetence.
- Increasing contractility may paradoxically worsen the regurgitant fraction and further compromise forward cardiac output.
- Medical management alone cannot resolve this mechanical complication, necessitating urgent surgical intervention.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 6: A 71-year-old African American man diagnosed with high blood pressure presents to the outpatient clinic. In the clinic, his blood pressure is 161/88 mm Hg with a pulse of 88/min. He has had similar blood pressure measurements in the past, and you initiate captopril. He presents back shortly after initiation with extremely swollen lips, tongue, and face. After captopril is discontinued, what is the most appropriate step for the management of his high blood pressure?
- A. Initiate a beta-blocker
- B. Switch to ramipril
- C. Initiate a thiazide diuretic (Correct Answer)
- D. Reinitiate captopril
- E. Initiate an ARB
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Initiate a thiazide diuretic***
- The patient experienced **angioedema** after taking **captopril**, which is an **ACE inhibitor**. This is a life-threatening adverse effect, and it indicates that all **ACE inhibitors** should be avoided in the future.
- Due to the risk of angioedema, a different class of antihypertensive should be used. Given his African American ethnicity, a **thiazide diuretic** or **calcium channel blocker** would be an appropriate initial choice for monotherapy if hypertension is stage 1, or combination therapy if stage 2 hypertension, otherwise, a second agent, such as a **calcium channel blocker**, can be added.
*Initiate a beta-blocker*
- While beta-blockers are a class of antihypertensive drugs, they are generally not preferred as **first-line monotherapy** for **hypertension**, especially in older African American patients, unless there are specific comorbidities like heart failure or coronary artery disease.
- The most appropriate first-line choice after **ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema** would be a thiazide diuretic or calcium channel blocker, as per ACC/AHA guidelines for primary hypertension.
*Switch to ramipril*
- **Ramipril** is also an **ACE inhibitor**, and the patient experienced **angioedema** with **captopril** (another ACE inhibitor).
- Cross-reactivity and recurrence of angioedema are high with other ACE inhibitors, making this choice extremely dangerous and contraindicated.
*Reinitiate captopril*
- The patient developed **angioedema**, a severe and potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction, to **captopril**.
- Reinitiating the same drug could lead to recurrent, and potentially more severe, angioedema and is therefore absolutely contraindicated.
*Initiate an ARB*
- **Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)**, while a different class from ACE inhibitors, act on the renin-angiotensin system and carry a **small but significant risk of cross-reactivity** leading to angioedema, especially in patients who have experienced it with an ACE inhibitor.
- Given the life-threatening nature of angioedema, it is generally recommended to avoid ARBs if a patient has a history of ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 7: A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was watching a movie 3 hours prior to presentation when she developed severe non-radiating right lower quadrant pain. The pain has worsened since it started. She also had non-bloody non-bilious emesis 1 hour ago and continues to feel nauseated. Her temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. On exam, she has rebound tenderness at McBurney point and a positive Rovsing sign. She is stabilized with intravenous fluids and pain medication and is taken to the operating room to undergo a laparoscopic appendectomy. While in the operating room, the circulating nurse leads the surgical team in a time out to ensure that introductions are made, the patient’s name and date of birth are correct, antibiotics have been given, and the surgical site is marked appropriately. This process is an example of which of the following human factor engineering elements?
- A. Forcing function
- B. Safety culture
- C. Simplification
- D. Standardization (Correct Answer)
- E. Resilience engineering
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Standardization***
- The surgical **time-out** is a prime example of **standardization** in healthcare, as it involves a prescribed, uniform procedure followed in every surgery to enhance safety.
- It ensures critical safety checks—like patient identification, site marking, and antibiotic administration—are consistently performed, thus reducing variability and the potential for errors.
*Forcing function*
- A **forcing function** is a design element that makes it impossible to commit an error, such as a specific connector shape that prevents incorrect device attachment.
- The time-out, while a critical safeguard, still relies on human compliance and does not physically prevent an error from occurring if the steps are not followed.
*Safety culture*
- **Safety culture** refers to the shared beliefs, values, and attitudes that employees have about safety within an organization.
- While a time-out contributes to a strong safety culture, it is a specific process or tool, not the overarching culture itself.
*Simplification*
- **Simplification** aims to reduce complexity in a process to minimize cognitive load and potential for error.
- The time-out adds a structured step rather than simplifying an existing process; its purpose is to ensure all necessary checks are systematically completed.
*Resilience engineering*
- **Resilience engineering** focuses on an organization's ability to anticipate, cope with, and recover from failures, maintaining stability in the face of disruptions.
