Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Psychosocial rehabilitation. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 1: Two dizygotic twins present to the university clinic because they believe they are being poisoned through the school's cafeteria food. They have brought these concerns up in the past, but no other students or cafeteria staff support this belief. Both of them are average students with strong and weak subject areas as demonstrated by their course grade-books. They have no known medical conditions and are not known to abuse illicit substances. Which statement best describes the condition these patients have?
- A. A trial separation is likely to worsen symptoms.
- B. The disorder is its own disease entity in DSM-5.
- C. Antipsychotic medications are rarely beneficial.
- D. Can affect two or more closely related individuals. (Correct Answer)
- E. Cognitive behavioral therapy is a good first-line.
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***Can affect two or more closely related individuals.***
- The shared delusional belief in **folie à deux**, also known as **shared psychotic disorder**, typically occurs in two or more people who are closely associated.
- In this case, the **dizygotic twins** sharing the same delusional belief about being poisoned from cafeteria food fits this pattern.
*A trial separation is likely to worsen symptoms.*
- **Separating the individuals** involved in **folie à deux** is often a crucial step in treatment, as it can help break the cycle of shared delusion and allow for individual therapy.
- Separation typically IMPROVES rather than worsens symptoms by removing the reinforcement of the shared delusion.
*The disorder is its own disease entity in DSM-5.*
- In the **DSM-5**, **folie à deux** is no longer considered a separate diagnostic category.
- Instead, it is classified under **Other Specified Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorder** or **Unspecified Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorder**, with the specific context of shared delusion noted.
*Antipsychotic medications are rarely beneficial.*
- **Antipsychotics** are actually commonly used in treating folie à deux, particularly for the **primary individual** who initially developed the delusion.
- They can be an important component of treatment, often combined with separation and psychotherapy.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy is a good first-line.*
- **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** can be beneficial, particularly after separation, to help individuals challenge and reframe their delusional beliefs.
- However, the **first-line intervention** for shared psychotic disorder is **separation of the involved individuals**, followed by individual therapy (which may include CBT) and medication as needed.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 2: A 20-year-old male is involuntarily admitted to the county psychiatric unit for psychotic behavior over the past three months. The patient's mother explained to the psychiatrist that her son had withdrawn from family and friends, appeared to have no emotions, and had delusions that he was working for the CIA. When he spoke, his sentences did not always seem to have any connection with each other. The mother finally decided to admit her son after he began stating that he "revealed too much information to her and was going to be eliminated by the CIA." Which of the following diagnoses best fits this patient's presentation?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Brief psychotic disorder
- C. Schizophreniform disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Schizoid personality disorder
- E. Schizotypal personality disorder
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***Schizophreniform disorder***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **psychosis**, including delusions, disorganized speech, flat affect, and social withdrawal, which are characteristic of schizophrenia spectrum disorders.
- The duration of symptoms (3 months) fits the criteria for **schizophreniform disorder**, which is when psychotic symptoms last between 1 month and 6 months.
*Schizophrenia*
- Schizophrenia requires symptoms to be present for at least **6 months**, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms.
- While this patient's symptoms are consistent with psychotic disorder, the **duration criteria** for schizophrenia have not yet been met.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by symptoms lasting from **1 day to 1 month**, with eventual full return to premorbid functioning.
- The patient's symptoms have persisted for **3 months**, exceeding the maximum duration for brief psychotic disorder.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression.
- While the patient exhibits social withdrawal, the presence of **delusions, disorganized speech, and flat affect** indicates a psychotic disorder, not merely a personality disorder.
*Schizotypal personality disorder*
- Schizotypal personality disorder involves pervasive social and interpersonal deficits with **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentric behaviors.
- While it can involve odd beliefs, it does not typically include the prominent, fixed, and systematized **delusions and disorganized speech** seen in this patient's presentation.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 3: A 10-year-old child is sent to the school psychologist in May because he refuses to comply with the class rules. His teacher says this has been going on since school started back in August. He gets upset at the teacher regularly when he is told to complete a homework assignment in class. Sometimes he refuses to complete them altogether. Several of his teachers have reported that he intentionally creates noises in class to interrupt the class. He tells the psychologist that the teacher and his classmates are at fault. What is the most appropriate treatment?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Interpersonal therapy
- C. Administration of lithium
- D. Motivational interviewing
- E. Administration of clozapine
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***Cognitive-behavioral therapy***
- This child exhibits symptoms consistent with **Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)**, including persistent refusal to comply with rules, anger outbursts, and blaming others. **CBT** is a highly effective treatment for ODD, teaching children coping skills, anger management, and problem-solving.
