Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Transfusion triggers and strategies. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 1: A 26-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. She was driving on the highway when she was struck by a van. At the hospital she was conscious but was bleeding heavily from an open wound in her left leg. Pulse is 120/min and blood pressure is 96/68 mm Hg. She receives 3 L of intravenous saline and her pulse slowed to 80/min and blood pressure elevated to 116/70 mm Hg. The next morning she is found to have a hemoglobin of 6.2 g/dL. Her team decides to transfuse 1 unit of packed RBCs. Twenty minutes into the transfusion she develops a diffuse urticarial rash, wheezing, fever, and hypotension. The transfusion is immediately stopped and intramuscular epinephrine is administered. Which of the following scenarios is most consistent with this patient's reaction to the blood transfusion?
- A. A patient history of cardiovascular disease
- B. Unsanitary blood product storage practices in the hospital
- C. A patient history of frequent sinopulmonary infections (Correct Answer)
- D. Facial twitching when the patient's cheek is tapped
- E. Prior transfusion reactions caused by the same donor
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***A patient history of frequent sinopulmonary infections***
- The diffuse **urticarial rash, wheezing, fever, and hypotension** after a blood transfusion are classic signs of a **severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)**.
- Patients with a history of frequent sinopulmonary infections often have **IgA deficiency**, which can lead to the formation of anti-IgA antibodies. If transfused with blood containing IgA, these antibodies can trigger a severe anaphylactic reaction.
*A patient history of cardiovascular disease*
- While cardiovascular disease can influence how a patient tolerates a transfusion, it does not directly cause the specific constellation of symptoms like **urticaria, wheezing, and fever** that point to an allergic reaction.
- Cardiovascular issues might exacerbate circulatory collapse but wouldn't be the primary cause of an immediate, systemic allergic response.
*Unsanitary blood product storage practices in the hospital*
- Unsanitary storage practices are typically associated with **bacterial contamination** of blood products, leading to a **febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction** or **septic shock**, often with severe rigors and high fever.
- This scenario would not commonly present with prominent **urticaria and wheezing** as primary symptoms of an acute reaction.
*Facial twitching when the patient's cheek is tapped*
- Facial twitching when the cheek is tapped is known as **Chvostek's sign**, which is indicative of **hypocalcemia**.
- While rapid transfusion of large volumes of blood can sometimes lead to hypocalcemia due to citrate binding, the primary symptoms described (urticaria, wheezing, fever, hypotension) are not typical of hypocalcemia and point more strongly to an allergic reaction.
*Prior transfusion reactions caused by the same donor*
- While prior reactions to blood from the same donor could occur, it is highly unlikely in this scenario as blood components are typically sourced from various donors.
- The focus is on the patient's intrinsic predisposition (like IgA deficiency) rather than a specific donor incompatibility, especially since this is likely her first transfusion given the trauma.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 2: A 35-year-old patient is brought into the emergency department post motor vehicle crash. Stabilization of the patient in the trauma bay requires endotracheal intubation. The patient has a laceration on the femoral artery from shrapnel and seems to have lost large quantities of blood. The patient is transfused with 13 units of packed red blood cells. His vitals are T 96.5, HR 150, BP 90/40. Even with the direct pressure on the femoral artery, the patient continues to bleed. Results of labs drawn within the last hour are pending. Which of the following is most likely to stop the bleeding in this patient?
- A. Normal saline
- B. Fresh frozen plasma and platelets (Correct Answer)
- C. Whole blood
- D. Dextrose
- E. Cryoprecipitate
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***Fresh frozen plasma and platelets***
- This patient is experiencing **dilutional coagulopathy** due to massive transfusion of packed red blood cells, which lack clotting factors and platelets.
- **Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)** provides essential clotting factors, while **platelets** directly address thrombocytopenia, both crucial for **hemostasis**.
- This represents **standard component therapy** readily available in emergency departments.
*Normal saline*
- Administering normal saline would further dilute the remaining clotting factors and platelets, potentially **worsening the coagulopathy**.
- While essential for **volume resuscitation**, it does not provide any clotting components needed to stop bleeding.
*Whole blood*
- While **whole blood** contains red blood cells, plasma, and platelets in physiologic ratios, it is **not readily available** in most civilian trauma centers.
- Modern practice uses **component therapy** (FFP + platelets + PRBCs) which is more widely accessible and allows for targeted resuscitation.
- Low-titer O whole blood programs exist in some centers but are not universally available.
