Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Benign breast disease management. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 1: A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of progressively worsening painful swelling of both breasts for the past 24 hours. Three days ago, she vaginally delivered a healthy 2690-g (5-lb 15-oz) girl. The patient says that breastfeeding her newborn daughter is very painful. She reports exhaustion and moodiness. She has no history of serious illness. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F). Examination shows tenderness, firmness, and fullness of both breasts. The nipples appear cracked and the areolas are swollen bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Oral antibiotics
- B. Cold compresses and analgesia (Correct Answer)
- C. Oral contraceptives
- D. Mammography
- E. Incision and drainage
Benign breast disease management Explanation: **Cold compresses and analgesia**
- The patient presents with bilateral breast pain, swelling, and fullness, along with cracked nipples, 3 days postpartum. This clinical picture is highly consistent with **breast engorgement**, a common physiological process in the early postpartum period.
- Management of breast engorgement includes **symptomatic relief** with cold compresses to reduce swelling and pain, and analgesics like NSAIDs to manage discomfort. Continued breastfeeding or pumping is also important.
*Oral antibiotics*
- While breast pain can sometimes indicate **mastitis**, the bilateral nature of the symptoms and the absence of fever (temperature 37.4°C is normal) make an infection less likely as the primary diagnosis at this stage.
- Administering antibiotics unnecessarily can lead to **antibiotic resistance** and is not indicated for physiological breast engorgement.
*Oral contraceptives*
- Oral contraceptives are **not indicated** for the treatment of breast engorgement and could potentially interfere with lactation, depending on the type.
- They are typically used for **contraception** and other hormonal indications, not for acute postpartum breast symptoms.
*Mammography*
- Mammography is a radiological imaging technique primarily used for **breast cancer screening** or investigation of suspicious masses.
- It is not indicated for the initial evaluation or management of acute postpartum breast pain and engorgement, which is a clinical diagnosis.
*Incision and drainage*
- Incision and drainage is a procedure performed for a **breast abscess**, which is a localized collection of pus.
- This patient's symptoms are diffuse and bilateral, and there's no localized fluctuance or signs of a severe bacterial infection (e.g., high fever, redness with clear borders) to suggest an abscess requiring drainage.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 2: A 42-year-old woman presents to the physician because of an abnormal breast biopsy report following suspicious findings on breast imaging. Other than being concerned about her report, she feels well. She has no history of any serious illnesses and takes no medications. She does not smoke. She consumes wine 1–2 times per week with dinner. There is no significant family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormal findings. The biopsy shows lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) in the left breast. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Careful observation + routine mammography (Correct Answer)
- B. Left mastectomy + axillary dissection + local irradiation
- C. Lumpectomy + routine screening
- D. Lumpectomy + breast irradiation
- E. Breast irradiation + tamoxifen
Benign breast disease management Explanation: ***Careful observation + routine mammography***
- **Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)** is considered a **non-obligate precursor** to invasive carcinoma, meaning it indicates an increased risk for developing invasive breast cancer in either breast (approximately 1-2% per year), but it is not itself invasive.
- Management typically involves **careful surveillance** with routine clinical exams and **mammography**, as this is the most appropriate initial approach for classic LCIS.
- Surgical excision is often unnecessary due to LCIS's diffuse nature and the fact that it serves as a risk marker rather than a direct precancerous lesion requiring removal.
*Left mastectomy + axillary dissection + local irradiation*
- This aggressive approach is reserved for **invasive breast cancer** and would be excessive for LCIS, which is a non-invasive lesion and a marker of increased risk rather than an immediate threat.
- **Axillary dissection** is performed to stage nodal involvement in invasive cancer, which is not applicable here as LCIS does not metastasize.
*Lumpectomy + routine screening*
- While a **lumpectomy (excision)** may be considered for **pleomorphic LCIS** or when there is diagnostic uncertainty, it is not the standard initial management for classic LCIS.
- Classic LCIS is often multifocal and bilateral, making localized excision less effective as a risk-reduction strategy.