- CBT helps children identify and change **maladaptive thought patterns** and behaviors, which is crucial for managing the defiant and argumentative behaviors seen in ODD.
*Interpersonal therapy*
- **Interpersonal therapy (IPT)** primarily focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication patterns, often used for depression or eating disorders.
- While improved relationships might be a secondary benefit, IPT does not directly target the core **defiant behaviors** and **anger management** issues central to ODD.
*Administration of lithium*
- **Lithium** is a mood stabilizer primarily used in the treatment of **bipolar disorder** and severe mood dysregulation.
- There is no indication from the provided symptoms (defiance, anger, blaming others) that the child is experiencing a mood disorder that would warrant lithium.
*Motivational interviewing*
- **Motivational interviewing** is a counseling approach that helps individuals resolve ambivalence to change, often used in substance abuse or health behavior change.
- While it can be useful in encouraging willingness to engage in therapy, it is not a direct therapeutic modality for addressing the specific **behavioral challenges** and **underlying cognitive distortions** of ODD.
*Administration of clozapine*
- **Clozapine** is an antipsychotic medication reserved for severe mental illnesses like **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** due to its significant side effects.
- The child's symptoms of defiance and rule-breaking are not indicative of a psychotic disorder requiring antipsychotic medication.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 4: A study is being conducted on depression using the Patient Health questionnaire (PHQ-9) survey data embedded within a popular social media network with a response size of 500,000 participants. The sample population of this study is approximately normal. The mean PHQ-9 score is 14, and the standard deviation is 4. How many participants have scores greater than 22?
- A. 175,000
- B. 17,500
- C. 160,000
- D. 12,500 (Correct Answer)
- E. 25,000
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***12,500***
- To find the number of participants with scores greater than 22, first calculate the **z-score** for a score of 22: $Z = \frac{(X - \mu)}{\sigma} = \frac{(22 - 14)}{4} = 2$.
- A z-score of 2 means the score is **2 standard deviations above the mean**. Using the **empirical rule** for a normal distribution, approximately **2.5%** of the data falls beyond 2 standard deviations above the mean (5% total in both tails, so 2.5% in each tail).
- Therefore, $2.5\%$ of the total 500,000 participants is $0.025 \times 500,000 = 12,500$.
*175,000*
- This option would imply a much larger proportion of the population scoring above 22, inconsistent with the **normal distribution's properties** and the calculated z-score.
- It would correspond to a z-score closer to 0, indicating a score closer to the mean, not two standard deviations above it.
*17,500*
- This value represents **3.5%** of the total population ($17,500 / 500,000 = 0.035$).
- A proportion of 3.5% above the mean corresponds to a z-score that is not exactly 2, indicating an incorrect calculation or interpretation of the **normal distribution table**.
*160,000*
- This option represents a very large portion of the participants, roughly **32%** of the total population.
- This percentage would correspond to scores within one standard deviation of the mean, not scores 2 standard deviations above the mean as calculated.
*25,000*
- This value represents **5%** of the total population ($25,000 / 500,000 = 0.05$).
- A z-score greater than 2 corresponds to the far tail of the normal distribution, where only 2.5% of the data lies, not 5%. This would correspond to a z-score of approximately 1.65.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 5: A 40-year-old man is brought into the emergency department because he was involved in a bar fight and sustained an injury to the head. The next day, as requested by the patient, the psychiatry team is called to address some of the concerns he has regarding his drinking habits. He admits that he got irate last night at the bar because his driver’s license was recently taken away and his wife had taken his children to live with her parents because of his drinking problem. He drinks 4–6 beers on a weeknight and more on the weekends. He wants to know if there is anything that could help him at this point. Which stage of overcoming his addiction is this patient currently in?
- A. Action
- B. Precontemplation
- C. Maintenance
- D. Contemplation (Correct Answer)
- E. Preparation
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***Contemplation***
- The patient acknowledges his drinking problem and its serious consequences (loss of driver's license, family separation), demonstrating awareness that change is needed.
- He actively requests psychiatric consultation and asks "if there is anything that could help him," indicating he is **exploring options and gathering information** about change.
- However, he has not yet made a firm commitment to take action or developed a specific plan, which distinguishes contemplation from preparation.
