Positive symptoms US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Positive symptoms. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 1: A 40-year-old male accountant is brought to the physician by his wife. She complains of her husband talking strangely for the past 6 months. She has taken him to multiple physicians during this time, but her husband did not comply with their treatment. She says he keeps things to himself, stays alone, and rarely spends time with her or the kids. When asked how he was doing, he responds in a clear manner with "I am fine, pine, dine doc." When further questioned about what brought him in today, he continues “nope, pope, dope doc.” Physical examination reveals no sensorimotor loss or visual field defects. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition?
- A. Patient has disorganized behavior
- B. Patient has no insight
- C. It is associated with a better prognosis
- D. Patient has disorganized thinking (Correct Answer)
- E. Confrontational psychoeducation would be beneficial
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Patient has disorganized thinking***
- The patient's use of **rhyming, nonsensical answers** ("I am fine, pine, dine doc"; "nope, pope, dope doc") despite being able to speak clearly, indicates a breakdown in the logical processing of thoughts. This is a classic example of **disorganized thought process**, often seen in conditions like **schizophrenia**.
- **Neologisms** and **word salads** are also forms of disorganized thinking, where the connections between thoughts are loosened or completely absent, making communication difficult to follow.
*Patient has disorganized behavior*
- **Disorganized behavior** typically refers to unpredictable, socially inappropriate, or bizarre actions, such as odd dress, grimacing, or difficulty performing goal-directed activities.
- While the patient's social withdrawal might be a component, his primary symptom described (speech pattern) points more directly to thought disorder rather than overt behavioral disorganization.
*Patient has no insight*
- **Lack of insight** means the patient does not recognize their illness or the need for treatment, which is evident here ("did not comply with treatment").
- However, disorganized thinking is a more specific and accurate description of the **core symptom** related to his unusual speech pattern, while lack of insight is a consequence or a co-occurring symptom, not the primary cognitive disturbance.
*It is associated with a better prognosis*
- **Disorganized thinking** is generally associated with a **worse prognosis** in psychotic disorders, particularly schizophrenia. It often indicates more severe cognitive deficits and resistance to treatment.
- A better prognosis is typically linked to factors like a later age of onset, acute onset, good premorbid functioning, and the absence of negative symptoms or disorganized thought.
*Confrontational psychoeducation would be beneficial*
- Since the patient demonstrates **lack of insight** and likely has a significant mental illness, a **confrontational approach** would likely be counterproductive, increasing resistance and distrust.
- **Non-confrontational, supportive, and empathetic psychoeducation** is generally recommended for patients with psychotic disorders to build rapport and encourage treatment adherence.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 2: A 29-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her father because of a change in her behavior over the past 8 months. The father says that his daughter has become increasingly withdrawn; she has not answered any phone calls or visited her family and friends. The patient says that she has to stay at home because a foreign intelligence service is monitoring her. She thinks that they are using a magnetic field to read her mind. Mental status exam shows disjointed and perseverative thinking. She is anxious and has a flat affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Delusional disorder
- B. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- C. Paranoid personality disorder
- D. Schizophreniform disorder
- E. Schizoid personality disorder
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Schizophrenia***
- The patient's presentation with **delusions of persecution and thought broadcasting**, accompanied by **disjointed, perseverative thinking**, and **flat affect** for 8 months, is highly indicative of schizophrenia.
- Schizophrenia is characterized by a combination of positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech), negative symptoms (flat affect, social withdrawal), and cognitive symptoms (disorganized thinking) lasting for at least 6 months.
*Delusional disorder*
- Delusional disorder is characterized by the presence of **non-bizarre delusions for at least 1 month** without other significant psychotic symptoms or marked impairment in functioning.
- The patient's symptoms include **disorganized thinking and flat affect**, which are not typical of delusional disorder and suggest a broader psychotic illness.
*Paranoid personality disorder*
- Characterized by a pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, where their motives are interpreted as malevolent, but **without the presence of frank delusions or other psychotic symptoms**.
- The patient is experiencing **fixed, false beliefs (delusions)** involving mind reading and foreign intelligence, which goes beyond the pervasive distrust seen in paranoid personality disorder.
*Schizophreniform disorder*
- Schizophreniform disorder presents with symptoms identical to schizophrenia, but the **duration is between 1 and 6 months**.