*Lumpectomy + breast irradiation*
- **Radiation therapy** is typically used to reduce local recurrence risk after **lumpectomy for invasive breast cancer** or **ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)**.
- For LCIS, irradiation is generally not recommended as it is non-invasive and does not benefit from local radiation treatment.
*Breast irradiation + tamoxifen*
- **Tamoxifen** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that can be **offered for risk reduction** in women with LCIS, potentially reducing the risk of invasive breast cancer by approximately 50%.
- However, tamoxifen is typically discussed as an **additional preventive option** after initial diagnosis and counseling, not as the immediate next step.
- **Breast irradiation** is not indicated for LCIS, as it is non-invasive and does not require local radiation treatment, making this combination inappropriate.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 3: A 32-year-old woman presents to her physician concerned about wet spots on the inside part of her dress shirts, which she thinks may be coming from one of her breasts. She states that it is painless and that the discharge is usually blood-tinged. She denies any history of malignancy in her family and states that she has been having regular periods since they first started at age 13. She does not have any children. The patient has normal vitals and denies any cough, fever. On exam, there are no palpable masses, and the patient does not have any erythema or induration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Intraductal papilloma (Correct Answer)
- B. Ductal carcinoma
- C. Paget's disease
- D. Breast abscess
- E. Fibrocystic changes
Benign breast disease management Explanation: ***Intraductal papilloma***
- This condition commonly presents as **unilateral, bloody, spontaneous, and painless nipple discharge** from a single duct, often without a palpable mass, which perfectly matches the patient's symptoms.
- It involves a benign tumor growing within a **milk duct**, which can cause bleeding due to its friable nature.
*Ductal carcinoma*
- While it can cause bloody nipple discharge, **ductal carcinoma** is more frequently associated with a palpable **mass**, skin changes, or axillary lymphadenopathy, none of which are noted here.
- Given the patient's young age and absence of other high-risk features, it is a less likely initial diagnosis compared to a benign condition.
*Paget's disease*
- **Paget's disease of the breast** primarily presents as an eczematous lesion on the nipple and/or areola, often with **itching, burning, and ulceration**, rather than solely bloody nipple discharge.
- It is typically associated with an underlying **invasive ductal carcinoma** or ductal carcinoma in situ, which is not suggested by the current findings.
*Breast abscess*
- A **breast abscess** typically causes **pain, fever, erythema, and induration**, pointing towards an infectious process, none of which are present in this patient's symptoms or physical exam.
- The discharge from an abscess would usually be **purulent**, not blood-tinged.
*Fibrocystic changes*
- **Fibrocystic changes** in the breast often cause **cyclic breast pain, tenderness, and multiple palpable masses** that fluctuate with the menstrual cycle.
- While some forms can cause discharge, it is typically **serous or clear**, not bloody, and rarely unilateral from a single duct.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 4: A 51-year-old woman presents for her annual wellness visit. She says she feels healthy and has no specific concerns. Past medical history is significant for bipolar disorder, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus type 2, managed with lithium, lisinopril, and metformin, respectively. Her family history is significant for hypertension and diabetes mellitus type 2 in her father, who died from lung cancer at age 67. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse 97/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 120/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Mammogram findings are labeled breast imaging reporting and data system-3 (BIRADS-3) (probably benign). Which of the following is the next best step in management in this patient?
- A. Follow-up mammogram in 6 months (Correct Answer)
- B. Follow-up mammogram in 1 year
- C. Treatment
- D. Biopsy
- E. Breast MRI
Benign breast disease management Explanation: ***Follow-up mammogram in 6 months***
- A **BIRADS-3** (Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System 3) classification indicates a **probably benign finding**, with a less than 2% chance of malignancy.
- The recommended management for BIRADS-3 is a **short-interval follow-up mammogram in 6 months** to assess for stability or changes.
*Follow-up mammogram in 1 year*
- This follow-up interval is typically recommended for **BIRADS-1 (negative)** or **BIRADS-2 (benign)** findings, not for BIRADS-3.
