Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Fluid and electrolyte management. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 1: A 55-year-old man with a history of IV drug abuse presents to the emergency department with an altered mental status. He was found unconscious in the park by police. His temperature is 100.0°F (37.8°C), blood pressure is 87/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for multiple scars and abscesses in the antecubital fossa. His laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 105 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 19 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 95 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s blood pressure and acid-base status?
- A. Ringer lactate (Correct Answer)
- B. Dextrose 5% normal saline
- C. Sodium bicarbonate
- D. Hypertonic saline
- E. Normal saline
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***Ringer lactate***
- This patient presents with **hypotension** (BP 87/48 mmHg) and **metabolic acidosis** (HCO3- 19 mEq/L, with an elevated anion gap if calculated). Ringer lactate is a **balanced crystalloid solution** that contains lactate, which is metabolized to bicarbonate in the liver, helping to correct metabolic acidosis while providing fluid resuscitation.
- The patient's history of **IV drug abuse**, fever, and altered mental status suggests a possible underlying infection (e.g., sepsis), which often presents with hypotension and metabolic acidosis requiring aggressive fluid resuscitation with a balanced solution.
*Dextrose 5% normal saline*
- While it provides fluids and some sodium, Dextrose 5% normal saline contains **free water**, which is not ideal for a patient with hypotension and may exacerbate cerebral edema if present.
- It does not contain bicarbonate precursors and therefore would not directly address the patient's **metabolic acidosis**.
*Sodium bicarbonate*
- Administering sodium bicarbonate directly might be considered for severe metabolic acidosis, but **fluid resuscitation with a balanced solution** like Ringer lactate is usually the initial step to address both hypotension and acidosis.
- Excessive or rapid administration of sodium bicarbonate can lead to **alkalosis**, worsening intracellular acidosis, and fluid overload.
*Hypertonic saline*
- **Hypertonic saline** is primarily used to treat severe **hyponatremia** or to reduce intracranial pressure.
- It would not be appropriate for a patient with normal sodium levels and hypotension, as it could lead to further dehydration or worsen hypernatremia.
*Normal saline*
- **Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)** is an isotonic crystalloid often used for fluid resuscitation, but it has a high chloride content.
- Large volumes of normal saline can worsen or induce **hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis**, which would be detrimental to a patient who already has metabolic acidosis.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 2: An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with severe dyspnea, fatigue, and vomiting. His mother reports that he has been lethargic for the last several days with an increase in urine output. She thinks he may even be losing weight, despite eating and drinking more than normal for the last couple weeks. Laboratory results are notable for glucose of 440, potassium of 5.8, pH of 7.14 and HCO3 of 17. After administrating IV fluids and insulin, which of the following would you expect?
- A. Increase in anion gap
- B. Increase in serum glucose
- C. Decrease in serum potassium (Correct Answer)
- D. Decrease in pH
- E. Decrease in serum bicarbonate
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***Decrease in serum potassium***
- **Insulin therapy** drives **potassium** into cells, as it stimulates the **Na+/K+ ATPase pump**, leading to a decrease in serum potassium levels.
- The initial **hyperkalemia** (potassium 5.8) is due to extracellular fluid shifts and acidosis, which will correct as **DKA** resolves with treatment.
*Increase in anion gap*
- The presented patient has **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**, which is characterized by a **high anion gap metabolic acidosis** (evidenced by low pH and bicarbonate).
- Treatment with **IV fluids and insulin** aims to resolve the ketoacidosis, which would consequently lead to a **decrease** in the **anion gap**, not an increase.
*Increase in serum glucose*
- The primary goal of **IV fluids and insulin** in **DKA** is to lower the critically high **serum glucose** levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells and inhibiting hepatic glucose production.
- Therefore, one would expect a **decrease** in serum glucose, not an increase, as treatment progresses.
*Decrease in pH*
- The patient's initial pH of 7.14 indicates **acidosis**, a hallmark of **DKA**.
- **Insulin therapy** and **fluid resuscitation** will resolve the ketoacidosis, leading to an **increase** in **pH** towards normal, not a further decrease.
*Decrease in serum bicarbonate*
- The patient already presents with **decreased serum bicarbonate** (17 mEq/L), which is consistent with **metabolic acidosis** due to DKA.