- Since the patient's symptoms have been present for **8 months**, it exceeds the diagnostic criteria for schizophreniform disorder, making schizophrenia a more likely diagnosis.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- Characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings.
- While the patient exhibits social withdrawal, this condition does **not involve delusions, disorganized thinking, or other psychotic features**.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 3: A 24-year-old man is brought to your emergency department under arrest by the local police. The patient was found naked at a busy intersection jumping up and down on top of a car. Interviewing the patient, you discover that he has not slept in 2 days because he does not feel tired. He reports hearing voices. The patient was previously hospitalized 1 year ago with auditory hallucinations, paranoia, and a normal mood. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Brief psychotic disorder
- D. Schizotypal disorder
- E. Schizoaffective disorder (Correct Answer)
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Schizoaffective disorder***
- This patient demonstrates the **hallmark feature** of schizoaffective disorder: **psychotic symptoms occurring both during AND independent of mood episodes**.
- **Current presentation**: Clear **manic episode** (decreased need for sleep, grandiose/disinhibited behavior, psychomotor agitation) with psychotic features (auditory hallucinations).
- **Previous hospitalization**: **Psychotic symptoms (hallucinations, paranoia) in the absence of a mood episode** ("normal mood"), requiring hospitalization for at least 2 weeks - this is the **key diagnostic criterion** for schizoaffective disorder.
- The diagnosis requires an **uninterrupted period of illness** with both psychotic symptoms (meeting Criterion A for schizophrenia) and a major mood episode, PLUS psychotic symptoms for **≥2 weeks without prominent mood symptoms**.
*Bipolar disorder*
- In bipolar disorder with psychotic features, psychotic symptoms occur **exclusively during mood episodes** (manic, hypomanic, or depressive).
- This patient's previous hospitalization with psychosis but **"normal mood"** indicates psychotic symptoms independent of mood episodes, which **rules out** bipolar disorder and points to schizoaffective disorder.
- While the current presentation shows mania with psychosis, the longitudinal course is critical for diagnosis.
*Schizophrenia*
- Schizophrenia involves **continuous psychotic symptoms** without prominent mood episodes dominating the clinical picture.
- This patient has **prominent manic symptoms** (decreased sleep, grandiose behavior, agitation) that are central to the current presentation, making schizophrenia less likely.
- The presence of full mood episodes that occupy a **substantial portion** of the illness duration favors schizoaffective disorder over schizophrenia.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- Brief psychotic disorder involves psychotic symptoms lasting **<1 month** with full return to baseline functioning.
- This patient has a **recurrent course** with hospitalization 1 year ago, indicating a chronic/recurring condition rather than a brief, self-limited episode.
*Schizotypal disorder*
- This is a **personality disorder** characterized by social deficits, cognitive/perceptual distortions, and eccentric behavior, but **NOT overt psychotic episodes**.
- Does not involve acute psychotic breaks with severe symptoms like hallucinations requiring hospitalization or manic episodes.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 4: A 34-year-old man presents to the behavioral health clinic for an evaluation after seeing animal-shaped clouds in the form of dogs, cats, and monkeys. The patient says that these symptoms have been present for more than 2 weeks. Past medical history is significant for simple partial seizures for which he takes valproate, but he has not had his medication adjusted in several years. His vital signs include: blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg, heart rate of 98/min, respiratory rate of 12/min, and temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F). On physical examination, the patient is alert and oriented to person, time, and place. Affect is not constricted or flat. Speech is of rapid rate and high volume. Pupils are equal and reactive bilaterally. The results of a urine drug screen are as follows:
Alcohol positive
Amphetamine negative
Benzodiazepine negative
Cocaine positive
GHB negative
Ketamine negative
LSD negative
Marijuana negative
Opioids negative
PCP negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- A. Delusion
- B. Alcohol withdrawal
- C. Visual hallucination
- D. Cocaine intoxication
- E. Illusion (Correct Answer)
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Illusion***
- The patient is seeing **animal shapes in the clouds**, which is a misinterpretation of a real external stimulus. This is the definition of an **illusion**.
- Unlike hallucinations, illusions involve a distorted perception of an existing object, rather than perceiving something that is not present.
*Delusion*
- A **delusion** is a **fixed, false belief** that is not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence, and it is not what is being described here.
