Drain management US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Drain management. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 1: The surgical equipment used during a craniectomy is sterilized using pressurized steam at 121°C for 15 minutes. Reuse of these instruments can cause transmission of which of the following pathogens?
- A. Non-enveloped viruses
- B. Sporulating bacteria
- C. Prions (Correct Answer)
- D. Enveloped viruses
- E. Yeasts
Drain management Explanation: ***Prions***
- Prions are **abnormally folded proteins** that are highly resistant to standard sterilization methods like steam autoclaving at 121°C, making them a risk for transmission through reused surgical instruments.
- They cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) like **Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease**, where even trace amounts can be highly infectious.
*Non-enveloped viruses*
- Non-enveloped viruses are generally **more resistant to heat and disinfectants** than enveloped viruses but are typically inactivated by recommended steam sterilization protocols.
- Standard autoclaving conditions are effective in destroying most non-enveloped viruses.
*Sporulating bacteria*
- **Bacterial spores**, such as those from *Clostridium* or *Bacillus*, are known for their high resistance to heat and chemicals, but are usually **inactivated by steam sterilization at 121°C** for 15 minutes.
- This method is specifically designed to kill bacterial spores effectively.
*Enveloped viruses*
- Enveloped viruses are the **least resistant to heat and chemical disinfectants** due to their lipid envelope.
- They are readily **inactivated by standard steam sterilization** at 121°C.
*Yeasts*
- **Yeasts** are eukaryotic microorganisms that are typically **susceptible to heat sterilization**.
- They are effectively killed by typical steam autoclaving conditions used for surgical instruments.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 2: A 56-year-old previously healthy woman with no other past medical history is post-operative day one from an open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured right radius and ulna after a motor vehicle accident. What is one of the primary ways of preventing postoperative pneumonia in this patient?
- A. Shallow breathing exercises
- B. Incentive spirometry (Correct Answer)
- C. Outpatient oral antibiotics
- D. Hyperbaric oxygenation
- E. In-hospital intravenous antibiotics
Drain management Explanation: ***Incentive spirometry***
- **Incentive spirometry** is a cornerstone of postoperative care, actively encouraging patients to take slow, deep breaths. This expands the lungs and prevents the collapse of alveoli, reducing the risk of **atelectasis** and subsequent **pneumonia**.
- Its effectiveness lies in promoting lung aeration and clearing secretions, which are crucial after anesthesia and surgery, especially in patients with reduced mobility or pain.
*Shallow breathing exercises*
- **Shallow breathing** is insufficient for adequate lung expansion and can actually contribute to **atelectasis** and the pooling of secretions in the lungs.
- Effective pulmonary hygiene requires **deep breaths** to maximize alveolar recruitment and prevent respiratory complications.
*Outpatient oral antibiotics*
- **Prophylactic antibiotics** are typically given around the time of surgery to prevent surgical site infections, not primarily to prevent postoperative pneumonia in an outpatient setting.
- Administering antibiotics without a diagnosed infection can lead to **antibiotic resistance** and is not a standard practice for preventing pneumonia unless a specific risk factor or existing infection is identified.
*Hyperbaric oxygenation*
- **Hyperbaric oxygenation** involves breathing 100% oxygen in a pressurized chamber and is used for conditions like **decompression sickness**, non-healing wounds, or severe infections.
- It is not a standard or primary method for preventing postoperative pneumonia, as its mechanism of action is unrelated to common pulmonary hygiene techniques.
*In-hospital intravenous antibiotics*
- While antibiotics can treat pneumonia, their routine, **prophylactic use** intravenously in-hospital solely for preventing postoperative pneumonia is generally unwarranted and can contribute to **antibiotic resistance**.