- Waiting a full year would delay the detection of any potential malignancy in a BIRADS-3 lesion.
*Treatment*
- Treatment is indicated for confirmed malignancy, typically after a biopsy has confirmed cancerous cells.
- Starting treatment at the BIRADS-3 stage would be premature given the low probability of malignancy.
*Biopsy*
- A biopsy is generally warranted for **BIRADS-4 (suspicious)** or **BIRADS-5 (highly suggestive of malignancy)** lesions.
- While biopsy can be considered for BIRADS-3 if there are high-risk factors or patient preference, **short-interval follow-up** is the standard and preferred initial approach.
*Breast MRI*
- Breast MRI is often used for high-risk patients, for **staging known breast cancer**, or to evaluate **dense breast tissue**.
- It is not the standard next step for a BIRADS-3 finding in a patient with no specific high-risk indications beyond the mammogram result.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 5: A 32-year-old woman presented for her annual physical examination. She mentioned that her family history had changed since her last visit: her mother was recently diagnosed with breast cancer and her sister tested positive for the BRCA2 mutation. The patient, therefore, requested testing as well. If the patient tests positive for the BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation, which of the following is the best screening approach?
- A. Order magnetic resonance imaging of the breast
- B. Annual ultrasound, annual mammography, and monthly self-breast exams
- C. Twice-yearly clinical breast exams, annual mammography, annual breast MRI, and breast self-exams (Correct Answer)
- D. Annual clinical breast exams, annual mammography, and monthly self-breast exams
- E. Refer to radiation therapy
Benign breast disease management Explanation: ***Twice-yearly clinical breast exams, annual mammography, annual breast MRI, and breast self-exams***
- For patients with **BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations**, an intensive breast cancer screening protocol is recommended due to their highly increased lifetime risk of breast cancer.
- This typically includes **semiannual clinical breast exams**, **annual mammography**, and **annual breast MRI**, often starting at a young age.
*Order magnetic resonance imaging of the breast*
- While MRI is a crucial part of screening for high-risk individuals, it is **not sufficient as a standalone screening modality**.
- A comprehensive approach combining multiple screening methods is needed to maximize detection rates.
*Annual ultrasound, annual mammography, and monthly self-breast exams*
- **Breast ultrasound** is generally used as an adjunct to mammography when specific abnormalities are found or in women with dense breasts, not as a routine primary screening tool for BRCA carriers.
- While **mammography** and **self-breast exams** are included, this option lacks the crucial **annual MRI** and **twice-yearly clinical breast exams** recommended for BRCA carriers.
*Annual clinical breast exams, annual mammography, and monthly self-breast exams*
- This protocol is **less intensive** than what is recommended for women with BRCA mutations.
- It omits the essential **annual breast MRI** and the **twice-yearly clinical breast exams** that are critical for early detection in this high-risk population.
*Refer to radiation therapy*
- **Radiation therapy** is a treatment modality for existing cancer, not a screening approach for cancer prevention or early detection.
- Referring for radiation therapy would be appropriate only after a diagnosis of breast cancer, not as a primary screening strategy.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 6: A 26-year-old woman presents to her physician at the 3rd week postpartum with a fever and a swollen breast with redness and tenderness. She has been breastfeeding her infant since birth. The symptoms of the patient started 4 days ago. She has not taken any antibiotics for the past 12 months. She does not have any concurrent diseases. The vital signs include: blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, heart rate 91/min, respiratory rate 15/min, and temperature 38.8℃ (101.8℉). Physical examination reveals redness and enlargement of the right breast. The breast is warm and is painful at palpation. There is purulent discharge from the nipple. No fluctuation is noted. Which of the following is a correct management strategy for this patient?
