Breast Surgery

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 1: A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician 1 week after noticing a lump in her right breast. Fifteen years ago, she was diagnosed with osteosarcoma of her left distal femur. Her father died of an adrenocortical carcinoma at the age of 41 years. Examination shows a 2-cm, firm, immobile mass in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast. A core needle biopsy of the mass shows adenocarcinoma. Genetic analysis in this patient is most likely to show a defect in which of the following genes?

• A. BRCA1
• B. KRAS
• C. TP53 (Correct Answer)
• D. Rb
• E. PTEN

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***TP53*** - This patient's presentation with **early-onset breast cancer**, a history of **osteosarcoma** at a young age, and a father's death from **adrenocortical carcinoma** at 41 years strongly suggests **Li-Fraumeni syndrome**. - Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a germline mutation in the **tumor suppressor gene TP53**, increasing the risk for multiple primary cancers at a young age. *BRCA1* - While **BRCA1 mutations** are associated with an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer, they are not typically linked to osteosarcoma or adrenocortical carcinoma. - The constellation of cancers in this patient is more indicative of Li-Fraumeni syndrome than solely a BRCA1-related cancer syndrome. *KRAS* - **KRAS** is an oncogene commonly mutated in several cancers, including pancreatic, colorectal, and lung cancer, but is not primarily associated with either Li-Fraumeni syndrome or the specific tumors seen in this family history. - Mutations in KRAS are typically somatic mutations acquired during a person's lifetime, not germline mutations causing inherited cancer syndromes like the one suggested here. *Rb* - Mutations in the **retinoblastoma (Rb) gene** are associated with retinoblastoma and an increased risk of osteosarcoma, but not typically with adrenocortical carcinoma or breast cancer as part of a classic inherited syndrome. - The combination of breast cancer, osteosarcoma, and adrenocortical carcinoma points more specifically to TP53. *PTEN* - **PTEN mutations** are associated with Cowden syndrome, which increases the risk for breast cancer, thyroid cancer, and endometrial cancer, along with benign growths. - However, Cowden syndrome does not typically include osteosarcoma or adrenocortical carcinoma as prominent features, making PTEN less likely than TP53 for this specific family history.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 2: The patient undergoes a mammogram, which shows a 6.5mm sized mass with an irregular border and spiculated margins. A subsequent core needle biopsy of the mass shows infiltrating ductal carcinoma with HER2-positive, estrogen-negative, and progesterone-negative immunohistochemistry staining. Blood counts and liver function tests are normal. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL Serum Na+ 140 mEq/L Cl- 103 mEq/L K+ 4.2 mEq/L HCO3- 26 mEq/L Ca2+ 8.9 mg/dL Urea Nitrogen 12 mg/dL Glucose 110 mg/dL Alkaline Phosphatase 25 U/L Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 15 U/L Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 13 U/L Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

• A. Breast-conserving therapy and sentinel lymph node biopsy (Correct Answer)
• B. Bilateral mastectomy with lymph node dissection
• C. Trastuzumab therapy
• D. Bone scan
• E. Whole-body PET/CT