- Antibiotics are indicated if there is evidence of an active infection, but the primary prevention of pneumonia focuses on mechanical lung expansion and airway clearance.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 3: A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friends 30 minutes after falling down a flight of stairs. His friends report that they were at a college party, where he drank large amounts of alcohol. He is aggressive and restless. Examination shows tenderness to palpation and swelling of his right lower leg. An x-ray of the right leg shows a lower tibial shaft fracture. The physician recommends overnight observation and surgery the following morning. The patient refuses the suggested treatment and requests immediate discharge. Otherwise, he says, he will call his lawyer and sue the entire medical staff involved in his care. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?
- A. You can leave the hospital after signing a self-discharge against medical advice form.
- B. If you don't consent to treatment, I'll be forced to obtain consent from your parents.
- C. I understand that you want to go home, but I'll have to keep you here as long as you are intoxicated. (Correct Answer)
- D. Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking?
- E. I can't force you to stay here, but I'll have to inform your dean of this incident.
Drain management Explanation: ***I understand that you want to go home, but I'll have to keep you here as long as you are intoxicated.***
- An **intoxicated patient may lack decision-making capacity** to refuse medically necessary treatment for a serious injury.
- Before accepting a refusal of treatment or allowing AMA discharge, physicians must **assess the patient's capacity** to make informed decisions.
- Signs of impaired capacity include **acute intoxication, aggressive behavior, and restlessness**, all present in this patient.
- Temporarily holding a patient who lacks capacity and has a serious medical condition requiring urgent care is **legally and ethically justified** to prevent harm—this is NOT false imprisonment.
- Once the patient regains capacity (i.e., sobers up), his decision-making ability can be reassessed, and if he still refuses, AMA discharge can be offered.
*You can leave the hospital after signing a self-discharge against medical advice form.*
- While competent adults have the right to refuse treatment and leave AMA, this option is **premature** because it fails to address the patient's **impaired decision-making capacity** due to acute intoxication.
- A valid refusal requires **capacity to understand the risks and consequences** of leaving—offering AMA discharge without capacity assessment is inappropriate and potentially negligent.
*I can't force you to stay here, but I'll have to inform your dean of this incident.*
- Threatening to inform the patient's dean is a **breach of confidentiality** and an unprofessional response.
- Healthcare providers are bound by **patient confidentiality (HIPAA)**, and sharing this information without consent is unethical and illegal.
*If you don't consent to treatment, I'll be forced to obtain consent from your parents.*
- Since the patient is a **competent adult (age 22)**, his parents cannot give or withhold consent for his medical treatment.
- Parental consent is only required for **minors** or adults who have been legally declared **incompetent** through a court process.
*Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking?*
- While addressing alcohol use disorder is important, asking a **CAGE screening question** in this acute, high-stress situation is **inappropriate timing** and poor prioritization.
- The immediate priority is addressing the patient's **acute medical needs and impaired capacity**, not initiating a substance abuse screening.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 4: A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of recurrent abdominal pain for 1 week. The pain is worse after eating and he has vomited twice during this period. He was hospitalized twice for acute pancreatitis during the past year; the latest being 2 months ago. There is no family history of serious illness. His only medication is a vitamin supplement. He has a history of drinking five beers a day for several years but quit 1 month ago. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 98/min and blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg. He appears uncomfortable. Examination shows epigastric tenderness to palpation; there is no guarding or rebound. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a 6-cm low attenuation oval collection with a well-defined wall contiguous with the body of the pancreas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
- B. CT-guided percutaneous drainage (Correct Answer)
- C. Middle segment pancreatectomy
- D. Laparoscopic surgical drainage
- E. Distal pancreatectomy
Drain management Explanation: ***CT-guided percutaneous drainage***
- The patient presents with a **symptomatic pancreatic pseudocyst** (recurrent abdominal pain, vomiting, epigastric tenderness) that is 6 cm and has a well-defined wall.
- Given the patient's symptoms and the size/maturity of the pseudocyst, **CT-guided percutaneous drainage** is the most appropriate initial management to relieve symptoms and drain the fluid.
*Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography*
- **MRCP** is primarily used to visualize the **biliary and pancreatic ductal systems**, often to identify stones, strictures, or anatomical variations.