- The **contemplation stage** is characterized by recognition of the problem and consideration of change, with typical ambivalence about taking action—this patient is in this exploratory phase.
*Preparation*
- The **preparation stage** requires a clear commitment and intent to take action in the immediate future (typically within 30 days), often with a specific plan in place.
- This patient is asking exploratory questions rather than stating he is ready to start treatment or outlining steps he will take.
- Simply requesting information does not constitute preparation; there must be demonstrated readiness to act.
*Precontemplation*
- In the **precontemplation stage**, individuals deny having a problem or have no intention of changing their behavior.
- This patient clearly acknowledges his drinking problem and recognizes the negative consequences, moving him well beyond precontemplation.
*Action*
- The **action stage** involves actively modifying behavior and implementing specific strategies to overcome the addiction.
- This patient has not yet begun any treatment or behavioral changes related to his drinking.
*Maintenance*
- The **maintenance stage** occurs after sustained behavior change for at least six months, focusing on preventing relapse.
- This patient has not yet initiated any changes to maintain.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 6: A 23-year-old male presents to the emergency department. He was brought in by police for shouting on a subway. The patient claims that little people were trying to kill him, and he was acting within his rights to defend himself. The patient has a past medical history of marijuana and IV drug use as well as multiple suicide attempts. He is currently homeless. While in the ED, the patient is combative and refuses a physical exam. He is given IM haloperidol and diphenhydramine. The patient is transferred to the inpatient psychiatric unit and is continued on haloperidol throughout the next week. Though he is no longer aggressive, he is seen making "armor" out of paper plates and plastic silverware to defend himself. The patient is switched onto risperidone. The following week the patient is still seen gathering utensils, and muttering about people trying to harm him. The patient's risperidone is discontinued. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Thioridazine
- C. Clozapine (Correct Answer)
- D. Chlorpromazine
- E. Fluphenazine
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***Clozapine***
- This patient has demonstrated **treatment-resistant schizophrenia**, evidenced by persistent positive symptoms despite trials of haloperidol and risperidone, necessitating a trial of clozapine.
- **Clozapine** is an atypical antipsychotic that is uniquely effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, especially in patients with a history of **suicidality**.
*Olanzapine*
- While **olanzapine** is an effective atypical antipsychotic, it is generally considered a first-line or second-line agent, and this patient has already failed two antipsychotics (haloperidol and risperidone).
- Its efficacy in **treatment-resistant cases** is not superior to clozapine.
*Thioridazine*
- **Thioridazine** is a first-generation antipsychotic with a high risk of **QT prolongation** and other cardiac side effects, making it a less safe option.
- It is not typically reserved for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** due to its side effect profile and lack of superior efficacy compared to newer agents.
*Chlorpromazine*
- **Chlorpromazine** is another first-generation antipsychotic that is not indicated for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** at this stage.
- It carries significant anticholinergic and sedative side effects, similar to thioridazine, and is not significantly more effective than haloperidol for this indication.
*Fluphenazine*
- **Fluphenazine** is a potent first-generation antipsychotic, often available as a **depot injection** for adherence issues.
- However, it is not considered the best next step for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** after failure of two different classes of antipsychotics.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 7: A 20-year-old man comes to the physician because of decreasing academic performance at his college for the past 6 months. He reports a persistent fear of “catching germs” from his fellow students and of contracting a deadly disease. He finds it increasingly difficult to attend classes. He avoids handshakes and close contact with other people. He states that when he tries to think of something else, the fears “keep returning” and that he has to wash himself for at least an hour when he returns home after going outside. Afterwards he cleans the shower and has to apply disinfectant to his body and to the bathroom. He does not drink alcohol. He used to smoke cannabis but stopped one year ago. His vital signs are within normal limits. He appears anxious. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. In addition to starting an SSRI, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
- C. Motivational interviewing
- D. Interpersonal therapy
- E. Group therapy
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: **Cognitive-behavioral therapy**
- **Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)**, specifically **Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, is the most effective psychotherapy for **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)**, which this patient's symptoms strongly suggest.
- CBT helps patients challenge distorted thoughts and gradually expose themselves to feared situations while preventing compulsive rituals, thus breaking the cycle of obsessions and compulsions.
*Psychodynamic psychotherapy*
- This therapy focuses on **unconscious conflicts** and **past experiences** to understand current symptoms.