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Breast-conserving therapy and sentinel lymph node biopsy*** - The patient has **early-stage (T1) breast cancer** (6.5mm mass), which is amenable to **breast-conserving therapy (lumpectomy)** as the primary surgical approach. - A **sentinel lymph node biopsy** is essential to determine nodal status and guide further staging and adjuvant therapy, as the tumor size does not preclude nodal involvement. *Bilateral mastectomy with lymph node dissection* - This is an **overly aggressive surgical approach** for a small, unifocal tumor without evidence of multifocality or significant risk factors for recurrence in the contralateral breast. - While **axillary lymph node dissection** may be indicated if the sentinel node is positive, it is not the initial preferred approach for all patients, especially with no current evidence of nodal metastasis. *Trastuzumab therapy* - **Trastuzumab** is a targeted therapy for **HER2-positive breast cancer**, but it is typically administered as **adjuvant therapy** (after surgery) or neoadjuvant therapy (before surgery). - It is not the most appropriate *initial* next step before surgical management and comprehensive staging have been completed. *Bone scan* - A **bone scan** is used to detect **bone metastases**, but it is generally reserved for patients with **advanced-stage cancer** (e.g., T3/T4 tumor, N2/N3 nodes), symptoms suggestive of bony involvement, or significantly elevated alkaline phosphatase. - Given the patient's small tumor size (6.5mm), normal labs, and lack of symptoms, a bone scan is not indicated as the *next* immediate step. *Whole-body PET/CT* - **Whole-body PET/CT** is primarily used for **staging advanced cancer** or investigating suspicious findings in symptomatic patients. - For this small, early-stage breast cancer with no signs of distant metastasis indicated by normal blood tests, a PET/CT is **not recommended** as routine staging and carries unnecessary radiation exposure and cost.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 3: A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 16 weeks’ gestation presents to the physician because of swelling of her right breast for 1 month. She has no personal or family history of any serious illnesses. She has taken contraceptive pills over the past few years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows asymmetric breasts with the right breast being enlarged. The palpation of the breast shows a 4 x 5 cm (1.5 x 1.9 in) mass under the skin in the upper outer quadrant. It is nontender and mobile with a rubbery consistency and regular borders. A breast ultrasound shows a round and solid homogeneous mass with well-defined borders and low echogenicity, measuring 5 cm (1.9 in) in diameter. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Fibroadenoma (Correct Answer)
• B. Invasive ductal carcinoma
• C. Lobular carcinoma
• D. Medullary carcinoma
• E. Fibrocystic changes

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Fibroadenoma*** - The patient's age (23 years old), pregnancy status, and the description of the mass—**rubbery, mobile, nontender, with regular borders**, and **low echogenicity on ultrasound**—are highly characteristic of a fibroadenoma. - Fibroadenomas are **benign tumors** common in young women and can grow during pregnancy due to hormonal stimulation. *Invasive ductal carcinoma* - This typically presents as a **hard, fixed, irregular mass** that is often **nontender** but may cause skin dimpling or nipple retraction, none of which are described. - While it is the most common form of breast cancer, its characteristics **do not match** the highly mobile and rubbery nature of the described mass. *Lobular carcinoma* - Often presents as a **diffuse thickening** rather than a well-defined mass and can be multifocal or bilateral. - It's **less common** than invasive ductal carcinoma and its presentation is inconsistent with the clear, round mass described. *Medullary carcinoma* - This is a **rare subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma** that can appear well-circumscribed on imaging, mimicking a benign lesion. - However, it typically presents as a **firm, fixed mass** and is less likely in a young woman with a classic fibroadenoma presentation. *Fibrocystic changes* - Characterized by **multiple cysts, tenderness, and fluctuating size** with menstrual cycles; often described as "lumpy" breasts rather than a single, well-defined mass. - While common, the description of a **single, discrete, rubbery, mobile mass** is not typical for fibrocystic changes.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 4: A 52-year-old woman visits your office complaining about discharge from her left nipple for the past 3 months. The discharge looks like gray greenish and its amount is progressively increasing. She appears to be anxious and extremely uncomfortable with this situation as it is embarrassing for her when it occurs outdoors. Past medical history is insignificant. Her family history is negative for breast and ovarian disorders. She tries to stay active by running for 30 minutes every day on a treadmill, staying away from smoking, and by eating a balanced diet. She drinks alcohol occasionally. During physical examination you find a firm, stable mass under an inverted nipple in her left breast; while on the right breast, dilated subareolar ducts can be noted. There is no lymphadenopathy and remaining of the physical exam is normal. A mammogram is performed which reveals tubular calcifications. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Duct ectasia (Correct Answer)
• B. Periareolar fistula
• C. Intraductal papilloma
• D. Periductal mastitis
• E. Phyllodes tumor