- While it can provide more detailed imaging of the pancreatic ducts, it is not a treatment for a symptomatic pseudocyst and would not relieve the patient's immediate pain and vomiting.
*Middle segment pancreatectomy*
- **Pancreatectomies** are **surgical resections** of part or all of the pancreas, typically reserved for tumors, severe necrosis, or intractable pain from chronic pancreatitis not amenable to less invasive treatments.
- This is an **overly aggressive surgical intervention** for a pseudocyst that can likely be managed with drainage.
*Laparoscopic surgical drainage*
- **Laparoscopic internal drainage** (e.g., cystogastrostomy) is an option for mature, symptomatic pseudocysts, but it is typically performed after a period of observation and if percutaneous drainage is unsuccessful or not feasible.
- Percutaneous drainage is generally preferred as the **initial less invasive approach** for managing symptomatic pseudocysts.
*Distal pancreatectomy*
- **Distal pancreatectomy** involves the surgical removal of the body and tail of the pancreas and is indicated for conditions such as tumors localized in these regions or for specific cases of chronic pancreatitis.
- It is an **aggressive surgical procedure** and not the first-line treatment for a symptomatic pancreatic pseudocyst, especially if less invasive options are available.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 5: A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after drinking a bottle of drain cleaner. It is unknown how much the child drank. She has a past medical history of Down syndrome and obesity. The patient's vitals are unremarkable. Physical exam is notable for a child in no acute distress. She is tolerating her oral secretions and interactive. Inspection of the oropharynx is unremarkable. Which of the following is appropriate management of this patient?
- A. Dilute hydrochloric acid
- B. Polyethylene glycol
- C. Observation
- D. Intubation
- E. Endoscopy (Correct Answer)
Drain management Explanation: ***Endoscopy***
- Due to the **inherent danger of caustic ingestion**, regardless of initial symptoms, **esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)** is the gold standard for assessing the extent and severity of injury to the upper gastrointestinal tract. This procedure is crucial within the first 12-24 hours to guide further management.
- While the patient is asymptomatic, **caustic injuries** can progress and develop into strictures or perforations even without immediate obvious symptoms, making direct visualization essential.
*Dilute hydrochloric acid*
- **Neutralizing alkalis with acids** (or vice-versa) is contraindicated as it can cause an **exothermic reaction**, leading to further thermal injury and worsening the damage.
- Chemical neutralization can also produce gas, which increases the **risk of esophageal perforation**.
*Polyethylene glycol*
- **Polyethylene glycol (PEG)** is an osmotic laxative used for **bowel preparation** or as a treatment for constipation but has no role in the management of caustic ingestion.
- It would not remove the caustic substance from the esophagus or stomach, nor would it mitigate the chemical damage.
*Observation*
- Despite being asymptomatic initially, **caustic ingestions** can lead to delayed and severe complications such as **stricture formation**, perforation, and mediastinitis.
- **Asymptomatic presentation** does not rule out significant internal injury, particularly because the full extent of the ingestion is unknown, making observation alone an unsafe approach.
*Intubation*
- While airway compromise is a potential complication of caustic ingestion, the patient is currently in no acute distress and is tolerating oral secretions, indicating a **patent airway**.
- **Prophylactic intubation** is not indicated at this stage unless there are signs of respiratory distress, stridor, or significant oropharyngeal edema.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 6: One day after undergoing an open colectomy, a 65-year-old man with colon cancer experiences shivers. The procedure was originally scheduled to be done laparoscopically, but it was converted because of persistent bleeding. Besides the conversion, the operation was uneventful. Five years ago, he underwent renal transplantation because of cystic disease and has been taking prednisolone since then. He has a history of allergy to sulfonamides. He appears acutely ill. His temperature is 39.2°C (102.5°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 23/min, and blood pressure is 90/62 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows a midline incision extending from the xiphisternum to the pubic symphysis. There is a 5-cm (2-in) area of purplish discoloration near the margin of the incision in the lower abdomen. Palpation of the abdomen produces severe pain and crackling sounds are heard. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 18,600/mm3
Platelet count 228,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 120 mm/h
Serum
Na+ 134 mEq/L
K+ 3.5 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
HCO3- 22 mEq/L
Glucose 200 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 60 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.2 mg/dL
Creatine kinase 750 U/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Surgical debridement (Correct Answer)
- B. Intravenous clindamycin therapy
- C. X-ray of the abdomen and pelvis
- D. Vacuum-assisted wound closure device
- E. CT scan of abdomen
Drain management Explanation: ***Surgical debridement***
- The patient's presentation with **fever**, **tachycardia**, **hypotension**, **purplish discoloration**, **severe pain**, and **crepitus** (crackling sounds) near the incision after abdominal surgery is highly suggestive of **necrotizing fasciitis**.