- The patient is experiencing a perceptual distortion, not a false belief system.
*Alcohol withdrawal*
- While the patient tests positive for alcohol, the symptoms described are **perceptual distortions** (misinterpretation of clouds), not typical signs of alcohol withdrawal which include tremors, seizures, and delirium tremens.
- The timeline of "more than 2 weeks" also makes acute alcohol withdrawal less likely, as withdrawal symptoms typically peak within days.
*Visual hallucination*
- A **hallucination** is a perception in the absence of an external stimulus; the patient would be seeing animals when no clouds (or other visual stimuli) are present.
- The patient is seeing animal shapes *in the clouds*, indicating an existing external stimulus that is being misinterpreted.
*Cocaine intoxication*
- While cocaine intoxication can cause psychiatric symptoms like paranoia and hallucinations, the specific description of **seeing animal shapes in clouds** (misinterpretation of a real stimulus) points more directly to an illusion rather than a primary effect of cocaine use.
- The patient's presentation does not include other common symptoms of acute cocaine intoxication like severe agitation, dilated pupils, or hyperthermia beyond a rapid heart rate.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 5: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 6: Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia:
1. D2 antagonism: Reduces positive symptoms
2. 5HT2A antagonism: Reduces negative symptoms
3. 5HT1A agonism: Weight loss
4. Muscarinic antagonism: Reduces extrapyramidal symptoms
- A. 1,4
- B. 1,2,4
- C. 1,2,3,4
- D. 1,2 (Correct Answer)
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***1,2***
- **D2 antagonism** is the primary mechanism by which antipsychotics reduce **positive symptoms** of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions.
- **5HT2A antagonism** is a key mechanism of atypical antipsychotics contributing to the reduction of **negative symptoms** (e.g., apathy, anhedonia, flat affect) and cognitive deficits, while also reducing the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms.
*1,2,3,4*
- This option is incorrect because **5HT1A agonism** is not associated with **weight loss**. While 5HT1A partial agonism (as seen with aripiprazole and brexpiprazole) may improve negative symptoms, anxiety, and cognitive function, it does not directly cause weight loss.
- Additionally, **muscarinic antagonism** does not reduce extrapyramidal symptoms as a primary mechanism. Rather, anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) drugs like benztropine are used to **treat** EPS after it occurs. The reduction of EPS in atypical antipsychotics primarily comes from 5HT2A antagonism and lower D2 binding affinity.
*1,2,4*
- This option is incorrect because **muscarinic antagonism** is not a mechanism that reduces EPS. Anticholinergic agents are used therapeutically to counteract EPS caused by dopamine blockade, but anticholinergic effects themselves do not prevent or reduce EPS.
- The reduction of EPS with atypical antipsychotics is mainly due to **5HT2A antagonism** balancing dopaminergic blockade, selective limbic over striatal binding, and fast D2 dissociation kinetics.
*1,4*
- This option is incorrect because it omits **5HT2A antagonism**, which is crucial for reducing **negative symptoms** in schizophrenia.
- It also incorrectly includes muscarinic antagonism as a mechanism that reduces EPS, when in reality anticholinergics are used to treat EPS rather than prevent it.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 7: Two days after undergoing hemicolectomy for colon cancer, a 78-year-old man is found agitated and confused in his room. He says that a burglar broke in. The patient points at one corner of the room and says “There he is, doctor!” Closer inspection reveals that the patient is pointing to his bathrobe, which is hanging on the wall. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and arterial hypertension. Current medications include insulin and hydrochlorothiazide. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 89/min, respirations are 15/min, and blood pressure is 145/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a nontender, nonerythematous midline abdominal wound. On mental status examination, the patient is agitated and oriented only to person. Which of the following best describes this patient's perception?
- A. Hallucination
- B. Illusion (Correct Answer)
- C. Loose association
- D. Delusion
- E. External attribution
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Illusion***
- An **illusion** is a **misinterpretation of an actual external stimulus**, as seen when the patient perceives his bathrobe as a burglar.
- This symptom, combined with **agitation**, **confusion**, and **recent surgery**, is highly suggestive of **delirium**.
*Hallucination*
- A **hallucination** is a **perception in the absence of an external stimulus**, meaning the patient would see or hear something that is not there at all.