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Duct ectasia*** - The patient's presentation with **gray-green nipple discharge**, an **inverted nipple**, and **tubular calcifications on mammogram** are classic signs of duct ectasia in a postmenopausal woman. - The presence of **dilated subareolar ducts** in the contralateral breast further supports this diagnosis, as it is a benign condition characterized by widening of the breast ducts. *Periareolar fistula* - This condition is typically associated with recurrent **subareolar abscesses** and chronic drainage, often from a nipple piercing or previous infection, which are not described here. - Periareolar fistulas rarely present solely with gray-green discharge and tubular calcifications without a clear history of infection or abscess. *Intraductal papilloma* - Intraductal papillomas usually present with **serous or bloody nipple discharge**, rather than the gray-green discharge seen in this patient. - While they can cause nipple discharge, they are not typically associated with **inverted nipples** or **tubular calcifications** on mammogram. *Periductal mastitis* - Periductal mastitis is an inflammatory condition that can cause nipple inversion and discharge, but the discharge is usually **purulent or inflammatory**, and it is often accompanied by signs of infection like pain, redness, and swelling, which are absent in this case. - It is more commonly seen in **smokers**, whereas this patient is a non-smoker. *Phyllodes tumor* - Phyllodes tumors usually present as a **rapidly growing palpable breast mass**, which may be benign or malignant, but they are not typically associated with nipple discharge or tubular calcifications. - The description of **gray-green discharge** and **tubular calcifications** does not align with the typical presentation of a phyllodes tumor.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 5: Patient 1 – A 26-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for an annual exam. She currently does not have any acute concerns and says her health has been generally well. Medical history is significant for asthma, which is managed with an albuterol inhaler. Her last pap smear was unremarkable. She is currently sexually active with one male and consistently uses condoms. She occasionally smokes marijuana and drinks wine once per week. Her mother recently passed away from advanced ovarian cancer. Her sister is 37-years-old and was recently diagnosed with breast cancer and ovarian cancer. Physical examination is remarkable for a mildly anxious woman. Patient 2 – A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for an annual exam. She says that she would like to be screened for breast cancer since two of her close friends were recently diagnosed. She noticed she has a small and mobile mass on her left breast, which increases in size and becomes tender around her time of menses. Family history is remarkable for hypertension in the father. The physical exam is significant for a small, well-defined, and mobile mass on her left breast that is not tender to palpation. Which of the following is the best next step in management for patient 1 and 2?

• A. Patient 1 – Breast ultrasound. Patient 2 – Return in 3 months for a clinical breast exam
• B. Patient 1 – Reassurance. Patient 2 – Breast ultrasound
• C. Patient 1 – CA-125 testing. Patient 2 – BRCA testing
• D. Patient 1 – BRCA testing. Patient 2 – Breast ultrasound (Correct Answer)
• E. Patient 1 – Breast and ovarian ultrasound. Patient 2 – Mammography

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Patient 1 – BRCA testing. Patient 2 – Breast ultrasound*** - Patient 1 has a strong family history of early-onset **breast and ovarian cancer** (**mother and sister**), suggesting a high probability of an inherited genetic mutation, such as **BRCA1/2**, which warrants genetic testing. - Patient 2 presents with a **small, mobile, well-defined breast mass** that is likely benign, and a **breast ultrasound** is the appropriate initial imaging for further characterization in a young woman. *Patient 1 – Breast ultrasound. Patient 2 – Return in 3 months for a clinical breast exam* - Patient 1's primary concern is genetic predisposition due to family history, an **ultrasound** is not the initial or primary screening method for future cancer risk. - Patient 2 has a palpable mass; waiting 3 months for a **clinical breast exam** without initial imaging (ultrasound) is not appropriate for evaluating a new breast lump. *Patient 1 – Reassurance. Patient 2 – Breast ultrasound* - Patient 1's family history of **early-onset breast and ovarian cancer** is a significant risk factor; therefore, simple **reassurance** without further investigation is inappropriate. - While a **breast ultrasound** is appropriate for Patient 2, the recommendation for Patient 1 is incorrect. *Patient 1 – CA-125 testing. Patient 2 – BRCA testing* - **CA-125** is a tumor marker primarily used for monitoring ovarian cancer treatment or recurrence, not for initial screening in asymptomatic individuals, especially in a young woman with no active symptoms. - **BRCA testing** is indicated for Patient 1 due to family history, but not for Patient 2 who has a likely benign breast mass and no significant family history. *Patient 1 – Breast and ovarian ultrasound. Patient 2 – Mammography* - Regular **breast and ovarian ultrasounds** are not recommended as primary screening tools for genetic risk in asymptomatic high-risk individuals like Patient 1. - **Mammography** is less sensitive in young women (under 30) due to higher breast tissue density, making **ultrasound** the preferred initial imaging for Patient 2.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 6: A 65-year-old woman returns to the outpatient oncology clinic to follow up on her recently diagnosed breast cancer. A few months ago, she noticed a lump during a breast self-exam that was shown to be breast cancer. A lumpectomy revealed invasive ductal carcinoma that was estrogen- and progesterone receptor-positive with nodal metastases. She is following up to discuss treatment options. She had her last menstrual period 10 years ago and has not had any spotting since that time. Her mother had breast cancer and she remembered her taking chemotherapy and had a poor quality of life, thus she asks not to be treated similarly. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the best treatment option for this patient?