- While it can be helpful for some mental health conditions, it is generally **less effective** than CBT for the specific, highly ritualized symptoms of OCD.
*Motivational interviewing*
- **Motivational interviewing** is a patient-centered counseling style designed to address **ambivalence about change** and enhance intrinsic motivation.
- It is often used in substance abuse or lifestyle changes, but it does not directly teach coping skills for OCD symptoms or address the underlying thought patterns.
*Interpersonal therapy*
- **Interpersonal therapy (IPT)** focuses on the patient's **current interpersonal relationships** and social functioning.
- While social difficulties can arise from OCD, IPT does not directly target the obsessions and compulsions that are central to the disorder.
*Group therapy*
- **Group therapy** can provide support and a sense of community, but for a severe condition like OCD, **individual therapy** (especially CBT/ERP) is typically recommended first due to the highly individualized nature of obsessions and compulsions.
- It may be a complementary approach, but usually not the most appropriate initial next step given the intensity of the patient's symptoms.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 8: A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician because she thinks that her “right wrist is broken.” She says that she has severe pain and that “the bone is sticking out.” She has not had any trauma to the wrist. Her medical records indicate that she was diagnosed with schizophrenia 2 years ago and treated with olanzapine; she has not filled any prescriptions over the past 4 months. Three weeks ago, she stopped going to work because she “did not feel like getting up” in the morning. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination of the right wrist shows no visible injury; there is no warmth, swelling, or erythema. Range of motion is limited by pain. On mental status examination, she has a flat affect. Her speech is pressured and she frequently changes the topic. She has short- and long-term memory deficits. Attention and concentration are poor. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Urine toxicology screening is negative. An x-ray of the wrist shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient's concerns?
- A. “It seems as though you are having a schizophrenia relapse. If you don't follow my recommendations and take your medications, you will most likely have further and possibly more severe episodes.”
- B. “I cannot see any injury of your wrist and the physical exam as well as the x-ray don't show any injury. I imagine that feeling as if your wrist was broken may be very uncomfortable. Can you tell me more about what it feels like?” (Correct Answer)
- C. I understand your concerns; however, your symptoms seem to be psychological in nature. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional.
- D. You are clearly distressed. However, your tests do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I suggest that we meet and evaluate your symptoms on a regular basis.
- E. I can imagine that you are uncomfortable. That certainly looks painful. Let's take care of this injury first and then we should talk about your problems getting up in the morning.
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***“I cannot see any injury of your wrist and the physical exam as well as the x-ray don't show any injury. I imagine that feeling as if your wrist was broken may be very uncomfortable. Can you tell me more about what it feels like?”***
- This response **validates the patient's experience of pain and distress** while gently reorienting them to the objective findings (no physical injury).
- It opens a dialog to explore the **patient's subjective experience** and build trust, which is crucial for addressing underlying psychiatric issues in a patient with schizophrenia.
*“It seems as though you are having a schizophrenia relapse. If you don't follow my recommendations and take your medications, you will most likely have further and possibly more severe episodes.”*
- This statement is **confrontational and judgmental**, potentially alienating the patient and making them less likely to engage in treatment.
- Directly labeling a relapse and warning of future severity without first building rapport can trigger **defensiveness and non-compliance**.
*I understand your concerns; however, your symptoms seem to be psychological in nature. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional.*
- While accurate about the psychological nature of symptoms, this response **dismisses the patient's immediate physical complaint** and might make them feel unheard.
- It prematurely jumps to a referral without fully exploring the current presentation or establishing a therapeutic alliance, which can be perceived as the physician "passing the buck."
*I can imagine that you are uncomfortable. That certainly looks painful. Let's take care of this injury first and then we should talk about your problems getting up in the morning.*
- This response **validates a non-existent injury**, reinforcing the patient's delusion and potentially diverting attention from the underlying psychiatric condition.
- Prioritizing a non-existent injury would lead to inappropriate medical interventions and delay necessary psychiatric care.
*You are clearly distressed. However, your tests do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I suggest that we meet and evaluate your symptoms on a regular basis.*
- While acknowledging distress and the lack of physical pathology, this response is somewhat **vague and lacks a clear plan** for addressing the primary concern of perceived injury.