- Treatment with **fluids and insulin** will correct the acidosis by reducing ketone production, leading to an **increase** in **serum bicarbonate**, not a further decrease.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 3: A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband who found her lying unconscious at home. He says that the patient has been complaining of progressively worsening weakness and confusion for the past week. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, systemic lupus erythematosus, and trigeminal neuralgia. Her medications include metoprolol, valsartan, prednisone, and carbamazepine. On admission, blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse rate is 100 /min, respiratory rate is 17/min, and temperature is 36.5°C (97.7ºF). She regained consciousness while on the way to the hospital but is still drowsy and disoriented. Physical examination is normal. Finger-stick glucose level is 110 mg/dl. Other laboratory studies show:
Na+ 120 mEq/L (136—145 mEq/L)
K+ 3.5 mEq/L (3.5—5.0 mEq/L)
CI- 107 mEq/L (95—105 mEq/L)
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (0.6—1.2 mg/dL)
Serum osmolality 250 mOsm/kg (275—295 mOsm/kg)
Urine Na+ 70 mEq/L
Urine osmolality 350 mOsm/kg
She is admitted to the hospital for further management. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient's condition?
- A. Rapid resuscitation with hypertonic saline (Correct Answer)
- B. Fluid restriction
- C. Tolvaptan
- D. Lithium
- E. Desmopressin
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: **Rapid resuscitation with hypertonic saline**
- The patient presents with **severe hyponatremia** (120 mEq/L) and neurological symptoms (drowsiness, disorientation, history of unconsciousness), indicating a need for **urgent correction** to prevent cerebral edema.
- **Hypertonic saline** (e.g., 3%) is indicated for severe symptomatic hyponatremia to rapidly increase serum sodium levels and reduce brain swelling.
*Fluid restriction*
- **Fluid restriction** is a conservative measure appropriate for **mild to moderate asymptomatic hyponatremia** or as an adjunct in SIADH management once severe symptoms are controlled.
- It would be too slow to address the patient's acute neurological symptoms and severe hyponatremia, potentially delaying critical treatment.
*Tolvaptan*
- **Tolvaptan** is a **vasopressin receptor antagonist** used in the treatment of **euvolemic or hypervolemic hyponatremia**, often in the context of SIADH.
- Its use is generally reserved for patients who have not responded to fluid restriction and is **contraindicated** in patients with severe symptoms or to rapidly correct severe hyponatremia due to the risk of overly rapid correction and osmotic demyelination syndrome.
*Lithium*
- **Lithium** is primarily used as a **mood stabilizer** in psychiatric conditions, particularly bipolar disorder.
- It can cause **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus** as a side effect and is not a treatment for hyponatremia.
*Desmopressin*
- **Desmopressin** is a synthetic analog of **antidiuretic hormone (ADH)** and is used to treat **diabetes insipidus** or nocturnal enuresis.
- Administering desmopressin would **worsen hyponatremia** by promoting water reabsorption, making it an inappropriate choice for this patient.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 4: An 8-year-old boy is shifted to a post-surgical floor following neck surgery. The surgeon has restricted his oral intake for the next 24 hours. He does not have diarrhea, vomiting, or dehydration. His calculated fluid requirement is 1500 mL/day. However, he receives 2000 mL of intravenous isotonic fluids over 24 hours. Which of the following physiological parameters in the boy’s circulatory system is most likely to be increased?
- A. Interstitial oncotic pressure
- B. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
- C. Capillary wall permeability
- D. Capillary oncotic pressure
- E. Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Correct Answer)
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***Capillary hydrostatic pressure***
- Giving 2000 mL of intravenous isotonic fluids when the calculated requirement is 1500 mL/day leads to a **positive fluid balance** and **fluid overload**.
- This excess fluid directly increases the **intravascular volume**, thereby raising the **capillary hydrostatic pressure**, which pushes fluid out of the capillaries.
*Interstitial oncotic pressure*
- This pressure is primarily determined by the **protein concentration** in the interstitial fluid.
- While fluid overload can dilute interstitial proteins, it generally does not directly increase interstitial oncotic pressure; rather, it might decrease it due to fluid movement.
*Interstitial hydrostatic pressure*
- As fluid moves out of the capillaries due to increased capillary hydrostatic pressure, the **interstitial hydrostatic pressure** will also increase.
- However, the primary driving force for this change, and thus the most direct consequence of fluid overload, is the increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure.