• A. Cell cycle arrest
• B. Estrogen receptors downregulation in the breast
• C. Inhibit peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogen (Correct Answer)
• D. Antagonist for estrogen receptors in the breast
• E. Antagonist for estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Inhibit peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogen*** - The patient has **estrogen and progesterone receptor-positive breast cancer** and is **postmenopausal**. Aromatase inhibitors (e.g., anastrozole, letrozole, exemestane) are the best treatment option for postmenopausal women with hormone-sensitive breast cancer. - Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the **aromatase enzyme**, which is responsible for the peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogens, thereby reducing estrogen levels in postmenopausal women and inhibiting cancer growth. *Cell cycle arrest* - While many chemotherapeutic agents induce cell cycle arrest, this patient's preference for avoiding chemotherapy and the **hormone-sensitive nature of her cancer** suggest a less aggressive, targeted hormonal therapy is more appropriate. - Cell cycle arrest is a general mechanism for many cancer treatments, but it's not the primary, specific mechanism for the best treatment for this particular patient given her clinicopathological features and preferences. *Estrogen receptors downregulation in the breast* - This mechanism is characteristic of **selective estrogen receptor degraders (SERDs)** like fluvestrant, which destroy estrogen receptors. - While an effective treatment for hormone-sensitive breast cancer, especially in later lines, aromatase inhibitors are generally preferred as initial adjuvant therapy in postmenopausal women with positive nodal disease. *Antagonist for estrogen receptors in the breast* - This describes the mechanism of **selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)** such as tamoxifen, which act as antagonists in breast tissue and agonists in other tissues like bone. - Tamoxifen is primarily used in premenopausal women or in high-risk postmenopausal women who cannot tolerate aromatase inhibitors or for other specific indications; aromatase inhibitors are generally preferred for postmenopausal women with nodal involvement. *Antagonist for estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus* - Antagonism of estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus could theoretically impact the **hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis**, but this is not the direct or primary therapeutic mechanism for treating hormone-sensitive breast cancer. - Drugs like **clomiphene citrate**, which induce ovulation, act at the hypothalamus but are not used for breast cancer treatment.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 7: An obese 34-year-old primigravid woman at 20 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a follow-up examination for a mass she found in her left breast 2 weeks ago. Until pregnancy, menses had occurred at 30- to 40-day intervals since the age of 11 years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a 3.0-cm, non-mobile, firm, and nontender mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. There is no palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 20-week gestation. Mammography and core needle biopsy confirm an infiltrating lobular carcinoma. The pathological specimen is positive for estrogen and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) receptors and negative for progesterone receptors. Staging shows no distant metastatic disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

• A. Surgical resection and chemotherapy (Correct Answer)
• B. Surgical resection
• C. Radiotherapy and chemotherapy
• D. Radiotherapy only
• E. Surgical resection and radiotherapy