- "Regular evaluation" without specific intent to explore the psychological component or re-initiate psychiatric treatment may not be sufficient for a patient experiencing a schizophrenia relapse.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 9: A 24-year-old man and his mother arrive for a psychiatric evaluation. She is concerned about his health and behavior ever since he dropped out of graduate school and moved back home 8 months ago. He is always very anxious and preoccupied with thoughts of school and getting a job. He also seems to behave very oddly at times such as wearing his winter jacket in summer. He says that he hears voices but he can not understand what they are saying. When prompted he describes a plot to have him killed with poison seeping from the walls. Today, his heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, and temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F). On physical exam, he appears gaunt and anxious. His heart has a regular rate and rhythm and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. CMP, CBC, and TSH are normal. A urine toxicology test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- B. Substance-induced psychosis
- C. Schizophreniform disorder
- D. Schizoaffective disorder
- E. Brief psychotic disorder
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***Schizophrenia***
- The patient presents with **delusions** ("plot to have him killed"), **hallucinations** ("hears voices"), **disorganized thinking** (preoccupied with school and job but no progress made, wearing winter jacket in summer can be a sign of disorganized behavior), and **negative symptoms** (appears gaunt and anxious, social withdrawal, drop out of school). These symptoms have been present since he dropped out of graduate school 8 months ago, indicating a **duration of at least 6 months**.
- The combination of these symptoms persisting for over 6 months, impacting his functioning, and absence of other medical or substance-related causes, is diagnostic of **schizophrenia**.
*Substance-induced psychosis*
- The **urine toxicology test is negative**, ruling out recent substance use as the cause of his psychotic symptoms.
- The **chronicity** of symptoms (8 months) is less typical for acute substance-induced psychosis, which generally resolves more quickly after the substance is cleared.
*Schizophreniform disorder*
- Schizophreniform disorder involves the same symptoms as schizophrenia but with a **duration of at least 1 month but less than 6 months**.
- The patient's symptoms have been present for **8 months**, exceeding the criteria for schizophreniform disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- Schizoaffective disorder requires the presence of a **major mood episode** (depressive or manic) concurrent with criteria A of schizophrenia. Additionally, **delusions or hallucinations for at least 2 weeks** must occur in the absence of a major mood episode at some point during the illness.
- While the patient appears anxious, there is **no clear evidence of a persistent major depressive or manic episode** that would qualify for schizoaffective disorder.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by psychotic symptoms lasting **more than 1 day but less than 1 month**.
- The patient's symptoms have been ongoing for **8 months**, far exceeding the duration for brief psychotic disorder.
Psychosocial rehabilitation US Medical PG Question 10: A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has been hearing voices in her apartment during the past year. She also reports that she has been receiving warning messages in newspaper articles during this period. She thinks that “someone is trying to kill her”. She avoids meeting her family and friends because they do not believe her. She does not use illicit drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a normal affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term treatment?
- A. Lithium carbonate
- B. Fluphenazine
- C. Clozapine
- D. Quetiapine (Correct Answer)
- E. Midazolam
Psychosocial rehabilitation Explanation: ***Quetiapine***
- This patient presents with **psychotic symptoms** (auditory hallucinations, delusions of persecution and reference) lasting over a year, consistent with **schizophrenia**.
- **Quetiapine** is a **second-generation antipsychotic** (atypical antipsychotic) commonly used as a long-term treatment for schizophrenia due to its efficacy in managing positive and negative symptoms and typically favorable side effect profile compared to first-generation agents.
*Lithium carbonate*
- **Lithium** is primarily used as a **mood stabilizer** for bipolar disorder, particularly for managing manic and mixed episodes.
- While it can have some antipsychotic effects, it is not the first-line long-term treatment for **schizophrenia** with prominent psychotic symptoms.
*Fluphenazine*
- **Fluphenazine** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** (typical antipsychotic) and is effective for positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- However, it has a higher risk of **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)** and **tardive dyskinesia** compared to second-generation antipsychotics, making second-generation agents often preferred for long-term treatment.
*Clozapine*
- **Clozapine** is a highly effective **second-generation antipsychotic** for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** but is not a first-line agent for initial treatment due to significant side effects.
- Its use is limited by the risk of **agranulocytosis**, requiring regular blood monitoring, and other serious side effects like myocarditis and seizures.
*Midazolam*
- **Midazolam** is a **benzodiazepine** used for acute sedation, anxiety, or insomnia due to its rapid onset and short duration of action.
- It has no role in the long-term treatment of **psychotic disorders** like schizophrenia.
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