*Dextrose*
- **Dextrose solutions** primarily provide free water and glucose, used for hydration and hypoglycemia.
- It has **no hemostatic properties** and would further dilute clotting factors, exacerbating the bleeding.
*Cryoprecipitate*
- **Cryoprecipitate** is rich in **fibrinogen, factor VIII, factor XIII, and von Willebrand factor**.
- While useful for specific factor deficiencies or when fibrinogen is critically low in massive transfusions, it **does not replace all clotting factors or platelets** comprehensively as FFP and platelets would.
- Typically used as **adjunctive therapy** when fibrinogen levels are known to be low.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 3: A 34-year-old primigravida was brought to an obstetric clinic with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding. She was diagnosed with placenta praevia and transfused with 2 units of whole blood. Five hours after the transfusion, she developed a fever and chills. How could the current situation be prevented?
- A. Administering prophylactic epinephrine
- B. ABO grouping and Rh typing before transfusion
- C. Transfusing leukocyte reduced blood products (Correct Answer)
- D. Performing Coombs test before transfusion
- E. Administering prophylactic immunoglobulins
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***Transfusing leukocyte reduced blood products***
- The patient's symptoms of **fever and chills** occurring hours after transfusion are characteristic of a **febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)**.
- FNHTRs are caused by residual **donor leukocytes** in the transfused blood product, which release **cytokines** during storage or react with recipient antibodies, and can be prevented by using **leukoreduced blood products**.
*Administering prophylactic epinephrine*
- **Epinephrine** is used to treat severe **anaphylactic and allergic reactions** but does not prevent the underlying mechanism of FNHTRs.
- Its prophylactic administration is not a standard practice for preventing transfusion reactions like FNHTRs.
*ABO grouping and Rh typing before transfusion*
- **ABO grouping and Rh typing** are crucial for preventing **acute hemolytic transfusion reactions**, which are much more severe and involve erythrocyte incompatibility.
- These tests would not prevent a **febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)** caused by leukocyte components.
*Performing Coombs test before transfusion*
- The **Coombs test (Direct Antiglobulin Test)** detects antibodies attached to red blood cells and is primarily used to diagnose **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** or delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions.
- It does not prevent FNHTRs, which are unrelated to red blood cell incompatibility or antibody-mediated hemolysis.
*Administering prophylactic immunoglobulins*
- **Prophylactic immunoglobulins** are used in specific situations like **immunodeficiency** or **Rh incompatibility (RhoGAM)** to prevent alloimmunization, but not for preventing FNHTRs.
- This intervention would not target the mechanism leading to fever and chills caused by donor leukocyte interactions.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 4: A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident and presents with an open fracture of the left femur and severe bleeding from the left femoral artery. No past medical history or current medications. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 21/min. On physical examination, the patient is lethargic, confused, and poorly responds to commands. Peripheral pulses are 1+ in the left lower extremity below the level of the knee and 2+ elsewhere. When she arrives at the hospital, a stat hemoglobin level shows 6 g/dL. Which of the following is most correct about the patient’s condition?
- A. This patient’s laboratory findings will likely demonstrate a normocytic anemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hemoglobin concentration will be significantly decreased immediately after the acute bleeding begins
- C. This patient will likely be diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia
- D. Hematocrit is expected to accurately reflect the degree of blood loss immediately after acute hemorrhage
- E. Her reticulocyte count is expected to be elevated at this time
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***This patient's laboratory findings will likely demonstrate a normocytic anemia***
- In cases of **acute blood loss**, both plasma and red blood cells are lost proportionally, leading to **normocytic, normochromic anemia** as the body has not yet had time to alter red blood cell production
- The MCV (mean corpuscular volume) remains **normal (80-100 fL)** until chronic compensatory mechanisms develop
- This distinguishes acute hemorrhage from chronic blood loss, which can eventually lead to **microcytic anemia** due to iron depletion
*Hematocrit is expected to accurately reflect the degree of blood loss immediately after acute hemorrhage*
- **Immediately after acute hemorrhage**, both red blood cells and plasma are lost proportionally, so the **hematocrit initially remains relatively unchanged** despite significant blood volume loss
- The hematocrit **drops hours later** as fluid shifts from the interstitial space into the vascular compartment to restore blood volume, diluting the remaining red blood cells
- This patient's low hemoglobin at hospital arrival reflects this compensatory hemodilution process