*Capillary wall permeability*
- This parameter refers to the ease with which substances, including fluid and proteins, can cross the capillary wall.
- Fluid overload does not typically affect **capillary wall permeability** unless there is an underlying condition causing inflammation or damage to the capillary endothelium.
*Capillary oncotic pressure*
- This pressure is mainly determined by the **protein concentration** within the capillaries.
- In a state of fluid overload with isotonic fluids, the plasma proteins are diluted, leading to a **decrease** in capillary oncotic pressure, not an increase.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 5: A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after 3 consecutive days of diarrhea, fatigue and weakness. His stool has been soft and mucoid, with no blood stains. The patient just came back from a volunteer mission in Guatemala, where he remained asymptomatic. His personal medical history is unremarkable. Today his blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, respiratory rate is 19/min, and his body temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). On physical exam, he has sunken eyes, dry mucosa, mild diffuse abdominal tenderness, and hyperactive bowel sounds. Initial laboratory tests are shown below:
Serum creatinine (SCr) 1.8 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 50 mg/dL
Serum sodium 132 mEq/L
Serum potassium 3.5 mEq/L
Serum chloride 102 mEq/L
Which of the following phenomena would you expect in this patient?
- A. Low urine osmolality, high FeNa+, high urine Na+
- B. High urine osmolality, high fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa+), high urine Na+
- C. Low urine osmolality, high FeNa+, low urine Na+
- D. High urine osmolality, low FeNa+, low urine Na+ (Correct Answer)
- E. Low urine osmolality, low FeNa+, high urine Na+
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***High urine osmolality, low FeNa+, low urine Na+***
- The patient exhibits signs of **dehydration** (hypotension, tachycardia, sunken eyes, dry mucosa) and **acute kidney injury (AKI)** with elevated BUN and creatinine, particularly a **BUN/creatinine ratio of 27.8** (50/1.8). These findings point to **prerenal AKI** due to hypovolemia from diarrhea.
- In prerenal AKI, the kidneys attempt to conserve water and sodium to restore intravascular volume. This leads to **increased ADH** secretion and **aldosterone**, resulting in **high urine osmolality** (concentrated urine), **low fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa+)** (<1%), and **low urine sodium concentration** (<20 mEq/L).
*Low urine osmolality, high FeNa+, high urine Na+*
- This pattern is typical of **acute tubular necrosis (ATN)**, an intrinsic cause of AKI, where tubular damage impairs the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and reabsorb sodium.
- The context of dehydration and prerenal state makes ATN less likely as the initial primary pathology compared to the body's compensatory mechanisms during hypovolemia.
*High urine osmolality, high fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa+), high urine Na+*
- This combination is generally contradictory. High urine osmolality suggests water conservation, while high FeNa+ and urine Na+ indicate sodium wasting, which would typically be seen in diuretic use or specific renal tubular disorders, not uncompensated hypovolemia.
- In prerenal AKI, the body actively reabsorbs sodium to expand volume, leading to low rather than high FeNa+ and urine Na+.
*Low urine osmolality, high FeNa+, low urine Na+*
- This combination is inconsistent. High FeNa+ and low urine Na+ do not usually occur together in a state of hypovolemia. If FeNa+ is high, it implies significant sodium excretion, which would typically be accompanied by higher urine Na+.
- Low urine osmolality also suggests impaired concentrating ability, which is not characteristic of the compensatory mechanisms in prerenal AKI.
*Low urine osmolality, low FeNa+, high urine Na+*
- This combination is also contradictory. Low urine osmolality with low FeNa+ and high urine Na+ does not align with typical kidney responses to dehydration or specific AKI etiologies.
- Low FeNa+ and high urine Na+ are conflicting, as low FeNa+ implies sodium conservation, while high urine Na+ indicates sodium excretion.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 6: A 71-year-old male presents to the emergency department after having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His son reports that he does not have a history of seizures but has had increasing confusion and weakness over the last several weeks. An electrolyte panel reveals a sodium level of 120 mEq/L and a serum osmolality of 248 mOsm/kg. His urine is found to have a high urine osmolality. His temperature is 37° C (98.6° F), respirations are 15/min, pulse is 67/min, and blood pressure is 122/88 mm Hg. On examination he is disoriented, his pupils are round and reactive to light and accommodation and his mucous membranes are moist. His heart has a regular rhythm without murmurs, his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally, the abdomen is soft, and his extremities have no edema but his muscular strength is 3/5 bilaterally. There is hyporeflexia of all four extremities. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
- A. Hereditary diabetes insipidus
- B. Sheehan’s syndrome
- C. Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) (Correct Answer)
- D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
- E. Lithium use
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)***
- This patient presents with **hypotonic hyponatremia** (serum Na 120 mEq/L, osmolality 248 mOsm/kg) in the setting of a **high urine osmolality**, indicating the kidney is inappropriately concentrating urine despite low plasma osmolality.