- A. Manage with clindamycin and recommend to interrupt breastfeeding until the resolution
- B. Manage with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and encourage continuing breastfeeding
- C. Prescribe dicloxacillin and encourage continuing breastfeeding (Correct Answer)
- D. Prescribe dicloxacillin and bromocriptine for halting lactation
- E. Prescribe trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and recommend emptying affected breast without feeding
Benign breast disease management Explanation: **Prescribe dicloxacillin and encourage continuing breastfeeding**
- The patient's symptoms (fever, swollen, red, and tender breast with purulent discharge) are consistent with **puerperal mastitis**, most commonly caused by *Staphylococcus aureus*. **Dicloxacillin** is a penicillinase-resistant penicillin, making it an appropriate first-line antibiotic for this infection.
- **Continuing breastfeeding** or expressing milk from the affected breast is crucial to prevent milk stasis, which can worsen mastitis and lead to abscess formation. It also helps clear the infection.
*Manage with clindamycin and recommend to interrupt breastfeeding until the resolution*
- While **clindamycin** is an alternative for mastitis, especially in penicillin-allergic patients or for certain resistant strains, it is not the first-line choice when penicillin-resistant penicillins like dicloxacillin are available and effective.
- **Interrupting breastfeeding** can lead to milk stasis, exacerbating the mastitis and increasing the risk of abscess formation. Unless there is an absolute contraindication, breastfeeding should be continued.
*Manage with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and encourage continuing breastfeeding*
- **Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)** is typically reserved for MRSA mastitis or penicillin-allergic patients, and there is no indication of MRSA in this patient's history (no recent antibiotic use, no concurrent diseases).
- While encouraging continued breastfeeding is correct, the choice of antibiotic is not optimal as a first-line treatment for typical mastitis.
*Prescribe dicloxacillin and bromocriptine for halting lactation*
- While **dicloxacillin** is an appropriate antibiotic, **bromocriptine** is used to halt lactation, which is generally not recommended in mastitis.
- Halting lactation can lead to milk engorgement and stasis, potentially worsening the infection and increasing the risk of breast abscess.
*Prescribe trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and recommend emptying affected breast without feeding*
- As mentioned, **trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole** is not the preferred first-line antibiotic for typical mastitis.
- **Emptying the affected breast without feeding** (e.g., via pumping) is a good practice if direct feeding is temporarily impossible, but the critical point is to continue removing milk to prevent stasis, and if possible, direct feeding is preferred. However, the antibiotic choice is less appropriate.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 7: A 34-year-old woman visits an outpatient clinic with a complaint of pain in her left breast for the last few months. The pain worsens during her menstrual cycle and relieves once the cycle is over. She denies any nipple discharge, skins changes, warmth, erythema, or a palpable mass in the breast. Her family history is negative for breast, endometrial, and ovarian cancer. There is no palpable mass or any abnormality in the physical examination of her breast. A mammogram is ordered which shows a cluster of microcalcifications with a radiolucent center. A breast biopsy is also performed which reveals a lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Intraductal papilloma
- B. Fibroadenoma
- C. Sclerosing adenosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Ductal hyperplasia without atypia
- E. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
Benign breast disease management Explanation: ***Sclerosing adenosis***
- The combination of **cyclical mastalgia**, **microcalcifications with a radiolucent center** on mammography, and a biopsy showing **lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium** is highly characteristic of sclerosing adenosis.
- Sclerosing adenosis is a **benign proliferative lesion** of the breast that can mimic malignancy clinically and radiologically due to its firm consistency and calcifications.
*Intraductal papilloma*
- This typically presents with **bloody or serous nipple discharge** and is often associated with a mass near the nipple, which are not present in this case.
- Histologically, it involves a papillary growth within a duct, not a lobulocentric proliferation.
*Fibroadenoma*
- This presents as a **well-circumscribed, palpable, mobile mass** that is typically rubbery and not usually associated with cyclical pain as the primary symptom.
- Mammographically, it appears as a well-defined mass, often with coarse calcifications, but the specific **radiolucent center** in clustered microcalcifications is less typical.
*Ductal hyperplasia without atypia*
- While it can manifest as microcalcifications, it typically does not present with significant cyclical pain as the main symptom.
- Histopathologically, it involves an increase in the number of **epithelial cells in the ducts** but without the lobulocentric proliferation of both epithelial and myoepithelial cells seen in sclerosing adenosis.