*Hemoglobin concentration will be significantly decreased immediately after the acute bleeding begins*
- While the patient is actively bleeding, the **hemoglobin concentration may not immediately decrease** because red blood cells and plasma are lost together in proportion
- The apparent drop in hemoglobin becomes more pronounced as the body **replenishes plasma volume** through fluid shifts or after **intravenous fluid administration**, diluting the remaining red cell mass
- The hemoglobin of 6 g/dL at hospital arrival reflects fluid shifts that have already occurred
*Her reticulocyte count is expected to be elevated at this time*
- The bone marrow requires **3-5 days to mount a reticulocytosis** in response to acute blood loss and increased erythropoietin production
- At hospital arrival shortly after the accident, the **reticulocyte count will be normal** as insufficient time has passed for bone marrow response
- An elevated reticulocyte count would be expected **several days after the hemorrhage**, not acutely
*This patient will likely be diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia*
- **Iron deficiency anemia** is a **chronic condition** characterized by **microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells** due to prolonged iron loss or inadequate dietary intake
- Acute blood loss, as seen in this trauma case, causes **normocytic anemia** with normal MCV and MCH
- Iron deficiency could develop weeks to months later if iron stores become depleted without supplementation
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 5: A 35-year-old male is brought into the emergency department for a trauma emergency. The emergency medical services states that the patient was wounded with a knife on his upper left thigh near the inguinal ligament. Upon examination in the trauma bay, the patient is awake and alert. His physical exam and FAST exam is normal other than the knife wound. Large bore intravenous lines are inserted into the patient for access and fluids are being administered. Pressure on the knife wound is being held by one of the physicians with adequate control of the bleeding, but the physician notices the blood was previously extravasating in a pulsatile manner. His vitals are BP 100/50, HR 110, T 97.8, RR 22. What is the next best step for this patient?
- A. CT lower extremities
- B. Radiograph lower extremities
- C. Coagulation studies and blood typing/crossmatch
- D. Tourniquet of proximal lower extremity
- E. Emergent surgery (Correct Answer)
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***Emergent surgery***
- The pulsatile bleeding from a thigh wound near the inguinal ligament is highly suggestive of a major arterial injury, such as to the **femoral artery**.
- Given the potential for rapid blood loss and hemodynamic instability, **emergent surgical exploration and repair** are necessary to control the bleeding and prevent further compromise.
*CT lower extremities*
- While CT angiography could further delineate vascular injury, the presence of **active pulsatile bleeding** necessitates immediate surgical intervention rather than delaying for imaging.
- Delaying surgery for imaging risks **exsanguination** and worsening patient outcomes, especially with a blood pressure of **100/50 mmHg** and a heart rate of **110 bpm**, indicating early shock.
*Radiograph lower extremities*
- A radiograph would primarily visualize bone structures and foreign bodies but would not provide adequate information regarding the **vascular injury** and active bleeding.
- It would not change the urgent need for **surgical exploration** to address the pulsatile hemorrhage.
*Coagulation studies and blood typing/crossmatch*
- These are important preparatory steps for major surgery involving significant blood loss, but they should be carried out **concurrently with preparations for emergent surgery**, not instead of it.
- Delaying surgery to await these results would be inappropriate when facing **active arterial bleeding**.
*Tourniquet of proximal lower extremity*
- While a tourniquet can be used for temporary hemorrhage control, especially in an uncontrolled external hemorrhage, the current bleeding is being controlled by **direct pressure**.
- Applying a tourniquet could cause **ischemic damage** to the extremity if applied for too long, and for a deep stab wound, direct compression is often effective until surgical control can be achieved.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 6: A 35-year-old man arrives at the emergency department within minutes after a head-on motor vehicle accident. He suffered from blunt abdominal trauma, several lacerations to his face as well as lacerations to his upper and lower extremities. The patient is afebrile, blood pressure is 45/25 mmHg and pulse is 160/minute. A CBC is obtained and is most likely to demonstrate which of the following?
- A. Hb 17 g/dL, Hct 20%
- B. Hb 15 g/dL, Hct 45% (Correct Answer)
- C. Hb 5 g/dL, Hct 30%
- D. Hb 20 g/dL, Hct 60%
- E. Hb 5 g/dL, Hct 20%
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***Hb 15 g/dL, Hct 45%***
- This option represents **normal hemoglobin and hematocrit values**, which are expected in the **initial minutes following acute hemorrhage**.
- In acute blood loss, **whole blood is lost** (both RBCs and plasma together), so the **concentration of RBCs remains unchanged** initially.
- **Hemodilution has not yet occurred**, as there hasn't been enough time for fluid shifts from the extravascular to the intravascular space to dilute the blood.
