Contingency management US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Contingency management. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 1: A 47-year-old male presents to a psychiatrist for the first time, explaining that he is tired of living his 'double life.' At church, he preaches vehemently against the sin of drinking alcohol, but at home he gets drunk every night. Which of the following ego defenses best explains his behavior?
- A. Acting out
- B. Projection
- C. Rationalization
- D. Reaction formation (Correct Answer)
- E. Displacement
Contingency management Explanation: ***Correct: Reaction formation***
- **Reaction formation** involves unconsciously replacing an unacceptable feeling or urge with its directly opposing, more acceptable counterpart.
- The patient's vehement preaching against alcohol (opposite of his secret drinking) is a classic example of this defense mechanism.
- This defense allows him to manage the anxiety from his unacceptable impulse by adopting an extreme opposite public stance.
*Incorrect: Acting out*
- **Acting out** is the expression of an unconscious emotional conflict or impulse through action, often destructive or inappropriate behaviors.
- While his drinking could be considered acting out, the key feature of this case is his public preaching against the very behavior he engages in privately, which is more specific to reaction formation.
*Incorrect: Projection*
- **Projection** is attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses to another person.
- The patient is not attributing his drinking problem to others; he is actively opposing it publicly while engaging in it privately.
*Incorrect: Rationalization*
- **Rationalization** is concocting a seemingly logical reason or excuse for an unacceptable behavior or impulse.
- The patient is not trying to explain away his drinking; rather, he is defending against the impulse by adopting an extreme opposing stance.
*Incorrect: Displacement*
- **Displacement** is redirecting one's feelings (often hostility or anger) from the original target to a less threatening substitute.
- There is no evidence of him redirecting emotions from one target to another in this scenario.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 2: A 22-year-old man seeks help from a physician for his heroin addiction. He tells the doctor that he started using heroin at the age of 17 and gradually started increasing the dose. He has been trying to quit for the last 6 months after realizing the negative consequences of his addiction but has not succeeded because of the withdrawal symptoms. The physician suggests a drug that can be taken within a supervised rehabilitation program as a substitute for heroin to help alleviate withdrawal symptoms. The drug will then be tapered over time. He is further informed by the physician that this drug is not to be taken by the patient on his own and is not used for emergency reversal of opioid overdose. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have been recommended by the physician?
- A. Clonidine
- B. Naltrexone
- C. Methadone (Correct Answer)
- D. Naloxone
- E. Codeine
Contingency management Explanation: **Methadone**
- **Methadone** is a long-acting opioid agonist used in **medically supervised settings** for opioid addiction treatment, acting as a substitute to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and cravings.
- Its long half-life allows for **once-daily dosing**, making it suitable for gradual tapering and preventing acute withdrawal, but it is **not used for emergency reversal** of opioid overdose due to its slow onset and prolonged effects.
*Clonidine*
- **Clonidine** is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to manage **autonomic symptoms of opioid withdrawal** (e.g., sweating, anxiety, muscle aches) but does not directly address opioid cravings or act as an opioid substitute.
- It works by **reducing sympathetic nervous system activity** and can cause sedation and hypotension, but it's not the primary opioid substitution therapy.
*Naltrexone*
- **Naltrexone** is an **opioid receptor antagonist** used to prevent relapse by blocking the euphoric effects of opioids, but it is not used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms.
- It should only be administered after **opioid detoxification is complete**, as giving it to someone with opioids in their system can precipitate severe, acute withdrawal.
*Naloxone*
- **Naloxone** is a pure **opioid receptor antagonist** used primarily to **rapidly reverse opioid overdose** by displacing opioids from their receptors in emergency situations.
- Due to its **short half-life** and immediate action, it is not suitable for the sustained management of withdrawal symptoms or as a substitute for opioids in addiction treatment programs.
*Codeine*
- **Codeine** is an opioid analgesic and antitussive that has a **high potential for abuse and dependence** itself, making it unsuitable as a substitute treatment for heroin addiction.