- **Surgical debridement** is the most urgent and critical step to remove necrotic tissue, control the spread of infection, and improve outcomes in necrotizing soft tissue infections.
*Intravenous clindamycin therapy*
- While broad-spectrum antibiotics, including clindamycin, are essential in managing necrotizing fasciitis, they are **adjunctive to surgical debridement**, not a standalone primary treatment.
- Delaying surgery for antibiotic therapy alone would worsen the patient's prognosis and could lead to rapid progression of the infection.
*X-ray of the abdomen and pelvis*
- An X-ray might show subcutaneous **gas (crepitus)**, which is consistent with necrotizing fasciitis due to gas-producing bacteria.
- However, the clinical presentation is already highly indicative of the diagnosis, and waiting for imaging would **delay critical surgical intervention**.
*Vacuum-assisted wound closure device*
- **VAC therapy** is used for wound management to promote healing after debridement, by creating negative pressure.
- It is **not a primary treatment** for an active, spreading necrotizing infection and should only be considered after adequate surgical debridement has been performed.
*CT scan of abdomen*
- A CT scan can confirm the presence of **gas in the soft tissues** and assess the extent of the infection, providing valuable information.
- However, like X-rays, obtaining a CT scan would **delay immediate surgical intervention**, which is paramount given the rapid progression of necrotizing fasciitis.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 7: An orthopaedic surgeon at a local community hospital has noticed that turnover times in the operating room have been unnecessarily long. She believes that the long wait times may be due to inefficient communication between the surgical nursing staff, the staff in the pre-operative area, and the staff in the post-operative receiving area. She believes a secure communication mobile phone app would help to streamline communication between providers and improve efficiency in turnover times. Which of the following methods is most appropriate to evaluate the impact of this intervention in the clinical setting?
- A. Plan-Do-Study-Act cycle (Correct Answer)
- B. Failure modes and effects analysis
- C. Standardization
- D. Forcing function
- E. Root cause analysis
Drain management Explanation: ***Plan-Do-Study-Act cycle***
- The **Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle** is a structured, iterative model used for continuous improvement in quality and efficiency, making it ideal for evaluating the impact of a new intervention like a communication app.
- This cycle allows for small-scale testing of changes, observation of results, learning from the observations, and refinement of the intervention before full implementation.
*Failure modes and effects analysis*
- **Failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA)** is a prospective method to identify potential failures in a process, predict their effects, and prioritize actions to prevent them.
- While useful for process improvement, FMEA is typically performed *before* implementing a change to identify risks, rather than to evaluate the impact of an already implemented intervention.
*Standardization*
- **Standardization** involves creating and implementing consistent processes or protocols to reduce variability and improve reliability.
- While the communication app might contribute to standardization, standardization itself is a *method of improvement* rather than a method for *evaluating the impact* of an intervention.
*Forcing function*
- A **forcing function** is a design feature that physically prevents an error from occurring, making it impossible to complete a task incorrectly.
- An app that streamlines communication does not act as a forcing function, as it facilitates a process rather than physically preventing an incorrect action.
*Root cause analysis*
- **Root cause analysis (RCA)** is a retrospective method used to investigate an event that has already occurred (e.g., an adverse event) to identify its underlying causes.