- The symptoms of **confusion, weakness, generalized tonic-clonic seizure**, and **hyporeflexia** are consistent with severe hyponatremia affecting neurological function.
*Hereditary diabetes insipidus*
- This condition is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to **polyuria** and **polydipsia**, and often hypernatremia, which is the opposite of this patient's presentation.
- Patients typically have **low urine osmolality** and high serum osmolality due to excessive water loss.
*Sheehan's syndrome*
- This syndrome is a cause of **hypopituitarism** due to postpartum hemorrhage, leading to deficiencies in various pituitary hormones, including ADH if the posterior pituitary is affected.
- ADH deficiency would lead to **diabetes insipidus-like symptoms** (high serum osmolality, low urine osmolality, polyuria) and not the hyponatremia seen in this patient unless there's profound adrenal insufficiency (cortisol deficiency), but the primary lab findings contradict ADH excess.
*Diabetic ketoacidosis*
- This condition is characterized by **hyperglycemia**, metabolic acidosis, and ketonemia, often leading to polyuria and polydipsia, and can cause **hypernatremia** or pseudohyponatremia.
- The patient's blood pressure, heart rate, and lack of symptoms like Kussmaul respirations or fruity breath do not support DKA, and his sodium is low, not high.
*Lithium use*
- Chronic lithium use can cause **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus** by interfering with ADH action in the renal tubules, leading to an inability to concentrate urine.
- This would result in **polyuria, polydipsia**, and potentially hypernatremia and low urine osmolality, which is inconsistent with the patient's findings of hyponatremia and high urine osmolality.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 7: Three hours after undergoing open proctocolectomy for ulcerative colitis, a 42-year-old male complains of abdominal pain. The pain is localized to the periumbilical and hypogastric regions. A total of 20 mL of urine has drained from his urinary catheter since the end of the procedure. Temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 92/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 99%. Physical examination shows a 20 cm vertical midline incision and an ileostomy in the right lower quadrant. There is no fluid drainage from the surgical wounds. The urinary catheter flushes easily and is without obstruction. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show a blood urea nitrogen of 30 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Administer tamsulosin
- B. Administer intravenous furosemide
- C. Obtain an abdominal CT
- D. Start ciprofloxacin
- E. Administer intravenous fluids (Correct Answer)
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***Administer intravenous fluids***
- The patient's **oliguria** (20 mL urine over 3 hours, ~7 mL/hour) post-surgery, elevated **BUN (30 mg/dL)**, and **creatinine (1.3 mg/dL)** with a **BUN:Cr ratio >20:1** suggest **prerenal acute kidney injury** due to **hypovolemia**.
- Post-operative fluid losses from **third-spacing**, blood loss, and insensible losses commonly cause hypovolemia after major abdominal surgery.
- **Intravenous fluids** are the most appropriate initial step to restore intravascular volume and improve renal perfusion.
*Administer tamsulosin*
- **Tamsulosin** is an alpha-blocker used to relax smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, primarily for **urinary retention** due to benign prostatic hyperplasia.
- This patient's oliguria is due to **prerenal azotemia** from hypovolemia, not prostatic obstruction, and the catheter flushes easily without obstruction.
*Administer intravenous furosemide*
- **Furosemide** is a loop diuretic that increases urine output, but administering it in the context of **prerenal acute kidney injury** can worsen hypovolemia and further compromise renal function.
- Diuretics are generally contraindicated in oliguria due to hypovolemia and should only be considered after volume resuscitation.
*Obtain an abdominal CT*
- While an abdominal CT can diagnose surgical complications, there are no immediate signs of a surgical emergency like **anastomotic leak** or **bowel obstruction**.
- Addressing the likely **hypovolemia** is more urgent and should precede further imaging in this scenario.
*Start ciprofloxacin*
- The patient does not show signs of infection, such as fever or localized signs of bacterial peritonitis, making **antibiotics** like ciprofloxacin inappropriate as the initial management step.