- Although it can alleviate pain and cough, using codeine in this context would essentially be **substituting one opioid addiction for another**, which is contrary to the goals of addiction treatment.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 3: A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police for aggressive behavior. The patient is combative and shouts sexually aggressive remarks at the nursing staff. While obtaining the patient’s vitals, it is noted that he has markedly dilated pupils. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Urine toxicology is obtained and sent off. Physical exam is notable for an energetic patient with dilated pupils and increased sweating. The patient spends the night in the emergency department. In the morning the patient is withdrawn and has a notable depressed affect. He apologizes for his behavior the previous night and states that he is concerned about his problem and wants help. Which of the following is appropriate management of this patient?
- A. Medical detoxification program
- B. Motivational interviewing session
- C. Discharge with outpatient follow-up
- D. Psychiatric evaluation and assessment
- E. Referral to substance abuse treatment program (Correct Answer)
Contingency management Explanation: ***Referral to substance abuse treatment program***
- The patient exhibits classic features of **stimulant intoxication** (aggression, dilated pupils, tachycardia, sweating) followed by the typical **"crash" phase** with withdrawal and depressed affect, most consistent with cocaine or amphetamine use.
- Most importantly, the patient **expresses desire for help** the next morning—this represents a **critical window of opportunity** for intervention while motivation is high.
- **Stimulant withdrawal is not medically dangerous** and does not require medical detoxification (unlike alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal), so the patient can be directly referred to a substance abuse treatment program.
- **Immediate referral** is the standard of care to capitalize on the patient's readiness for change, as delaying treatment risks losing motivation and potential relapse.
*Medical detoxification program*
- Medical detoxification is **not indicated for stimulant use disorder** because stimulant withdrawal, while uncomfortable (fatigue, depression, increased appetite, vivid dreams), is **not medically dangerous** and has no life-threatening complications.
- Unlike alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, there are **no medications required** for stimulant withdrawal management, and symptoms are self-limited.
- The patient is already past the acute intoxication phase and does not require medical detoxification before entering treatment.
*Motivational interviewing session*
- While motivational interviewing is a valuable evidence-based technique to enhance intrinsic motivation for behavior change, it is typically **a component within a comprehensive treatment program** rather than standalone definitive management.
- The patient has **already expressed motivation** ("concerned about his problem and wants help"), so the priority is to act on this motivation with immediate treatment referral rather than further motivational work.
*Discharge with outpatient follow-up*
- Simply discharging with outpatient follow-up is **insufficient** and risks losing the patient during this critical window of motivation.
- Patients with substance use disorders often have **poor follow-up rates** when not immediately connected to treatment, and motivation can wane quickly after the acute consequences resolve.
- More structured and immediate intervention is needed given the severity of the presentation and expressed desire for help.
*Psychiatric evaluation and assessment*
- While psychiatric comorbidities are common in patients with substance use disorders and should eventually be assessed, this is **not the immediate priority** when a patient is requesting help for substance abuse.
- Comprehensive psychiatric evaluation can be performed **within the substance abuse treatment program** where co-occurring disorders can be addressed simultaneously.
- The primary presenting problem is substance use, and immediate treatment engagement takes precedence.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 4: A 40-year-old man is brought into the emergency department because he was involved in a bar fight and sustained an injury to the head. The next day, as requested by the patient, the psychiatry team is called to address some of the concerns he has regarding his drinking habits. He admits that he got irate last night at the bar because his driver’s license was recently taken away and his wife had taken his children to live with her parents because of his drinking problem. He drinks 4–6 beers on a weeknight and more on the weekends. He wants to know if there is anything that could help him at this point. Which stage of overcoming his addiction is this patient currently in?
- A. Action
- B. Precontemplation
- C. Maintenance
- D. Contemplation (Correct Answer)
- E. Preparation
Contingency management Explanation: ***Contemplation***
- The patient acknowledges his drinking problem and its serious consequences (loss of driver's license, family separation), demonstrating awareness that change is needed.
- He actively requests psychiatric consultation and asks "if there is anything that could help him," indicating he is **exploring options and gathering information** about change.
- However, he has not yet made a firm commitment to take action or developed a specific plan, which distinguishes contemplation from preparation.
- The **contemplation stage** is characterized by recognition of the problem and consideration of change, with typical ambivalence about taking action—this patient is in this exploratory phase.