*Infiltrating ductal carcinoma*
- This is a **malignant condition** that should be considered with new breast pain and microcalcifications, but the absence of a palpable mass, skin changes, nipple discharge, and the specific biopsy findings make it less likely.
- While it can present with microcalcifications, the histological finding of **lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium** is inconsistent with invasive carcinoma.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 8: A 32-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for an annual checkup. She reports that she has been feeling well and has no medical concerns. Her past medical history is significant for childhood asthma but she has not experienced any symptoms since she was a teenager. Physical exam reveals a 1-centimeter hard mobile mass in the left upper outer quadrant of her breast. A mammogram was performed and demonstrated calcifications within the mass so a biopsy was obtained. The biopsy shows acinar proliferation with intralobular fibrosis. Which of the following conditions is most likely affecting this patient?
- A. Sclerosing adenosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Fibroadenoma
- C. Cystic hyperplasia
- D. Invasive lobular carcinoma
- E. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
Benign breast disease management Explanation: ***Sclerosing adenosis***
- This condition is characterized by **acinar proliferation with intralobular fibrosis**, which exactly matches the biopsy findings mentioned in the vignette.
- Sclerosing adenosis can present as a palpable mass with **calcifications on mammography**, mimicking carcinoma, necessitating biopsy for definitive diagnosis.
*Fibroadenoma*
- Characterized by proliferation of both **stromal and epithelial elements**, often forming well-circumscribed, mobile masses.
- While it can present as a mobile mass, the specific histological finding of "acinar proliferation with intralobular fibrosis" is not the primary descriptive characteristic of a fibroadenoma.
*Cystic hyperplasia*
- This term, often used interchangeably with **fibrocystic changes**, involves the formation of cysts and an increase in fibrous tissue.
- While it can involve hyperplasia, it doesn't typically describe the distinct pattern of "acinar proliferation with intralobular fibrosis" as seen in sclerosing adenosis.
*Invasive lobular carcinoma*
- This carcinoma is characterized by its **infiltrative growth pattern** often in single file lines, and typically does not form a well-defined mass.
- While it can present with calcifications, the absence of overt malignant features and the specific benign histological description rule out this diagnosis.
*Infiltrating ductal carcinoma*
- The most common type of breast cancer, characterized by **malignant epithelial cells infiltrating the stroma**.
- The biopsy findings described ("acinar proliferation with intralobular fibrosis") are features of a benign process, not a malignant one.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 9: A 27-year-old woman presents for her routine annual examination. She has no complaints. She has a 3-year-old child who was born via normal vaginal delivery with no complications. She had a Pap smear during her last pregnancy and the findings were normal. Her remaining past medical history is not significant, and her family history is also not significant. Recently, one of her close friends was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 36, and, after reading some online research, she wants to be checked for all types of cancer. Which of the following statements would be the best advice regarding the most appropriate screening tests for this patient?
- A. “Your last Pap smear 3 years ago was normal. We can repeat it after 2 more years.”
- B. “Remember that information on the internet is vague and unreliable. You don't need any screening tests at this time.”
- C. “Yes, you are right to be concerned. Let us do a mammogram and a blood test for CA-125.”
- D. “You need HPV (human papillomavirus) co-testing only.”
- E. “We should do a Pap smear now. Blood tests are not recommended for screening purposes.” (Correct Answer)
Benign breast disease management Explanation: ***We should do a Pap smear now. Blood tests are not recommended for screening purposes.***
- The current guidelines recommend Pap smears every 3 years for women aged 21-29. Although her last Pap smear was 3 years ago, it was done during pregnancy, and a **repeat Pap smear is indicated now** as she is at the end of the 3-year interval.
- **Blood tests like CA-125 are not recommended for routine cancer screening** in asymptomatic women due to their low specificity and sensitivity, which can lead to false positives and unnecessary invasive procedures.