- The patient here is clearly reacting to an existing object (the bathrobe), albeit misinterpreting it.
*Loose association*
- **Loose association** refers to a **thought disorder** where ideas shift from one subject to another in a way that is unrelated or minimally related, making the speech difficult to follow.
- This describes a pattern of thought, not a perceptual disturbance involving an external object.
*Delusion*
- A **delusion** is a **fixed, false belief** that is not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence and is not in keeping with the individual's cultural background.
- While the patient believes a burglar is present, this belief arises from a direct misinterpretation of an object rather than a fixed, unfounded belief.
*External attribution*
- **External attribution** is a psychological concept where individuals ascribe responsibility for events or outcomes to **external factors** rather than internal ones.
- This term describes a cognitive bias in explaining causality, not a perceptual disturbance.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 8: A 23-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her father because of strange behavior for the past 6 months. The father reports that his daughter has increasingly isolated herself in college and received poor grades. She has told her father that aliens are trying to infiltrate her mind and that she has to continuously listen to the radio to monitor these activities. She appears anxious. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. Mental status examination shows psychomotor agitation. She says: “I can describe how the aliens chase me except for my car which is parked in the garage. You know, the sky is beautiful today. Why does my mother have a cat?” Which of the following best describes this patient's thought process?
- A. Circumstantial speech
- B. Clang associations
- C. Flight of ideas
- D. Thought-blocking
- E. Loose associations (Correct Answer)
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Loose associations***
- This is characterized by a **lack of logical connection** between thoughts or ideas, leading to a disorganized and incoherent flow of speech. The patient's statements about aliens, her car, the sky, and her mother's cat are **unrelated and lack a clear thematic thread**.
- It is a key feature of **thought disorganization** and is commonly seen in psychotic disorders like **schizophrenia**.
*Circumstantial speech*
- This involves including a **multitude of unnecessary details** before finally arriving at the point or answering the question.
- While the patient's speech is disorganized, it does not demonstrate the characteristic meandering yet goal-directed nature of circumstantiality.
*Clang associations*
- This refers to the **association of words based on their sound** rather than their meaning, often involving rhyming or alliteration.
- The patient's statements do not exhibit a pattern of rhyming or sound-based word choices.
*Flight of ideas*
- This is a rapid, continuous progression from one thought to another, with thoughts often **connected by tangential associations** but still having some discernable link.
- Although the patient's thoughts shift rapidly, the connections are not simply tangential; they are largely absent, suggesting a more severe form of disorganization than flight of ideas typically entails.
*Thought-blocking*
- This is an **abrupt cessation of thought or speech** in the middle of a sentence, often followed by a new and unrelated thought.
- The patient's speech flows continuously, albeit incoherently, without sudden stops or breaks.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 9: A 51-year-old man presents to his physician with decreased libido and inability to achieve an erection. He also reports poor sleep, loss of pleasure to do his job, and depressed mood. His symptoms started a year ago, soon after his wife got into the car accident. She survived and recovered with the minimal deficit, but the patient still feels guilty due to this case. The patient was diagnosed with diabetes 6 months ago, but he does not take any medications for it. He denies any other conditions. His weight is 105 kg (231.5 lb), his height is 172 cm (5 ft 7 in), and his waist circumference is 106 cm. The blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, and the heart rate is 73/min. The physical examination only shows increased adiposity. Which of the following tests is specifically intended to distinguish between the organic and psychogenic cause of the patient’s condition?
- A. Angiography
- B. Duplex ultrasound of the penis
- C. Penile tumescence testing (Correct Answer)
- D. Biothesiometry
- E. Injection of prostaglandin E1
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Penile tumescence testing***
- This test, often performed as a **nocturnal penile tumescence (NPT) test**, measures erections during sleep. The presence of normal nocturnal erections indicates a **psychogenic** cause for erectile dysfunction, as physiological mechanisms are intact.
- The absence of nocturnal erections, despite adequate sleep, suggests an **organic** cause, as the body's natural erectile reflex is impaired.
*Angiography*
- **Angiography** is an invasive procedure used to visualize blood vessels and identify arterial blockages or abnormalities. It is typically reserved for cases where vascular disease is strongly suspected as the cause of erectile dysfunction and often considered before revascularization surgery.