*Preparation*
- The **preparation stage** requires a clear commitment and intent to take action in the immediate future (typically within 30 days), often with a specific plan in place.
- This patient is asking exploratory questions rather than stating he is ready to start treatment or outlining steps he will take.
- Simply requesting information does not constitute preparation; there must be demonstrated readiness to act.
*Precontemplation*
- In the **precontemplation stage**, individuals deny having a problem or have no intention of changing their behavior.
- This patient clearly acknowledges his drinking problem and recognizes the negative consequences, moving him well beyond precontemplation.
*Action*
- The **action stage** involves actively modifying behavior and implementing specific strategies to overcome the addiction.
- This patient has not yet begun any treatment or behavioral changes related to his drinking.
*Maintenance*
- The **maintenance stage** occurs after sustained behavior change for at least six months, focusing on preventing relapse.
- This patient has not yet initiated any changes to maintain.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 5: A 33-year-old woman presents with anxiety, poor sleep, and occasional handshaking and sweating for the past 10 months. She says that the best remedy for her symptoms is a “glass of a good cognac” after work. She describes herself as a “moderate drinker”. However, on a more detailed assessment, the patient confesses that she drinks 1–2 drinks per working day and 3–5 drinks on days-off when she is partying. She was once involved in a car accident while being drunk. She works as a financial assistant and describes her job as “demanding”. She is divorced and lives with her 15-year-old daughter. She says that she often hears from her daughter that she should stop drinking. She realizes that the scope of the problem might be larger than she perceives, but she has never tried stopping drinking. She does not feel hopeless, but sometimes she feels guilty because of her behavior. She does not smoke and does not report illicit drugs use. Which of the following medications would be a proper part of the management of this patient?
- A. Topiramate
- B. Naltrexone (Correct Answer)
- C. Amitriptyline
- D. Gabapentin
- E. Disulfiram
Contingency management Explanation: ***Naltrexone***
- This patient exhibits symptoms consistent with **alcohol use disorder**, including increased tolerance, problematic use despite negative consequences (car accident, daughter's concern), and use to alleviate withdrawal-like symptoms (anxiety, poor sleep, handshaking, sweating). **Naltrexone** helps reduce **craving and pleasurable effects of alcohol** by blocking opioid receptors.
- Given that she has never tried stopping and does not endorse severe withdrawal symptoms requiring inpatient detoxification typically, naltrexone is a suitable first-line pharmacotherapy for **alcohol use disorder** in this context.
*Topiramate*
- While **topiramate** can be used as an off-label treatment for alcohol use disorder, particularly in reducing heavy drinking and cravings, it is generally considered a second-line option.
- Its side effect profile can be more notable (e.g., cognitive slowing, paresthesias) compared to naltrexone, and it's less commonly chosen as an initial monotherapy when other options are available.
*Amitriptyline*
- **Amitriptyline** is a tricyclic antidepressant primarily used for **depression** and some **neuropathic pain** conditions.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of **alcohol use disorder** and could potentially worsen some symptoms or interact with alcohol.
*Gabapentin*
- **Gabapentin** is sometimes used off-label for **alcohol use disorder**, particularly for managing withdrawal symptoms, reducing cravings, and improving sleep.
- However, for a patient who has never attempted cessation and is not in acute withdrawal, but rather is seeking to reduce problematic drinking, naltrexone is generally preferred as a first-line agent.
*Disulfiram*
- **Disulfiram** works by causing an unpleasant physical reaction (nausea, vomiting, flushing, palpitations) when alcohol is consumed.
- It requires strong patient motivation and adherence, as the patient must avoid all alcohol. Given her current struggle with moderation and no prior attempts at abstinence, beginning with disulfiram, which relies on aversive conditioning, might be challenging and is often reserved for highly motivated patients or those who have failed other treatments.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 6: A 54-year-old male comes to the clinic to initiate care with a new physician. He has no complaints at this time. When taking his history, the patient says his medical history is notable for diabetes and hypertension both of which are well managed on his medications. His medications are metformin and lisinopril. A review of systems is negative. While taking the social history, the patient hesitates when asked about alcohol consumption. Further gentle questioning by the physician leads the patient to admit that he drinks 5-6 beers per night and up to 10-12 drinks per day over the weekend. He says that he has been drinking like this for “years.” He becomes emotional and says that his alcohol is negatively affecting his relationship with his wife and children; however, when asked about efforts to decrease his consumption, the patient says he has not tried in the past and doesn’t think he has “the strength to stop”. Which of the following stages of change most accurately describes this patient’s behavior?