- The elevated BUN and creatinine are more indicative of volume depletion than infection.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 8: Three days after being admitted to the hospital because of a fall from the roof of a two-story building, a 27-year-old man is being monitored in the intensive care unit. On arrival, the patient was somnolent and not oriented to person, place, or time. A CT scan of the head showed an epidural hemorrhage that was 45 cm3 in size and a midline shift of 7 mm. Emergency surgery was performed with craniotomy and hematoma evacuation on the day of admission. Perioperatively, a bleeding vessel was identified and ligated. Postoperatively, the patient was transferred to the intensive care unit and placed on a ventilator. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 67/min, and blood pressure is 117/78 mm Hg. The ventilator is set at a FiO2 of 55%, tidal volume of 520 mL, and positive end-expiratory pressure of 5.0 cm H2O. In addition to intravenous administration of fluids, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's nutrition?
- A. Enteral feeding via nasogastric tube (Correct Answer)
- B. Oral feeding
- C. Keep patient NPO
- D. Total parenteral nutrition
- E. Enteral feeding using a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***Enteral feeding via nasogastric tube***
- This patient has been **somnolent** and on a ventilator for 3 days after a significant head injury, indicating a prolonged period without oral intake and an inability to protect his airway for oral feeding. **Early enteral nutrition** via a nasogastric tube is preferred in critically ill patients, especially those with head injuries, as it helps maintain gut integrity and reduces complications compared to parenteral nutrition.
- The patient's **hemodynamic stability** (blood pressure and pulse are within a reasonable range for a ventilated patient) suggests he can tolerate enteral feeding, and there are no signs of gut ischemia or ileus that would contraindicate it.
*Enteral feeding using a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube*
- While a PEG tube provides enteral nutrition, it is typically reserved for patients requiring **long-term enteral support** (usually more than 4-6 weeks) or those who cannot tolerate a nasogastric tube.
- Given that it has only been 3 days post-injury, a **less invasive method** like a nasogastric tube is initially preferred.
*Oral feeding*
- The patient is described as **somnolent** and on a ventilator, meaning he is not awake enough or able to protect his airway to safely receive oral feeding.
- Attempting oral feeding in this state carries a high risk of **aspiration pneumonia**.
*Keep patient NPO*
- Keeping the patient NPO (nil per os) for an extended period in critical illness is associated with several negative outcomes, including **gut mucosal atrophy, increased infection risk**, and poorer clinical outcomes.
- After 3 days, initiating nutritional support is crucial to prevent these complications.
*Total parenteral nutrition*
- **Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)** is generally considered a last resort when the gastrointestinal tract is non-functional or enteral feeding is contraindicated.
- TPN is associated with a **higher risk of complications**, such as central line infections, liver dysfunction, and metabolic disturbances, compared to enteral feeding.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 9: A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of progressive weight loss for 3 months. Physical examination shows jaundice and a nontender, palpable gallbladder. A CT scan of the abdomen shows an ill-defined mass in the pancreatic head. She is scheduled for surgery to resect the pancreatic head, distal stomach, duodenum, early jejunum, gallbladder, and common bile duct and anastomose the jejunum to the remaining stomach, pancreas, and bile duct. Following surgery, this patient is at the greatest risk for which of the following?
- A. Wide-based gait
- B. Calcium oxalate kidney stones
- C. Microcytic anemia (Correct Answer)
- D. Increased bile production
- E. Hypercoagulable state
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***Microcytic anemia***
- The surgical procedure described is a **Whipple procedure**, which involves partial gastrectomy and duodenectomy. This significant alteration to the upper GI tract can lead to **iron malabsorption**, as iron is primarily absorbed in the duodenum and proximal jejunum, and gastric acid is crucial for converting dietary iron to its absorbable ferrous form.
- **Iron deficiency** is the most common cause of **microcytic anemia**, characterized by small, pale red blood cells, due to impaired hemoglobin synthesis as a result of insufficient iron availability for the heme component.
*Wide-based gait*
- A **wide-based gait** is typically associated with **ataxia** or conditions affecting cerebellar function or proprioception, which are not direct complications of a Whipple procedure.
- While nutritional deficiencies can occur post-surgery, a wide-based gait specifically points to neurological impairment rather than postsurgical metabolic issues.