- This is a **critical teaching point**: early CBC values can be **falsely reassuring** and don't reflect the severity of hemorrhagic shock.
*Hb 17 g/dL, Hct 20%*
- This option shows a **medically implausible combination** - the normal Hb:Hct ratio is approximately **1:3**, so an Hb of 17 g/dL should correspond to an Hct of approximately 51%, not 20%.
- This combination cannot occur physiologically and does not represent any stage of acute blood loss.
*Hb 5 g/dL, Hct 30%*
- This shows an **incorrect Hb:Hct ratio** (6:1 instead of the expected 3:1) - if Hb is 5 g/dL, the Hct should be approximately 15%, not 30%.
- While severe anemia can occur with massive blood loss, this would only be apparent **hours after injury** once hemodilution from fluid shifts occurs, not within minutes.
- The implausible ratio makes this medically incorrect.
*Hb 20 g/dL, Hct 60%*
- These values represent **polycythemia** (abnormally high red blood cell counts), which is the opposite of what would be expected after acute traumatic blood loss.
- The Hb:Hct ratio is appropriate (1:3), but the elevated values suggest chronic hypoxemia, dehydration, or myeloproliferative disorders - not acute hemorrhage.
*Hb 5 g/dL, Hct 20%*
- This shows an **incorrect Hb:Hct ratio** (4:1 instead of the expected 3:1) - if Hb is 5 g/dL, the Hct should be approximately 15%, not 20%.
- Even if we accept these as severe anemia values, they would only be seen **several hours after injury** when sufficient time has passed for fluid shifts and hemodilution to occur, not within minutes of the trauma.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 7: A 22-year-old woman in the intensive care unit has had persistent oozing from the margins of wounds for 2 hours that is not controlled by pressure bandages. She was admitted to the hospital 13 hours ago following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Initial focused assessment with sonography for trauma was negative. An x-ray survey showed opacification of the right lung field and fractures of multiple ribs, the tibia, fibula, calcaneus, right acetabulum, and bilateral pubic rami. Laboratory studies showed a hemoglobin concentration of 14.8 g/dL, leukocyte count of 10,300/mm3, platelet count of 175,000/mm3, and blood glucose concentration of 77 mg/dL. Infusion of 0.9% saline was begun. Multiple lacerations on the forehead and extremities were sutured, and fractures were stabilized. Repeat laboratory studies now show a hemoglobin concentration of 12.4 g/dL, platelet count of 102,000/mm3, prothrombin time of 26 seconds (INR=1.8), and activated partial thromboplastin time of 63 seconds. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
- A. Transfuse packed RBC
- B. Transfuse packed RBC and fresh frozen plasma in a 1:1 ratio
- C. Transfuse fresh frozen plasma and platelet concentrate in a 1:1 ratio
- D. Transfuse whole blood and administer vitamin K
- E. Transfuse packed RBC, fresh frozen plasma, and platelet concentrate in a 1:1:1 ratio (Correct Answer)
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***Transfuse packed RBC, fresh frozen plasma, and platelet concentrate in a 1:1:1 ratio***
- The patient exhibits signs of **massive hemorrhage and coagulopathy** (persistent oozing, decreasing hemoglobin, prolonged PT and aPTT, decreasing platelets) following severe trauma.
- A **1:1:1 ratio transfusion** of packed red blood cells (RBCs), fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and platelet concentrate is the recommended **massive transfusion protocol** to address hypovolemia, anemia, and consumptive coagulopathy simultaneously.
*Transfuse packed RBC*
- While the patient is anemic (Hb dropped from 14.8 to 12.4 g/dL), transfusing only RBCs would not address the significant **coagulopathy** evidenced by prolonged PT/aPTT and decreasing platelets.
- This option would correct **hypovolemia and oxygen-carrying capacity** but fail to resolve the underlying bleeding disorder, potentially worsening hemorrhage.
*Transfuse packed RBC and fresh frozen plasma in a 1:1 ratio*
- This approach addresses **anemia and coagulopathy** by providing clotting factors, but it neglects the patient's **thrombocytopenia** (platelets dropped from 175,000 to 102,000/mm3 with ongoing bleeding).
- Platelet transfusion is crucial for **hemostasis**, especially in uncontrolled traumatic bleeding.
*Transfuse fresh frozen plasma and platelet concentrate in a 1:1 ratio*
- This option targets **coagulopathy and thrombocytopenia** but completely ignores the significant **anemia and hypovolemia** (Hb 12.4 g/dL with ongoing bleeding) that is likely contributing to hypoperfusion.