- A. Contemplation (Correct Answer)
- B. Maintenance
- C. Preparation
- D. Precontemplation
- E. Action
Contingency management Explanation: ***Contemplation***
- The patient acknowledges his problem behavior (alcohol consumption) and its negative impact on his family, indicating an awareness of the issue.
- He expresses a desire for change ("strength to stop") but has not yet committed to taking action or made concrete plans, which is characteristic of the contemplation stage.
*Maintenance*
- This stage involves actively sustaining new behaviors and preventing relapse over a long period (typically 6 months or more).
- The patient admits he has not tried to decrease his consumption, ruling out any active behavior change or sustainability.
*Preparation*
- In this stage, individuals are ready to take action within the next month and have often developed a plan for change.
- The patient explicitly states he hasn't tried to reduce his alcohol intake and doesn't feel he has "the strength to stop," indicating a lack of readiness for immediate action or planning.
*Precontemplation*
- Individuals in this stage are unaware or unwilling to acknowledge that a problem exists and have no intention of changing their behavior in the foreseeable future.
- The patient clearly recognizes his drinking as a problem affecting his family, which distinguishes him from someone in precontemplation.
*Action*
- This stage involves actively modifying one's behavior, environment, or experiences to overcome problems.
- The patient has not made any efforts to decrease his alcohol consumption, meaning he has not yet entered the action phase.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 7: A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia stabilized on clozapine presents to establish care at a new clinic. Records show stable psychiatric symptoms for 2 years. Routine urine drug screen is positive for cocaine. He admits to using cocaine 2-3 times monthly at parties but denies it affects his functioning. He has maintained employment, housing, and medication adherence. He refuses substance use treatment, stating 'it's recreational and under control.' His last clozapine level was therapeutic. Evaluate the management approach balancing psychiatric stability, substance use, and patient autonomy.
- A. Mandate substance use treatment as condition for continuing clozapine
- B. Switch to long-acting injectable antipsychotic with lower risk profile
- C. Discontinue clozapine due to medication non-compliance and substance use risk
- D. Continue clozapine with harm reduction counseling, more frequent monitoring, and motivational interviewing for substance use (Correct Answer)
- E. Involuntarily hospitalize for dual diagnosis treatment program
Contingency management Explanation: ***Continue clozapine with harm reduction counseling, more frequent monitoring, and motivational interviewing for substance use***
- The patient has been **psychiatrically stable** on clozapine for two years and maintains high functioning; discontinuing a life-saving medication for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** due to intermittent substance use risks severe decompensation.
- A **harm reduction** approach utilizing **motivational interviewing** addresses the cocaine use without damaging the therapeutic alliance, while **increased monitoring** manages potential risks like a **lowered seizure threshold** or cardiac strain.
*Mandate substance use treatment as condition for continuing clozapine*
- Coercive strategies often lead to **patient dropout** and treatment non-adherence, which could result in a relapse of psychosis.
- Medical ethics prioritize **patient autonomy**; treatment mandates are generally reserved for situations where the patient lacks capacity or poses an immediate danger.
*Switch to long-acting injectable antipsychotic with lower risk profile*
- **Clozapine** is uniquely effective for patients who have failed other treatments; switching a stable patient to a **long-acting injectable (LAI)** may lead to a loss of symptom control.
- The patient's **medication adherence** is already documented as excellent, so the primary benefit of an LAI—improving compliance—is not a current clinical priority.
*Discontinue clozapine due to medication non-compliance and substance use risk*
- The patient is actually **compliant** with his clozapine regimen, as evidenced by his **therapeutic drug levels** and stable psychiatric status.
- Discontinuation represents a high-risk clinical decision that ignores the **biopsychosocial stability** the patient has achieved despite his recreational drug use.