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Surgical resection and chemotherapy*** - This patient has **infiltrating lobular carcinoma** with **positive estrogen and HER2 receptors** but **negative progesterone receptors**. - Given the patient's **pregnancy status** and the tumor's receptor profile, chemotherapy is indicated in addition to surgical resection. *Surgical resection* - While surgical resection is a critical component of breast cancer treatment, it is insufficient alone for this patient given the tumor's aggressive features and receptor status, particularly the **HER2 positivity**. - **HER2-positive cancers** benefit significantly from targeted chemotherapy, which would be missed with surgery alone. *Radiotherapy and chemotherapy* - **Radiotherapy** for breast cancer typically involves daily treatments over several weeks and is often **deferred until after delivery** in pregnant patients due to potential fetal risks. - While chemotherapy is appropriate, initiation of radiotherapy is generally postponed or individualized based on gestational age and specific circumstances. *Radiotherapy only* - **Radiotherapy alone** is not an appropriate primary treatment for an invasive breast carcinoma in this context. - It often follows surgery to reduce local recurrence but does not address the systemic nature of **HER2-positive cancer**. *Surgical resection and radiotherapy* - As mentioned, **radiotherapy** is generally avoided or delayed in pregnant patients due to concerns about **fetal exposure**. - Moreover, this approach omits **chemotherapy**, which is crucial for **HER2-positive breast cancer** to prevent recurrence and improve survival.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 8: A 32-year-old woman presented for her annual physical examination. She mentioned that her family history had changed since her last visit: her mother was recently diagnosed with breast cancer and her sister tested positive for the BRCA2 mutation. The patient, therefore, requested testing as well. If the patient tests positive for the BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation, which of the following is the best screening approach?

• A. Order magnetic resonance imaging of the breast
• B. Annual ultrasound, annual mammography, and monthly self-breast exams
• C. Twice-yearly clinical breast exams, annual mammography, annual breast MRI, and breast self-exams (Correct Answer)
• D. Annual clinical breast exams, annual mammography, and monthly self-breast exams
• E. Refer to radiation therapy

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Twice-yearly clinical breast exams, annual mammography, annual breast MRI, and breast self-exams*** - For patients with **BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations**, an intensive breast cancer screening protocol is recommended due to their highly increased lifetime risk of breast cancer. - This typically includes **semiannual clinical breast exams**, **annual mammography**, and **annual breast MRI**, often starting at a young age. *Order magnetic resonance imaging of the breast* - While MRI is a crucial part of screening for high-risk individuals, it is **not sufficient as a standalone screening modality**. - A comprehensive approach combining multiple screening methods is needed to maximize detection rates. *Annual ultrasound, annual mammography, and monthly self-breast exams* - **Breast ultrasound** is generally used as an adjunct to mammography when specific abnormalities are found or in women with dense breasts, not as a routine primary screening tool for BRCA carriers. - While **mammography** and **self-breast exams** are included, this option lacks the crucial **annual MRI** and **twice-yearly clinical breast exams** recommended for BRCA carriers. *Annual clinical breast exams, annual mammography, and monthly self-breast exams* - This protocol is **less intensive** than what is recommended for women with BRCA mutations. - It omits the essential **annual breast MRI** and the **twice-yearly clinical breast exams** that are critical for early detection in this high-risk population. *Refer to radiation therapy* - **Radiation therapy** is a treatment modality for existing cancer, not a screening approach for cancer prevention or early detection. - Referring for radiation therapy would be appropriate only after a diagnosis of breast cancer, not as a primary screening strategy.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 9: A 39-year-old man presents with painless swelling of the right testis and a sensation of heaviness. The physical examination revealed an intra-testicular solid mass that could not be felt separately from the testis. After a thorough evaluation, he was diagnosed with testicular seminoma. Which of the following group of lymph nodes are most likely involved?