*Calcium oxalate kidney stones*
- **Calcium oxalate kidney stones** are often associated with conditions causing **hypercalciuria** or malabsorption of fat, which leads to increased oxalate absorption in the colon. While fat malabsorption can occur after a Whipple due to pancreatic insufficiency, dietary oxalate intake and hydration status are generally more significant determinants of stone formation.
- The surgery itself does not directly increase the risk for calcium oxalate kidney stones more than other listed complications.
*Increased bile production*
- A Whipple procedure involves the removal of the **gallbladder** and rerouting of the **bile duct** directly into the jejunum. This does not lead to increased bile production, but rather a different regulation and flow of bile.
- In fact, the absence of the gallbladder means there is no storage for bile, leading to a continuous, unregulated flow of bile into the small intestine, potentially contributing to maldigestion or diarrhea, but not "increased production."
*Hypercoagulable state*
- While surgery, including a Whipple procedure, can transiently increase the risk of a **hypercoagulable state** (e.g., deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism) in the immediate postoperative period due to immobility and tissue injury, this risk is generally mitigated with prophylactic anticoagulation.
- The question asks about the **greatest risk** post-surgery, and long-term complications related to altered anatomy and malabsorption, such as microcytic anemia, are more direct and sustained consequences unique to the extent of the resection.
Fluid and electrolyte management US Medical PG Question 10: Twelve days after undergoing total pancreatectomy for chronic pancreatitis, a 62-year-old woman notices oozing from her abdominal wound. She first noticed fluid draining 8 hours ago. Her postoperative course has been complicated by persistent hypotension requiring intravenous fluids and decreased ability to tolerate food. She has type 1 diabetes mellitus and glaucoma. The patient smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years, but quit 2 years ago. She drank a pint of vodka every day starting at age 20 and quit when she was 35 years old. Her current medications include subcutaneous insulin and timolol eye drops. She appears comfortable. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 95/min, and blood pressure is 104/78 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft and mildly tender to palpation. There is a 12-cm vertical wound beginning in the epigastrium and extending caudally. 25 mL of a viscous, dark green substance is draining from the middle of the wound. There is a small amount of dried fluid on the patient's hospital gown. The wound edges are nonerythematous. There is no pus draining from the wound. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 38%
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 135 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
K+ 3.4 mEq/L
HCO3- 23 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 13 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Glucose 190 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Intravenous antibiotic therapy
- B. Surgical exploration of the abdomen
- C. Total parenteral nutrition and ostomy pouch (Correct Answer)
- D. Wound debridement and irrigation
- E. Oral food intake and intravenous fluid administration
Fluid and electrolyte management Explanation: ***Total parenteral nutrition and ostomy pouch***
- The patient, having undergone total pancreatectomy, is experiencing an **enterocutaneous fistula** from an anastomotic leak (e.g., gastrojejunostomy or choledochojejunostomy), presenting as viscid, dark green drainage from the wound.
- An **ostomy pouch** will protect the skin from digestive enzymes and allow quantification of output, while **total parenteral nutrition (TPN)** provides bowel rest, promoting spontaneous healing of the fistula.
- This conservative approach is appropriate given the patient's **hemodynamic stability** and **absence of signs of sepsis or peritonitis**.
*Intravenous antibiotic therapy*
- While infection is a concern, there are **no clear signs of systemic infection** (e.g., fever, leukocytosis, erythema, purulent drainage) in this patient.
- **Antibiotics alone** would not address the underlying anatomical leak and its resulting drainage.
*Surgical exploration of the abdomen*
- **Surgical exploration** is typically reserved for cases with signs of **sepsis**, **peritonitis**, **uncontrolled leak**, or failure of conservative management.
- Given the patient is hemodynamically stable without signs of severe infection or acute abdomen, a **conservative approach** is preferred initially.
*Wound debridement and irrigation*
- **Wound care** is important, but debridement and irrigation alone will **not stop the internal leakage** of enteric content from the gastrointestinal tract.
- The primary issue is an internal fistula, not a localized wound infection requiring debridement.
*Oral food intake and intravenous fluid administration*
- **Oral food intake** would exacerbate the fistula by stimulating digestive secretions and increasing enteric output, hindering natural healing.
- While **intravenous fluids** are used for hydration and electrolyte balance, they do not address the fistula, and **bowel rest is crucial** for spontaneous closure.
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