*Involuntarily hospitalize for dual diagnosis treatment program*
- **Involuntary hospitalization** requires the patient to be a **danger to self or others** or be gravely disabled, none of which apply to this stable, employed individual.
- Forced treatment for substance use is not legally supported in this context and would be a significant overreach that violates **civil liberties**.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 8: A 42-year-old physician presents voluntarily to the state physician health program after colleagues noticed erratic behavior. He admits to diverting fentanyl from the operating room for 18 months, using it to manage work stress. He has no prior substance use history, maintains he can 'handle it,' but acknowledges his medical license and career are at risk. He completed detoxification last week. Evaluate the comprehensive management strategy that addresses medical, professional, and legal considerations.
- A. Intensive outpatient treatment, peer support, naltrexone, monitored return-to-work agreement, and restricted practice for minimum 1-2 years (Correct Answer)
- B. Outpatient naltrexone therapy with weekly random drug screens and return to work in 3 months
- C. Immediate return to practice with mandatory addiction counseling and quarterly monitoring
- D. 6-month residential treatment followed by career change recommendation due to access to controlled substances
- E. Report to medical board for license revocation due to diversion and patient safety risk
Contingency management Explanation: ***Intensive outpatient treatment, peer support, naltrexone, monitored return-to-work agreement, and restricted practice for minimum 1-2 years***
- Physician health programs (PHPs) mandate a high-intensity approach including **monitored return-to-work** and **restricted practice** to ensure patient safety and professional accountability.
- Long-term success is achieved through **multi-modal therapy**, which includes Pharmacotherapy (like **naltrexone**), **peer support groups**, and frequent **random drug screening**.
*Outpatient naltrexone therapy with weekly random drug screens and return to work in 3 months*
- This approach is insufficient as it lacks the **intensive structural support** and specific **practice restrictions** required for a high-risk role like an anesthesiologist.
- Returning to work in such a short timeframe without a formal **physician health program (PHP)** monitoring contract significantly increases the risk of **relapse**.
*Immediate return to practice with mandatory addiction counseling and quarterly monitoring*
- **Immediate return** is unsafe because the physician has recently diverted **fentanyl**, posing a direct risk to **patient safety** and his own health.
- **Quarterly monitoring** is too infrequent for early recovery; high-frequency **random drug screens** are standard to detect early diversion or relapse.
*6-month residential treatment followed by career change recommendation due to access to controlled substances*
- While **residential treatment** is an option, a **career change recommendation** is generally not required if the physician complies with a **restrictive monitoring agreement**.
- Most physicians can safely return to their specialty after successful **rehabilitation** and a period of **restricted access** to controlled substances.
*Report to medical board for license revocation due to diversion and patient safety risk*
- **Licensure revocation** is typically a last resort; many states encourage **voluntary participation** in PHPs to help physicians recover while maintaining their license.
- Reporting and revocation are usually reserved for cases where the physician **refuses treatment**, fails to comply with monitoring, or causes **direct patient harm**.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 9: A 26-year-old pregnant woman at 16 weeks gestation with opioid use disorder requests medication-assisted treatment. She has been using heroin daily for 3 years and is motivated for treatment. She has tried 'quitting cold turkey' previously but relapsed within days. Obstetrics has referred her urgently for addiction medicine consultation. Evaluate the treatment approach that optimizes both maternal and fetal outcomes.
- A. Buprenorphine initiation with obstetric monitoring and prenatal care coordination
- B. Medically supervised withdrawal to avoid fetal exposure to maintenance medications
- C. Naltrexone implant after medically supervised opioid detoxification
- D. Methadone maintenance with daily observed dosing at licensed clinic (Correct Answer)
- E. Delay treatment until second trimester completion to minimize teratogenic risk
Contingency management Explanation: ***Methadone maintenance with daily observed dosing at licensed clinic***
- **Methadone** is the gold standard for opioid use disorder in pregnancy, providing a stable environment for the fetus by preventing **cycles of withdrawal** and illicit drug use.
- It is associated with improved **prenatal care** adherence and significantly reduced risks of **preterm labor** and **fetal demise** compared to untreated addiction.