• A. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (lateral group)
• B. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
• C. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (medial group)
• D. Para-rectal lymph nodes
• E. Para-aortic lymph nodes (Correct Answer)

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Para-aortic lymph nodes*** - The **testes** develop in the abdomen and descend into the scrotum, retaining their original lymphatic drainage. Therefore, **testicular cancer** typically metastasizes to the **para-aortic** (or retroperitoneal) lymph nodes, which are located near the renal veins at the level of L1-L2. - This is the primary lymphatic drainage pathway for the testes. *Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (lateral group)* - These lymph nodes primarily drain the skin of the **scrotum**, perineum, and lower limbs, but not the **testes** themselves. - Involvement would suggest spread to the scrotal skin or compromised lymphatic flow due to prior scrotal surgery or infection, which is not indicated here. *Deep inguinal lymph nodes* - **Deep inguinal lymph nodes** drain structures deeper in the leg and gluteal region, as well as receiving efferent vessels from the superficial inguinal nodes. - They are not the primary drainage site for the **testes**. *Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (medial group)* - Similar to the lateral group, the **medial superficial inguinal lymph nodes** primarily drain the external genitalia (excluding the testes), perineum, and lower abdominal wall. - They are not the direct drainage route for **testicular cancer**. *Para-rectal lymph nodes* - **Para-rectal lymph nodes** are located near the rectum and are involved in the drainage of the rectum and lower sigmoid colon. - They have no direct connection to the lymphatic drainage of the **testes**.

Breast Surgery US Medical PG Question 10: A 64-year-old woman presents to the surgical oncology clinic as a new patient for evaluation of recently diagnosed breast cancer. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus for which she takes metformin. Her surgical history is a total knee arthroplasty 7 years ago. Her family history is insignificant. Physical examination is notable for an irregular nodule near the surface of her right breast. Her primary concern today is which surgical approach will be chosen to remove her breast cancer. Which of the following procedures involves the removal of a portion of a breast?

• A. Arthroplasty
• B. Lumpectomy (Correct Answer)
• C. Vasectomy
• D. Mastectomy
• E. Laminectomy

Breast Surgery Explanation: ***Lumpectomy*** - A **lumpectomy** is a surgical procedure that removes the **breast cancer tumor** and a small margin of surrounding healthy tissue, preserving most of the breast. - This procedure is a common treatment for early-stage breast cancer and is often followed by radiation therapy. *Arthroplasty* - **Arthroplasty** is a surgical procedure to **repair or replace a joint**, typically due to arthritis or injury. - The patient's history of a total knee arthroplasty indicates this procedure was performed on her knee, not her breast. *Vasectomy* - A **vasectomy** is a surgical procedure for **male sterilization**, involving the cutting and sealing of the vas deferens. - This procedure is unrelated to breast cancer treatment or breast surgery. *Mastectomy* - A **mastectomy** involves the **complete surgical removal of the entire breast**, often including the nipple and areola. - While it is a breast surgery, it removes the *entire* breast, not just a portion. *Laminectomy* - A **laminectomy** is a surgical procedure that removes a portion of the **vertebra (lamina)** to relieve pressure on the spinal cord or nerves. - This procedure is for spinal conditions and is entirely unrelated to breast cancer surgery.

Breast Surgery Flashcard 1 of 8

Question: EF < _____% and MI within _____ months are absolute contraindications to non-cardiac surgery

Answer: 35

Extra Information:  https://onlinemeded.org/spa/surgery?ref=anki 

Breast Surgery Flashcard 2 of 8

Question: Invasive ductal carcinoma presents on physical exam with a firm, fibrous "_____" mass with sharp margins

Answer: rock-hard

Breast Surgery Flashcard 3 of 8

Question: Cutaneous healing by _____ intention is when the wound edges are brought together (e.g. suturing a surgical incision)

Answer: primary

Breast Surgery Flashcard 4 of 8

Question: What type of graft is from self? _____

Answer: Autograft

Breast Surgery Flashcard 5 of 8

Question: Do keloid scars typically recur? _____

Answer: Yes

Breast Surgery Flashcard 6 of 8

Question: What type of graft is from a different species? _____

Answer: Xenograft

Breast Surgery Flashcard 7 of 8

Question: Neuro/Psych _____ is a skeletal muscle hypersensitivity to volatile anesthetics

Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

Breast Surgery Flashcard 8 of 8

Question: Which type of carcinoma forms below the pectinate line?_____

Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma