Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Anesthesia for emergency surgery. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 1: A 45-year-old man was a driver in a motor vehicle collision. The patient is not able to offer a medical history during initial presentation. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 104/74 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On exam, he does not open his eyes, he withdraws to pain, and he makes incomprehensible sounds. He has obvious signs of trauma to the chest and abdomen. His abdomen is distended and markedly tender to palpation. He also has an obvious open deformity of the left femur. What is the best initial step in management?
- A. Emergency open fracture repair
- B. Packed red blood cells
- C. Exploratory laparotomy
- D. Intubation (Correct Answer)
- E. 100% oxygen
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Intubation***
- The patient's **Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 7** (E=1, V=2, M=4), which is below 8 and indicates a severe head injury needing **airway protection** via intubation.
- A GCS ≤ 8 mandates **definitive airway management** to prevent aspiration and ensure adequate ventilation.
*Emergency open fracture repair*
- While the patient has an open femur fracture, it is not the most immediate life-threatening concern after a major trauma; **airway and breathing** take precedence.
- **Hemorrhage control** and **stabilization** often precede definitive orthopedic repair in polytrauma.
*Packed red blood cells*
- Although the patient is likely in **hemorrhagic shock** (tachycardia, hypotension, obvious trauma), administering blood products without first securing the airway is not the initial priority.
- **Circulation** management, including fluid resuscitation and blood products, follows **airway and breathing** establishment.
*Exploratory laparotomy*
- The patient's distended and tender abdomen strongly suggests intra-abdominal injury, but this is a **diagnostic and therapeutic procedure** that comes after initial resuscitation and stabilization.
- **Emergent laparotomy** for abdominal trauma is considered once the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation are secured.
*100% oxygen*
- Administering 100% oxygen is part of initial resuscitation, but it does not address the fundamental problem of an unsecured airway and the risk of **hypoventilation** or **aspiration** in a patient with a GCS of 7.
- Oxygen supplementation helps improve saturation in spontaneously breathing patients but cannot protect a compromised airway.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 2: A 34-year-old woman is recovering in the post-operative unit following a laparoscopic procedure for chronic endometriosis. She had initially presented with complaints of painful menstrual cramps that kept her bedridden most of the day. She also mentioned to her gynecologist that she had been diagnosed with endometriosis 4 years ago, and she could not find a medication or alternative therapeutic measure that helped. Her medical history was significant for surgery she had 6 years ago to remove tumors she had above her kidneys, after which she was prescribed hydrocortisone. An hour after the laparoscopic procedure, she calls the nurse because she is having difficulty breathing. The nurse records her vital signs include: blood pressure 85/55 mm Hg, respirations 20/min, and pulse 115/min. The patient suddenly loses consciousness. Intravenous fluids are started immediately. She gains consciousness, but her blood pressure is unchanged. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the hypotension?
- A. Bleeding profusely through the surgical site
- B. Improper supplementation of steroids (Correct Answer)
- C. Infection involving the suture line
- D. High doses of anesthetic drugs
- E. Loss of fluids during the procedure
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Improper supplementation of steroids***
- The patient's history of **bilateral adrenalectomy (tumors above kidneys)** for which she was prescribed **hydrocortisone** indicates **adrenal insufficiency**. Stressful events like surgery require an increased dose of steroids, and improper supplementation can lead to an **adrenal crisis**.
- The symptoms of **hypotension, tachycardia, and loss of consciousness** are characteristic of an **adrenal crisis (acute adrenal insufficiency)**, which occurs when the body lacks sufficient cortisol during stress.
*Bleeding profusely through the surgical site*
- While **hemorrhage** can cause hypotension and tachycardia, the patient regained consciousness with IV fluids but her **blood pressure remained unchanged**, which is less typical for isolated blood loss if volume is restored without addressing the underlying cause.
- There is no direct mention of visible bleeding, the prompt only states the patient lost consciousness and her blood pressure is unchanged.
*Infection involving the suture line*
- **Surgical site infections** typically manifest several days post-op, presenting with **fever, erythema, and purulent drainage**, not acute hypotension and loss of consciousness an hour after surgery.
- The immediate post-operative timeline and systemic symptoms are not consistent with a localized wound infection as the primary cause of this acute decline.
*High doses of anesthetic drugs*
- Anesthetic drugs can cause **vasodilation and hypotension**. However, their effects are usually transient and would likely resolve more completely with IV fluids, especially an hour after a laparoscopic procedure.
- If it was due to anesthetic drugs, the patient's blood pressure would likely normalize with fluid administration once the effects of the anesthetic began to wear off, which is not the case here.
*Loss of fluids during the procedure*
- **Fluid loss** during surgery can cause hypotension, but intravenous fluids were administered, and the patient regained consciousness.
- If fluid loss were the sole cause, resolving consciousness and maintaining low blood pressure typically indicates the fluid loss was not completely compensated, but the primary cause for the persistent hypotension is not just volume.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 3: A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department by ambulance after being involved in a fight. On arrival, there is obvious trauma to his face and neck, and his mouth is full of blood. Seconds after suctioning the blood, his mouth rapidly fills up with blood again. As a result, he is unable to speak to you. An attempt at direct laryngoscopy fails as a result of his injuries. His vital signs are pulse 102/min, blood pressure 110/75 mmHg, and O2 saturation 97%. Which of the following is indicated at this time?
- A. Cricothyroidotomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
- C. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- D. Nasogastric tube
- E. Endotracheal intubation
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Cricothyroidotomy***
- The patient has an actively bleeding airway that cannot be managed with suction, and **endotracheal intubation** failed, indicating a need for an **emergency surgical airway**.
- **Cricothyroidotomy** is the most rapid and effective method to establish a definitive airway in such a circumstance, bypassing the upper airway obstruction caused by blood and trauma.
*Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)*
- **CPAP** provides positive pressure ventilation and is used for respiratory support in conditions like **sleep apnea** or **congestive heart failure**, not for airway obstruction due to trauma and bleeding.
- It would not address the actively bleeding airway or the inability to ventilate, and could potentially worsen the situation by pushing blood further into the lungs.
*Cardiopulmonary resuscitation*
- **CPR** is indicated for **cardiac arrest** or profound bradypnea/apnea, which is not the primary issue here, as the patient still has a pulse and blood pressure.
- While the patient's airway is compromised, his vital signs do not indicate the need for chest compressions or rescue breaths as the initial intervention.
*Nasogastric tube*
- A **nasogastric tube** is used for **gastric decompression** or **enteral feeding**, and it does not play a role in securing an airway in an emergency situation.
- Attempting to place an NG tube would divert critical time and resources away from establishing a patent airway.
*Endotracheal intubation*
- **Endotracheal intubation** was already attempted and **failed** due to the patient's severe facial and neck trauma, and the continuous bleeding.
- This option is therefore not viable, and a surgical airway is required as the next step.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 4: A 63-year-old man undergoes workup for nocturnal dyspnea and what he describes as a "choking" sensation while sleeping. He also endorses fatigue and dyspnea on exertion. Physical exam reveals a normal S1, loud P2, and a neck circumference of 17 inches (43 cm) (normal < 14 inches (< 35 cm)). His temperature is 98.8°F (37°C), blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 19/min. He undergoes spirometry, which is unrevealing, and polysomnography, which shows 16 hypopneic and apneic events per hour. Mean pulmonary arterial pressure is 30 mmHg. Which of the following complications is this patient most at risk for?
- A. Left ventricular failure
- B. Right ventricular failure (Correct Answer)
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Aspiration pneumonia
- E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Right ventricular failure***
- The patient's symptoms (nocturnal dyspnea, choking sensation, fatigue, exertional dyspnea), risk factors (large neck circumference), and polysomnography results (16 hypopneic/apneic events/hour) are consistent with **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**.
- OSA leads to **chronic intermittent hypoxia** and hypercapnia, causing **pulmonary vasoconstriction** and increased pulmonary arterial pressure (mean PAP 30 mmHg), which can result in **pulmonary hypertension** and eventually **right ventricular failure**.
*Left ventricular failure*
- While OSA can exacerbate cardiovascular conditions, the primary cardiac complication directly resulting from ongoing pulmonary hypertension due to OSA is typically right-sided, not primarily left-sided, failure.
- There are no specific findings in the description (e.g., S3 gallop, crackles) that strongly point to left ventricular dysfunction as the most immediate and direct complication.
*Pulmonary embolism*
- Although obesity (suggested by large neck circumference) is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism, there are no acute symptoms (e.g., sudden onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis) or signs (e.g., tachycardia, hypoxemia) to suggest a pulmonary embolism.
- The patient's symptoms are chronic and related to sleep-disordered breathing and pulmonary hypertension.
*Aspiration pneumonia*
- While a "choking" sensation could potentially lead to aspiration, there's no evidence of infection (e.g., fever, productive cough, crackles) or recurrent aspiration events.
- The primary respiratory pathology is clearly defined by the polysomnography and elevated pulmonary pressures.
*Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease*
- Spirometry was reported as "unrevealing," which rules out significant airflow limitation characteristic of COPD.
- The patient's symptoms are more indicative of sleep-disordered breathing and its cardiovascular consequences rather than an intrinsic obstructive lung disease like COPD.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 5: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 6: A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance following a motor vehicle accident. He was pinned between 2 cars for several hours. The patient has a history of asthma. He uses an albuterol inhaler intermittently. The patient was not the driver, and admits to having a few beers at a party prior to the accident. His vitals in the ambulance are stable. Upon presentation to the emergency department, the patient is immediately brought to the operating room for evaluation and surgical intervention. It is determined that the patient’s right leg has a Gustilo IIIC injury in the mid-shaft of the tibia with a severely comminuted fracture. The patient’s left leg suffered a similar injury but with damage to the peroneal nerve. The anesthesiologist begins to induce anesthesia. Which of the following agents would be contraindicated in this patient?
- A. Halothane
- B. Propofol
- C. Etomidate
- D. Succinylcholine (Correct Answer)
- E. Neostigmine
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Succinylcholine***
- Given the history of the patient being pinned between two cars for several hours, there is a significant risk of **rhabdomyolysis** and subsequent hyperkalemia.
- **Succinylcholine**, a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, can cause a sudden and significant release of potassium from muscle cells, leading to **life-threatening hyperkalemia** in patients with rhabdomyolysis or crush injuries.
*Halothane*
- While **halothane** has been associated with **malignant hyperthermia**, the patient's history does not directly suggest an increased risk for this condition here.
- It also has a bronchodilating effect, which could be beneficial for a patient with a history of **asthma**.
*Propofol*
- **Propofol** is a commonly used intravenous anesthetic for induction and maintenance, providing rapid onset and recovery.
- There are generally no specific contraindications for propofol in a patient with a crush injury or asthma.
*Etomidate*
- **Etomidate** is an intravenous anesthetic agent known for its **cardiovascular stability**, making it a good choice for hemodynamically unstable patients.
- It can cause adrenal suppression, but this is usually a concern with prolonged infusions, not a single induction dose.
*Neostigmine*
- **Neostigmine** is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers.
- It is not an induction agent and would not be used at the beginning of anesthesia induction.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 7: A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain that started 1 hour ago. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and hypertension as well as a 40 pack-year smoking history. His blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 130/min, respirations are 23/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. An abdominal ultrasound demonstrates focal dilation of the aorta with peri-aortic fluid. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
- A. Serial annual abdominal ultrasounds
- B. Emergent surgical intervention (Correct Answer)
- C. Administer labetalol
- D. Counsel the patient in smoking cessation
- E. Urgent surgery within the next day
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Emergent surgical intervention***
- The patient's presentation with acute **abdominal pain**, **hypotension**, and **tachycardia** combined with ultrasound findings of focal aortic dilation and peri-aortic fluid strongly suggests a **ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)**.
- A ruptured AAA is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate surgical repair to prevent further hemorrhage and death.
*Serial annual abdominal ultrasounds*
- This approach is appropriate for asymptomatic patients with smaller, stable AAAs (typically <5.5 cm) to monitor for growth.
- In this case, the patient is symptomatic with signs of rupture, making surveillance an inappropriate and dangerous management strategy.
*Administer labetalol*
- Medications like labetalol are used to control blood pressure in conditions like aortic dissection or to slow the progression of AAAs, but they are contraindicated in hypotensive patients with a ruptured AAA.
- In this patient, labetalol would worsen the existing hypotension and could lead to cardiovascular collapse.
*Counsel the patient in smoking cessation*
- Smoking cessation is a crucial long-term intervention to reduce the risk of AAA expansion and rupture.
- While important, it does not address the immediate, life-threatening emergency of a ruptured AAA.
*Urgent surgery within the next day*
- Waiting until the next day for surgery in a patient with a suspected ruptured AAA is unacceptable.
- The patient's hemodynamic instability (hypotension, tachycardia) indicates active bleeding, and any delay significantly increases morbidity and mortality.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 8: A 79-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit for hospital acquired pneumonia, a COPD flare, and acute heart failure requiring intubation and mechanical ventilation. On his first night in the intensive care unit, his temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 107/58 mm Hg, and pulse is 150/min which is a sudden change from his previous vitals. Physical exam is notable for jugular venous distension and a rapid heart rate. The ventilator is checked and is functioning normally. Which of the following is the best next step in management for the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tube thoracostomy
- B. FAST exam
- C. Needle thoracostomy (Correct Answer)
- D. Chest radiograph
- E. Thoracotomy
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Needle thoracostomy***
- The patient's sudden deterioration with **tachycardia**, **hypotension**, and **jugular venous distension** (JVD) in the setting of positive pressure ventilation strongly suggests a **tension pneumothorax**.
- **Needle decompression** is the immediate life-saving intervention for suspected tension pneumothorax, as delaying treatment for diagnostic imaging could be fatal.
*Tube thoracostomy*
- While a **tube thoracostomy** (chest tube insertion) is the definitive treatment for pneumothorax, it requires more time and resources than needle decompression.
- In a true emergency with signs of tension, needle decompression should be performed first to stabilize the patient, followed by a chest tube.
*FAST exam*
- A **Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) exam** is primarily used to detect free fluid (usually blood) in the abdomen or pericardium in trauma patients.
- While it can sometimes identify pneumothorax, it is not the fastest or most direct intervention for a suspected tension pneumothorax causing hemodynamic instability.
*Chest radiograph*
- A **chest radiograph (CXR)** is the standard diagnostic tool for pneumothorax, but obtaining and interpreting it would delay urgent intervention in a hemodynamically unstable patient with suspected tension pneumothorax.
- The diagnosis of tension pneumothorax is primarily clinical; treatment should not wait for imaging.
*Thoracotomy*
- A **thoracotomy** is a major surgical procedure involving opening the chest, typically reserved for severe trauma, massive hemorrhage, or complex thoracic issues.
- It is an overly aggressive and inappropriate initial intervention for a suspected tension pneumothorax.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 9: A 19-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 35 minutes after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. On arrival, he is alert, has mild chest pain, and minimal shortness of breath. He has one episode of vomiting in the hospital. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 108/min, respirations are 23/min, and blood pressure is 90/70 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 92%. Examination shows multiple abrasions over his trunk and right upper extremity. There are coarse breath sounds over the right lung base. Cardiac examination shows no murmurs, rubs, or gallop. Infusion of 0.9% saline is begun. He subsequently develops increasing shortness of breath. Arterial blood gas analysis on 60% oxygen shows:
pH 7.36
pCO2 39 mm Hg
pO2 68 mm Hg
HCO3- 18 mEq/L
O2 saturation 81%
An x-ray of the chest shows patchy, irregular infiltrates over the right lung fields. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Pneumothorax
- B. Pulmonary contusion (Correct Answer)
- C. Aspiration pneumonia
- D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
- E. Pulmonary embolism
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Pulmonary contusion***
- The patient's presentation with **hypoxia**, increasing shortness of breath after a high-speed motor vehicle collision, and **patchy, irregular infiltrates** on chest x-ray despite initial hydration, are highly suggestive of **pulmonary contusion**.
- The coarse breath sounds over the right lung base further support the presence of parenchymal injury and hemorrhage in the lung tissue.
*Pneumothorax*
- While a pneumothorax is common after trauma, the chest x-ray would typically show a **collapsed lung** and **absence of lung markings** in the affected area, which is not described.
- The presence of coarse breath sounds suggests air entry, not a complete absence due to collapsed lung.
*Aspiration pneumonia*
- Although the patient had one episode of vomiting, **aspiration pneumonia** typically develops hours to days after aspiration, presenting with fever and signs of infection.
- The acute onset of symptoms within minutes of trauma and the lack of fever make aspiration pneumonia less likely as the primary diagnosis immediately following the accident.
*Acute respiratory distress syndrome*
- **Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)** is a severe inflammatory lung injury that typically develops **24 to 72 hours** after an initial insult, not immediately.
- While the patient has hypoxia, the diffuse bilateral infiltrates characteristic of ARDS are not seen, and his symptoms are too acute for ARDS to be the primary cause at 35 minutes post-injury.
*Pulmonary embolism*
- A **pulmonary embolism** would typically present with sudden onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain, often without significant findings on chest x-ray or presenting with a **wedge-shaped infiltrate**.
- Given the direct chest trauma and immediate onset of respiratory compromise, a pulmonary contusion is a more direct and acute consequence.
Anesthesia for emergency surgery US Medical PG Question 10: A 3-year-old boy is brought to a respiratory specialist. The family physician referred the child because of recurrent respiratory infections over the past 2 years. Chest X-rays showed a lesion of < 2 cm that includes glands and cysts in the upper lobe of the right lung. Diseases affecting the immune system were investigated and ruled out. No family history of any pulmonary disease or congenital malformations exists. He was born at full term via a normal vaginal delivery with an APGAR score of 10. Which of the following should be highly considered for effective management of this child’s condition?
- A. Lobectomy
- B. Antibiotics
- C. Observation
- D. Bronchoscopy (Correct Answer)
- E. Pneumonectomy
Anesthesia for emergency surgery Explanation: ***Bronchoscopy***
- A **bronchoscopy** would be highly considered to **visualize** the lesion, obtain a **biopsy**, and potentially **remove** any obstructing foreign bodies or mucous plugs contributing to recurrent infections.
- Given the description of a lesion < 2 cm with glands and cysts, it is crucial to further characterize it to guide definitive treatment and rule out possibilities like a **bronchial anomaly** or a **benign tumor**.
*Lobectomy*
- **Lobectomy** is a surgical procedure to remove an entire lung lobe; it might be considered if the lesion is definitively diagnosed as a **congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)** or other localized, symptomatic anomaly, but not as the initial management step without a clear diagnosis.
- Doing a lobectomy without proper diagnosis might be too invasive and aggressive when other less invasive management options are available.
*Antibiotics*
- **Antibiotics** are appropriate for treating the recurrent respiratory infections themselves but will not address the underlying structural lesion causing them.
- While they might provide temporary relief from infections, they do not offer a long-term solution for the **structural abnormality** described.
*Observation*
- **Observation** might be considered for small, asymptomatic lesions, but this child has **recurrent respiratory infections**, suggesting the lesion is clinically significant and warrants intervention.
- Delaying diagnosis and treatment could lead to persistent morbidity and potentially irreversible lung damage.
*Pneumonectomy*
- **Pneumonectomy**, the removal of an entire lung, is a major and highly aggressive surgery reserved for extensive, **life-threatening conditions** such as large malignancies or widespread irreversible lung disease.
- Given the lesion is < 2 cm and localized to one lobe, a pneumonectomy is an **overly extreme measure** and not indicated at this stage.
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