- This method is used *after* a problem has manifested to understand *why* it happened, not to evaluate the *impact* of a new intervention designed to prevent future problems.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 8: A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a skiing accident. The patient had been skiing down the mountain when he collided with another skier who had stopped suddenly in front of him. He is alert but complaining of pain in his chest and abdomen. He has a past medical history of intravenous drug use and peptic ulcer disease. He is a current smoker. His temperature is 97.4°F (36.3°C), blood pressure is 77/53 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, and respirations are 13/min. He has a GCS of 15 and bilateral shallow breath sounds. His abdomen is soft and distended with bruising over the epigastrium. He is moving all four extremities and has scattered lacerations on his face. His skin is cool and delayed capillary refill is present. Two large-bore IVs are placed in his antecubital fossa, and he is given 2L of normal saline. His FAST exam reveals fluid in Morison's pouch. Following the 2L normal saline, his temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 97/62 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 12/min.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
- A. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
- B. Emergency laparotomy (Correct Answer)
- C. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
- D. Close observation
- E. Diagnostic laparoscopy
Drain management Explanation: ***Emergency laparotomy***
- The patient remains **hemodynamically unstable** (BP 97/62 mmHg, HR 115/min after 2L IV fluids) with evidence of **intra-abdominal fluid on FAST exam** (fluid in Morison's pouch).
- This clinical picture indicates active intra-abdominal hemorrhage requiring **immediate surgical intervention** to identify and control the source of bleeding.
*Diagnostic peritoneal lavage*
- **Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)** has largely been replaced by the focused abdominal sonography for trauma (FAST) exam and CT scans.
- While it can detect intra-abdominal bleeding, it is **invasive** and would delay definitive treatment in a hemodynamically unstable patient with positive FAST.
*Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy*
- This procedure is primarily for diagnosing and treating **upper gastrointestinal bleeding** or mucosal abnormalities.
- It is **not indicated** for evaluating traumatic intra-abdominal hemorrhage or hemodynamic instability following blunt abdominal trauma.
*Close observation*
- Close observation is appropriate for **hemodynamically stable patients** with blunt abdominal trauma and minor injuries or equivocal findings.
- This patient's persistent hypotension, tachycardia, and positive FAST findings rule out observation as a safe or appropriate next step.
*Diagnostic laparoscopy*
- **Diagnostic laparoscopy** is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to evaluate the abdominal cavity.
- While it can be diagnostic, it is generally **contraindicated in hemodynamically unstable patients** as it can prolong the time to definitive hemorrhage control if a major injury is found.
Drain management US Medical PG Question 9: A 62-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of bloody stool. She reports several episodes of bloody stools over the past two months as well as a feeling of a mass near her anus. She has one to two non-painful bowel movements per day. She has a history of alcohol abuse and hypertension. Anoscopy reveals engorged vessels. Which of the following vessels most likely drains blood from the affected region?
- A. Internal pudendal vein
- B. Left colic vein
- C. Inferior rectal vein (Correct Answer)
- D. Middle rectal vein
- E. Superior rectal vein
Drain management Explanation: ***Inferior rectal vein***
- The patient's symptoms (bloody stool, anal mass, engorged vessels on anoscopy) are classic for **external hemorrhoids**.
- **External hemorrhoids** are distended veins located **below the dentate line** in the anal canal, which are drained by the **inferior rectal veins**.
- The inferior rectal veins drain into the **internal pudendal vein**, then to the **internal iliac vein** (part of the **systemic venous circulation**).
*Internal pudendal vein*
- The **internal pudendal vein** drains structures in the perineum and external genitalia, but it is not the **primary/direct drainage** for hemorrhoids.
- It receives blood from the inferior rectal veins but is one step removed from the hemorrhoidal plexus itself.
*Left colic vein*
- The **left colic vein** typically drains the distal transverse colon and descending colon.
- It is part of the **inferior mesenteric venous system** and is anatomically distant from the anorectal region, not involved in draining hemorrhoids.