- While the time-out promotes safety, it primarily addresses error prevention rather than the broader organizational capacity to adapt and recover from system failures.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 8: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 9: A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after he noted the abrupt onset of weakness accompanied by decreased sensation on his left side. His symptoms developed rapidly, peaked within 1 minute, and began to spontaneously resolve 10 minutes later. Upon arrival in the emergency room 40 minutes after the initial onset of symptoms, they had largely resolved. The patient has essential hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and a 50 pack-year smoking history. He also had an ST-elevation myocardial infarction 3 years ago. His brain CT scan without contrast is reported as normal. Carotid duplex ultrasonography reveals 90% stenosis of the right internal carotid. His transthoracic echocardiogram does not reveal any intracardiac abnormalities. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for this patient's condition?
- A. Carotid stenting (Correct Answer)
- B. Warfarin
- C. Low molecular weight heparin
- D. Hypercoagulability studies
- E. Aspirin and clopidogrel
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Carotid stenting***
- The patient experienced a **transient ischemic attack (TIA)** with **90% stenosis of the right internal carotid artery**, which is a high-grade stenosis.
- **Carotid revascularization** is highly recommended for symptomatic patients with **high-grade carotid stenosis** (70–99%) to prevent future strokes.
- Both **carotid endarterectomy (CEA)** and **carotid stenting** are acceptable options. In this elderly patient (79 years) with significant comorbidities (COPD, prior MI, 50 pack-year smoking history), **carotid stenting** may be preferred as it avoids the surgical risks of general anesthesia and neck dissection.
*Warfarin*
- **Warfarin** is primarily used for preventing strokes in patients with **atrial fibrillation** or mechanical heart valves.
- It is **not the first-line treatment** for stroke prevention directly caused by symptomatic carotid artery stenosis.
*Low molecular weight heparin*
- **Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)** is typically used for acute treatment of **deep vein thrombosis** and **pulmonary embolism**, or in certain acute coronary syndromes.
- It does not address the underlying **structural issue of severe carotid stenosis** for long-term stroke prevention.
*Hypercoagulability studies*
- While hypercoagulability can cause strokes, the patient's symptoms are clearly attributed to **severe carotid stenosis**.
- These studies are usually reserved for patients with strokes of **unexplained etiology**, especially younger patients, or those with unusual clot locations.
*Aspirin and clopidogrel*
- **Dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin and clopidogrel)** is often used after a TIA or minor stroke, but typically for a limited duration (e.g., 21-90 days), and it is an adjunct to revascularization in severe carotid stenosis.
- Although important for **secondary stroke prevention**, it does not address the critical **90% carotid stenosis** that warrants revascularization.
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation US Medical PG Question 10: A 66-year-old man with severe aortic stenosis (valve area 0.7 cm², mean gradient 55 mmHg) and Class III heart failure requires emergent hemicolectomy for perforated diverticulitis with peritonitis. He is hemodynamically stable on pressors. Cardiology states he is high-risk for valve replacement but could undergo TAVR in 2-3 weeks. The surgeon believes he needs surgery within 6-8 hours. Evaluate the management approach.
- A. Delay surgery, perform urgent TAVR, then colectomy in 2-3 weeks
- B. Proceed with colectomy under invasive monitoring with cardiology backup (Correct Answer)
- C. Perform colostomy only under local anesthesia, defer resection
- D. Medical management of perforation with antibiotics pending TAVR
- E. Simultaneous TAVR and emergency colectomy in hybrid OR
Preoperative anesthesia evaluation Explanation: ***Proceed with colectomy under invasive monitoring with cardiology backup***
- Perforated diverticulitis with **peritonitis** is an immediate surgical emergency requiring intervention within hours to prevent **sepsis** and death.
- Management of **severe aortic stenosis** in non-cardiac emergencies involves **invasive hemodynamic monitoring** to maintain a fixed cardiac output, adequate **preload**, and stable **systemic vascular resistance**.
*Delay surgery, perform urgent TAVR, then colectomy in 2-3 weeks*
- Waiting 2-3 weeks for a **TAVR** is not feasible for a patient with **peritonitis**, as the risk of mortality from untreated perforation is nearly 100%.
- **TAVR** requires a recovery period and often **antiplatelet therapy**, which would further complicate and delay the necessary abdominal surgery.
*Perform colostomy only under local anesthesia, defer resection*
- **Local anesthesia** is insufficient for managing generalized **peritonitis** and would not allow for the necessary thorough abdominal washout and source control.
- A simple colostomy without **resection** of the perforated segment fails to eliminate the source of **fecal contamination**, leading to persistent sepsis.
*Medical management of perforation with antibiotics pending TAVR*
- Antibiotics alone are inadequate for **Hinchey III/IV peritonitis**; the lack of **source control** results in high mortality regardless of cardiac status.
- The patient is already on **pressors**, indicating that the septic process is advanced and requires mechanical/surgical correction rather than conservative medical therapy.
*Simultaneous TAVR and emergency colectomy in hybrid OR*
- Combining a **clean-contaminated** or dirty surgery (colectomy) with a sterile cardiac procedure (TAVR) carries an unacceptable risk of **prosthetic valve infection**.
- The physiological stress of both procedures simultaneously would likely exceed the patient's **hemodynamic compensatory** mechanisms in the setting of acute sepsis.
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