*Buprenorphine initiation with obstetric monitoring and prenatal care coordination*
- While **buprenorphine** is a valid alternative, **methadone** remains the traditional first-line choice due to more extensive, long-term **safety data** regarding pregnancy outcomes.
- Buprenorphine is often preferred for lower severity cases, but the structured support of a **methadone clinic** is better for patients with long-term, high-frequency **heroin use**.
*Medically supervised withdrawal to avoid fetal exposure to maintenance medications*
- Withdrawal or "detox" during pregnancy carries a very high rate of **relapse**, which exposes the fetus to dangerous **stress and toxicity**.
- Stable maintenance therapy is preferred over withdrawal to prevent the severe maternal-fetal complications associated with **resumed illicit opioid use**.
*Naltrexone implant after medically supervised opioid detoxification*
- **Naltrexone** is generally avoided in pregnancy because it requires a complete **detoxification** phase, which triggers maternal-fetal distress.
- There is insufficient safety data regarding the use of **naltrexone implants** or long-acting formulations in pregnant patients compared to agonist therapies.
*Delay treatment until second trimester completion to minimize teratogenic risk*
- Opioid maintenance medications like methadone and buprenorphine are not considered **teratogenic**, and delaying treatment increases the risk of **fetal loss**.
- Treatment should be initiated as soon as possible to stabilize the **maternal-fetal unit** and reduce the risks associated with active addiction and infectious disease exposure.
Contingency management US Medical PG Question 10: A 50-year-old man with alcohol use disorder presents for the third time in 6 months with alcohol-related pancreatitis. He has completed detoxification twice, attended some AA meetings, but relapsed each time. He has compensated cirrhosis (Child-Pugh A) and is motivated to quit. Lab shows AST 95, ALT 60, GGT 180. He requests 'something that will make me sick if I drink.' Analyze the treatment options and select the most evidence-based pharmacotherapy.
- A. Naltrexone 50 mg daily to reduce craving and rewarding effects (Correct Answer)
- B. Disulfiram 250 mg daily with close monitoring
- C. Acamprosate 666 mg three times daily for abstinence maintenance
- D. Topiramate 200 mg daily for craving reduction
- E. Gabapentin 1800 mg daily in divided doses
Contingency management Explanation: ***Naltrexone 50 mg daily to reduce craving and rewarding effects***
- **Naltrexone** is a first-line treatment that blocks **mu-opioid receptors**, effectively reducing the reinforcing "high" of alcohol and decreasing the frequency of heavy drinking.
- While the patient has elevated liver enzymes, it is generally safe in **Child-Pugh A** cirrhosis; it is often preferred over other agents due to its robust efficacy in preventing relapse.
*Disulfiram 250 mg daily with close monitoring*
- Although the patient requested it, **Disulfiram** carries a risk of **hepatotoxicity**, making it a risky choice for someone with pre-existing **cirrhosis** and active liver inflammation.
- It acts as an **aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor**, causing a severe physical reaction to alcohol, but it does not address the underlying craving and has lower evidence-based success rates compared to Naltrexone.
*Acamprosate 666 mg three times daily for abstinence maintenance*
- **Acamprosate** modulates the **glutamatergic system** and is excellent for maintaining abstinence, but the **three-times-daily** dosing schedule often leads to poor medication adherence.
- It is primarily cleared by the kidneys and would be a preferred choice if the patient had significant **liver failure** or renal impairment, but Naltrexone is generally prioritized for initial craving reduction.
*Topiramate 200 mg daily for craving reduction*
- **Topiramate** is an anti-epileptic drug used **off-label** for alcohol use disorder to reduce heavy drinking days and cravings.
- It is considered a second-line option because its evidence base is less robust than that of **FDA-approved** medications like Naltrexone and Acamprosate.
*Gabapentin 1800 mg daily in divided doses*
- **Gabapentin** is used **off-label** and may help with alcohol withdrawal symptoms and minor craving reduction, especially in patients with co-morbid insomnia or anxiety.
- High doses are required for efficacy, and it is not considered first-line therapy for a patient with multiple relapses and significant medical complications like **pancreatitis**.
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