*Middle rectal vein*
- The **middle rectal vein** drains the middle part of the rectum and connects both portal and systemic circulations.
- It drains the **muscularis layer** of the rectum but is not the primary drainage for the external hemorrhoidal plexus below the dentate line.
*Superior rectal vein*
- The **superior rectal vein** drains the upper part of the rectum and anal canal **above the dentate line**.
- Distention of these veins leads to **internal hemorrhoids**, which are typically painless unless prolapsed or thrombosed.
- It drains into the **inferior mesenteric vein** (part of the **portal venous circulation**).
Drain management US Medical PG Question 10: A 46-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 4 hours. The pain is constant, radiates to his back, and is worse on lying down. He has had 3–4 episodes of greenish-colored vomit. He was treated for H. pylori infection around 2 months ago with triple-regimen therapy. He has atrial fibrillation and hypertension. He owns a distillery on the outskirts of a town. The patient drinks 4–5 alcoholic beverages daily. Current medications include dabigatran and metoprolol. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 102/min, and blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg. Examination shows severe epigastric tenderness to palpation with guarding but no rebound. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 53%
Leukocyte count 11,300/mm3
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
K+ 3.1 mEq/L
Calcium 7.8 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 43 mg/dL
Glucose 271 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.0 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 0.7 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 61 U/L
AST 19 U/L
ALT 17 U/L
γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 88 u/L (N=5–50 U/L)
Lipase 900 U/L (N=14–280 U/L)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Crystalloid fluid infusion (Correct Answer)
- B. Fomepizole therapy
- C. Calcium gluconate therapy
- D. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography
- E. Laparotomy
Drain management Explanation: ***Crystalloid fluid infusion***
- The patient presents with **acute pancreatitis**, indicated by severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, and markedly elevated **lipase** (900 U/L).
- He shows clear signs of **hypovolemia**: elevated hematocrit (53%), elevated BUN/Cr ratio (43/2.0 = 21.5), and tachycardia.
- Pancreatitis causes significant **fluid shifts** and third-spacing, requiring aggressive **intravenous fluid resuscitation** with crystalloids (preferably lactated Ringer's) to prevent hypovolemic shock, acute kidney injury, and organ dysfunction.
- Early aggressive fluid resuscitation (250–500 mL/h initially) is the **cornerstone of acute pancreatitis management** and improves outcomes.
*Fomepizole therapy*
- **Fomepizole** is an antidote for **methanol** or **ethylene glycol** poisoning, which cause a high anion gap metabolic acidosis and visual disturbances.
- While the patient owns a distillery, his symptoms and lab findings (elevated lipase, hypocalcemia, mild leukocytosis) are consistent with **alcoholic pancreatitis**, not toxic alcohol ingestion.
- No anion gap is present, and there are no visual symptoms.
*Calcium gluconate therapy*
- Although the patient has **hypocalcemia** (7.8 mg/dL), which is common in severe pancreatitis due to fat saponification and calcium sequestration, routine calcium gluconate administration is generally **not recommended unless symptomatic**.
- Symptomatic hypocalcemia includes tetany, paresthesias, seizures, or prolonged QT interval, none of which are present.
- Aggressive fluid resuscitation and management of the underlying pancreatitis are higher priorities.
*Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography*
- **ERCP** is primarily indicated for **gallstone pancreatitis with cholangitis** or persistent biliary obstruction.
- This patient likely has **alcoholic pancreatitis** (heavy alcohol use, elevated GGT), and there's no evidence of biliary obstruction (normal bilirubin, AST, ALT, ALP).
- Routine early ERCP in acute pancreatitis without cholangitis is not beneficial and carries procedural risks.
*Laparotomy*
- **Laparotomy** (surgical exploration) is rarely indicated in the initial management of acute pancreatitis.
- It might be considered for complications such as infected necrosis, pancreatic abscess, or abdominal compartment syndrome, but there is no indication for surgical intervention in this patient at this stage.
- Initial management focuses on medical stabilization with fluid resuscitation and supportive care.
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