*“Your last Pap smear 3 years ago was normal. We can repeat it after 2 more years.”*
- While a 3-year interval is generally appropriate, her last Pap smear was done 3 years ago and was performed during pregnancy, making a **repeat Pap smear indicated now** to remain within current screening guidelines.
- Delaying the Pap smear for another two years would exceed the recommended 3-year interval for cervical cancer screening in her age group.
*“Remember that information on the internet is vague and unreliable. You don't need any screening tests at this time.”*
- While caution about internet information is valid, it is **inaccurate to suggest no screening tests are needed** as the patient is due for a Pap smear based on her age and last screening date.
- Dismissing a patient's concerns outright without acknowledging valid screening needs can harm patient-doctor trust and lead to missed opportunities for preventive care.
*“Yes, you are right to be concerned. Let us do a mammogram and a blood test for CA-125.”*
- **Routine mammograms are not recommended for women under 40** without specific risk factors (e.g., strong family history, genetic mutations), which are not present here.
- **CA-125 is primarily used for monitoring ovarian cancer treatment** or evaluating women with symptoms, not for general population screening due to its low specificity.
*“You need HPV (human papillomavirus) co-testing only.”*
- **HPV co-testing (HPV test + Pap smear) is recommended for women aged 30 and older**, or as a follow-up to abnormal Pap smear results.
- For women aged 21-29, **primary Pap smear screening alone is recommended** every 3 years.
Benign breast disease management US Medical PG Question 10: A 58-year-old woman underwent mastectomy for multicentric DCIS. Final pathology shows high-grade DCIS with comedonecrosis, margins negative by 3 mm, no invasion identified in 40 tissue blocks examined. Sentinel lymph node biopsy shows isolated tumor cells (0.1 mm cluster) positive for cytokeratin. The medical oncologist requests input on systemic therapy. Evaluate the significance of the nodal finding and recommendations.
- A. Upstage to invasive cancer, recommend chemotherapy and endocrine therapy
- B. Perform completion axillary dissection to assess additional nodal involvement
- C. Consider isolated tumor cells clinically insignificant, node-negative staging, endocrine therapy only if ER-positive (Correct Answer)
- D. Recommend axillary radiation and systemic chemotherapy
- E. Repeat pathology review to identify occult invasion
Benign breast disease management Explanation: ***Consider isolated tumor cells clinically insignificant, node-negative staging, endocrine therapy only if ER-positive***
- Per AJCC guidelines, **isolated tumor cells (ITCs)** (clusters ≤ 0.2 mm or < 200 cells) are staged as **pN0(i+)**, which is considered node-negative disease.
- In the setting of pure **DCIS**, ITCs do not warrant staging as invasive cancer nor do they justify **systemic chemotherapy**; management depends solely on the tumor's **ER-status** for endocrine therapy.
*Upstage to invasive cancer, recommend chemotherapy and endocrine therapy*
- Staging cannot be upgraded to invasive cancer unless a **pathological focus of invasion** is identified in the breast tissue (T category).
- **Chemotherapy** is never indicated for pure DCIS, regardless of high-grade features or the presence of ITCs in the lymph nodes.
*Perform completion axillary dissection to assess additional nodal involvement*
- **Completion axillary lymph node dissection (ALND)** is not indicated for ITCs, as they do not carry the same prognostic weight as macro-metastases.
- In pure DCIS, the presence of ITCs is often attributed to **mechanical transport** of cells during biopsy rather than true metastatic potential.
*Recommend axillary radiation and systemic chemotherapy*
- **Axillary radiation** is reserved for patients with significant nodal burden and is inappropriate for **pN0(i+)** status.
- Because DCIS is a non-invasive, **pre-cancerous lesion** contained within the basement membrane, systemic chemotherapy provides no benefit and unnecessary toxicity.
*Repeat pathology review to identify occult invasion*
- While high-grade DCIS increases the risk of occult invasion, the examination of **40 tissue blocks** is considered exhaustive and standard for ruling out invasion.
- Persistent searching for micro-invasion after comprehensive sampling is unlikely to change the clinical management dictated by the **pN0(i+)** finding.
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