- While it can identify **vascular organic causes** of erectile dysfunction, it does not directly differentiate between psychogenic and organic causes universally; it focuses specifically on arterial flow.
*Duplex ultrasound of the penis*
- **Duplex ultrasound** evaluates blood flow within the penile arteries and veins, assessing both arterial inflow and veno-occlusive function. It aids in diagnosing **vascular abnormalities**, such as arterial insufficiency or venous leakage.
- Similar to angiography, duplex ultrasound identifies specific **organic vascular pathologies** but does not definitively distinguish between psychogenic and organic causes of erectile dysfunction if vascular function is normal.
*Biothesiometry*
- **Biothesiometry** measures penile vibratory sensation threshold, which assesses **neurological function** of the penis. It helps detect peripheral neuropathy, a potential organic cause of erectile dysfunction, especially in diabetic patients.
- While useful for uncovering **neurological organic causes**, biothesiometry does not differentiate between psychogenic and organic etiologies in cases where neurological function is normal.
*Injection of prostaglandin E1*
- The **injection of prostaglandin E1** (alprostadil) is a diagnostic and therapeutic tool that induces an erection by relaxing smooth muscle in the penile arteries, increasing blood flow. A strong response indicates intact vascular smooth muscle function.
- A successful response to prostaglandin E1 suggests that vascular smooth muscle and neurological pathways are largely functional, which can indirectly point away from severe organic causes, but it's not a definitive differentiator between **psychogenic and organic** causes as it by-passes some physiological mechanisms.
Positive symptoms US Medical PG Question 10: A 27-year-old woman is brought to the office at the insistence of her fiancé to be evaluated for auditory hallucinations for the past 8 months. The patient’s fiancé tells the physician that the patient often mentions that she can hear her own thoughts speaking aloud to her. The hallucinations have occurred intermittently for at least 1-month periods. Past medical history is significant for hypertension. Her medications include lisinopril and a daily multivitamin both of which she frequently neglects. She lost her security job 7 months ago after failing to report to work on time. The patient’s vital signs include: blood pressure 132/82 mm Hg; pulse 72/min; respiratory rate 18/min, and temperature 36.7°C (98.1°F). On physical examination, the patient has a flat affect and her focus fluctuates from the window to the door. She is disheveled with a foul smell. She has difficulty focusing on the discussion and does not quite understand what is happening around her. A urine toxicology screen is negative. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Schizoaffective disorder
- B. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- C. Schizoid personality disorder
- D. Schizophreniform disorder
- E. Schizotypal personality disorder
Positive symptoms Explanation: ***Schizophrenia***
- The patient exhibits core symptoms of schizophrenia, including **auditory hallucinations** (hearing thoughts speaking aloud), **disorganized thinking** (difficulty focusing, fluctuating focus), and **negative symptoms** (flat affect, disheveled, foul smell, loss of job due to poor function). These symptoms have been present for **at least 6 months** (8 months of hallucinations, 7 months of job loss), which meets the diagnostic criteria.
- The duration of symptoms (over 6 months) differentiates it from schizophreniform disorder, and the absence of prominent mood episodes rules out schizoaffective disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- This diagnosis requires a **major mood episode** (depressive or manic) concurrent with Criterion A of schizophrenia, along with a period of **at least 2 weeks of delusions or hallucinations in the absence of prominent mood symptoms**.
- While the patient has some signs of distress (lost job, disorganized), a full major mood episode is not described, and the primary symptoms are clearly psychotic.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- This is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression, often appearing indifferent to praise or criticism.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily psychotic (hallucinations, disorganized thought), not just social withdrawal or emotional flatness. She doesn't necessarily avoid social contact, but her psychosis interferes with it.
*Schizophreniform disorder*
- This disorder presents with symptoms identical to schizophrenia but with a **duration of at least 1 month but less than 6 months**.
- The patient's symptoms, particularly the auditory hallucinations, have been present for 8 months and are therefore outside the timeframe for schizophreniform disorder.
*Schizotypal personality disorder*
- This disorder involves a pervasive pattern of **social and interpersonal deficits** marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentric behaviors.
- While there may be some odd beliefs or magical thinking, **full-blown psychotic symptoms like prominent auditory hallucinations** (hearing thoughts speaking aloud) are generally not present as consistently or severely as seen in this patient, who meets criteria for a major psychotic disorder.
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