- **RBCs** are essential to restore oxygen delivery to tissues and manage hemorrhagic shock.
*Transfuse whole blood and administer vitamin K*
- **Whole blood** is rarely used in civilian trauma settings due to practical limitations, and its components can be provided separately.
- **Vitamin K** is primarily used for warfarin reversal or vitamin K deficiency, which is not the acute cause of coagulopathy in severe trauma; the issue is **dilutional and consumptive coagulopathy**.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 8: A 19-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic to establish care. She has no acute complaints or concerns. Upon further questioning, she shares that she gets frequent nosebleeds and often bleeds from her gums a little after brushing her teeth. She also typically has relatively heavy menstrual periods, soaking eight tampons per day. She has not had any serious bleeding events, and she has never had a blood transfusion. Physical exam is unremarkable. A complete blood count shows mild anemia with a normal platelet count. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
- A. Perform platelet aggregation tests (Correct Answer)
- B. Start desmopressin
- C. Start intravenous immunoglobulin
- D. Start corticosteroids
- E. Perform bone marrow biopsy
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***Perform platelet aggregation tests***
- The patient's history of **frequent nosebleeds, gum bleeding after tooth brushing**, and **heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia) with a normal platelet count** is highly suggestive of **von Willebrand disease** or a **platelet function disorder**.
- **Platelet aggregation tests** and **von Willebrand factor (vWF) studies** are necessary to differentiate between various platelet function defects and von Willebrand disease, and to guide appropriate treatment.
- The combination of mucocutaneous bleeding with normal platelet count indicates a **qualitative platelet defect or vWF deficiency** rather than a quantitative platelet problem.
*Start desmopressin*
- **Desmopressin** is used to treat certain bleeding disorders, including types of von Willebrand disease and mild hemophilia A, by promoting the release of vWF and factor VIII.
- However, initiating this treatment **without a definitive diagnosis** is premature; further diagnostic testing is required to identify the underlying cause of her bleeding and determine if desmopressin would be effective.
*Start intravenous immunoglobulin*
- **Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)** is typically used for conditions like **immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)**, where there is an autoimmune destruction of platelets, leading to a low platelet count.
- This patient has a **normal platelet count**, ruling out ITP as the direct cause of her bleeding symptoms, making IVIG an inappropriate first-line treatment.
*Start corticosteroids*
- **Corticosteroids** are anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive agents often used in the management of autoimmune conditions affecting blood counts, such as **ITP**.
- Given the patient's **normal platelet count** and the absence of clear autoimmune markers or thrombocytopenia, corticosteroids are not indicated and would likely delay proper diagnosis.
*Perform bone marrow biopsy*
- A **bone marrow biopsy** is indicated in cases of unexplained cytopenias (low blood cell counts) or suspected hematologic malignancies to assess bone marrow function and cellularity.
- This patient has **normal platelet counts** and no signs of malignancy, and her bleeding symptoms point towards a primary hemostasis defect (platelet function or vWF), making a bone marrow biopsy an unnecessary and invasive procedure at this stage.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 9: A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services. The patient was an unrestrained passenger in a head-on collision that occurred 15 minutes ago and is currently unresponsive. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 60/33 mmHg, pulse is 180/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. A FAST exam demonstrates fluid in Morrison’s pouch. Laboratory values are drawn upon presentation to the ED and sent off. The patient is started on IV fluids and an initial trauma survey is started. Twenty minutes later, his blood pressure is 95/65 mmHg, and his pulse is 110/min. The patient is further stabilized and is scheduled for emergency surgery. Which of the following best represents this patient’s most likely initial laboratory values?
- A. Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL, Hematocrit: 30%, MCV: 110 µm^3
- B. Hemoglobin: 19 g/dL, Hematocrit: 55%, MCV: 95 µm^3
- C. Hemoglobin: 7 g/dL, Hematocrit: 21%, MCV: 75 µm^3
- D. Hemoglobin: 11 g/dL, Hematocrit: 33%, MCV: 88 µm^3 (Correct Answer)
- E. Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL, Hematocrit: 45%, MCV: 90 µm^3
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***Hemoglobin: 11 g/dL, Hematocrit: 33%, MCV: 88 µm^3***
- The patient experienced significant trauma and is experiencing **hemorrhagic shock**, as evidenced by his initial **hypotension** (BP 60/33 mmHg), **tachycardia** (pulse 180/min), and positive **FAST exam** for fluid in Morrison's pouch, indicating intra-abdominal bleeding.
- The initial hemoglobin and hematocrit could be mildly decreased due to acute blood loss, but significant drops are often *not immediately apparent* as plasma volume has not yet moved into the intravascular compartment to dilute the remaining red blood cells. A hemoglobin of 11 g/dL and hematocrit of 33% are consistent with **acute blood loss** before significant hemodilution occurs. MCV of 88 µm^3 is within the normal range for **normocytic anemia** seen in acute hemorrhage.
*Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL, Hematocrit: 30%, MCV: 110 µm^3*
- While a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL and hematocrit of 30% are consistent with anemia due to blood loss, an **MCV of 110 µm^3** (macrocytic) is not typically seen in acute hemorrhage.
- Macrocytic anemia usually results from conditions like **B12 or folate deficiency**, alcoholism, or liver disease, which are not suggested by the acute traumatic scenario.
*Hemoglobin: 19 g/dL, Hematocrit: 55%, MCV: 95 µm^3*
- This indicates **polycythemia** (abnormally high red blood cell count), which is the opposite of what would be expected in a patient experiencing acute hemorrhagic shock.
- These values would suggest conditions like **polycythemia vera** or severe dehydration, which are not relevant in this acute trauma setting.
*Hemoglobin: 7 g/dL, Hematocrit: 21%, MCV: 75 µm^3*
- While a hemoglobin of 7 g/dL and hematocrit of 21% represent significant anemia consistent with major blood loss, these values are typically seen *later* as **hemodilution** occurs, or in cases of chronic blood loss.
- An **MCV of 75 µm^3** (microcytic) is generally indicative of **iron deficiency anemia** or thalassemia, which develops over time and is not characteristic of acute traumatic blood loss.
*Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL, Hematocrit: 45%, MCV: 90 µm^3*
- These values are within the **normal range** for hemoglobin and hematocrit, which would not be expected in a patient presenting with signs of **hemorrhagic shock** and a positive FAST exam indicating significant internal bleeding.
- This would suggest either very minor blood loss or that the values were taken before any bleeding had occurred or before hemodilution had a chance to manifest.
Transfusion triggers and strategies US Medical PG Question 10: A 58-year-old cirrhotic man with ascites undergoes large volume paracentesis (6 liters removed). Four hours later, he becomes hypotensive (BP 80/50 mmHg) and tachycardic (HR 115/min). Labs show: Cr 2.1 mg/dL (baseline 1.0), Na+ 128 mEq/L, Hct 38%. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
- A. 5% albumin 6-8 grams per liter of ascites removed (Correct Answer)
- B. Normal saline bolus 2 liters
- C. Octreotide and midodrine for hepatorenal syndrome
- D. Vasopressors to maintain blood pressure
- E. Re-infusion of filtered ascitic fluid
Transfusion triggers and strategies Explanation: ***5% albumin 6-8 grams per liter of ascites removed***
- This patient is experiencing **post-paracentesis circulatory dysfunction (PPCD)**, characterized by hypotension and **acute kidney injury** (doubled creatinine) following a large volume paracentesis (>5L).
- Administration of **intravenous albumin** is the gold standard treatement to expand the **effective arterial blood volume** and prevent further deterioration into hepatorenal syndrome.
*Normal saline bolus 2 liters*
- In cirrhotic patients, **crystalloids** are less effective as they rapidly redistribute into the **interstitial space** (third-spacing) and can worsen ascites/edema.
- Saline does not provide the **oncotic pressure** required to counteract the splanchnic vasodilation typical of PPCD.
*Octreotide and midodrine for hepatorenal syndrome*
- While these agents are used for **Hepatorenal Syndrome (HRS)**, the immediate priority in post-procedure hypotension is **volume expansion** to correct the circulatory dysfunction.
- These medications are typically reserved for patients who do not respond to **volume expansion with albumin** or meet specific criteria for type 1 HRS.
*Vasopressors to maintain blood pressure*
- Vasopressors like **norepinephrine** are generally considered after fluid resuscitation with **albumin** has failed to restore hemodynamic stability.
- Using pressors alone ignores the underlying **intravascular volume deficit** caused by the fluid shift after paracentesis.
*Re-infusion of filtered ascitic fluid*
- This is not a standard or recommended clinical practice due to risks of **infection**, **coagulopathy**, and lack of evidence for efficacy.
- The specific requirement in this pathology is **concentrated albumin** to maintain oncotic pressure, which ascitic fluid does not provide efficiently.
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