Schizophrenia

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 1: A 29-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her father because of a change in her behavior over the past 8 months. The father says that his daughter has become increasingly withdrawn; she has not answered any phone calls or visited her family and friends. The patient says that she has to stay at home because a foreign intelligence service is monitoring her. She thinks that they are using a magnetic field to read her mind. Mental status exam shows disjointed and perseverative thinking. She is anxious and has a flat affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Delusional disorder
• B. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
• C. Paranoid personality disorder
• D. Schizophreniform disorder
• E. Schizoid personality disorder

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Schizophrenia*** - The patient's presentation with **delusions of persecution and thought broadcasting**, accompanied by **disjointed, perseverative thinking**, and **flat affect** for 8 months, is highly indicative of schizophrenia. - Schizophrenia is characterized by a combination of positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech), negative symptoms (flat affect, social withdrawal), and cognitive symptoms (disorganized thinking) lasting for at least 6 months. *Delusional disorder* - Delusional disorder is characterized by the presence of **non-bizarre delusions for at least 1 month** without other significant psychotic symptoms or marked impairment in functioning. - The patient's symptoms include **disorganized thinking and flat affect**, which are not typical of delusional disorder and suggest a broader psychotic illness. *Paranoid personality disorder* - Characterized by a pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, where their motives are interpreted as malevolent, but **without the presence of frank delusions or other psychotic symptoms**. - The patient is experiencing **fixed, false beliefs (delusions)** involving mind reading and foreign intelligence, which goes beyond the pervasive distrust seen in paranoid personality disorder. *Schizophreniform disorder* - Schizophreniform disorder presents with symptoms identical to schizophrenia, but the **duration is between 1 and 6 months**. - Since the patient's symptoms have been present for **8 months**, it exceeds the diagnostic criteria for schizophreniform disorder, making schizophrenia a more likely diagnosis. *Schizoid personality disorder* - Characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings. - While the patient exhibits social withdrawal, this condition does **not involve delusions, disorganized thinking, or other psychotic features**.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 2: Two dizygotic twins present to the university clinic because they believe they are being poisoned through the school's cafeteria food. They have brought these concerns up in the past, but no other students or cafeteria staff support this belief. Both of them are average students with strong and weak subject areas as demonstrated by their course grade-books. They have no known medical conditions and are not known to abuse illicit substances. Which statement best describes the condition these patients have?

• A. A trial separation is likely to worsen symptoms.
• B. The disorder is its own disease entity in DSM-5.
• C. Antipsychotic medications are rarely beneficial.
• D. Can affect two or more closely related individuals. (Correct Answer)
• E. Cognitive behavioral therapy is a good first-line.

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Can affect two or more closely related individuals.*** - The shared delusional belief in **folie à deux**, also known as **shared psychotic disorder**, typically occurs in two or more people who are closely associated. - In this case, the **dizygotic twins** sharing the same delusional belief about being poisoned from cafeteria food fits this pattern. *A trial separation is likely to worsen symptoms.* - **Separating the individuals** involved in **folie à deux** is often a crucial step in treatment, as it can help break the cycle of shared delusion and allow for individual therapy. - Separation typically IMPROVES rather than worsens symptoms by removing the reinforcement of the shared delusion. *The disorder is its own disease entity in DSM-5.* - In the **DSM-5**, **folie à deux** is no longer considered a separate diagnostic category. - Instead, it is classified under **Other Specified Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorder** or **Unspecified Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorder**, with the specific context of shared delusion noted. *Antipsychotic medications are rarely beneficial.* - **Antipsychotics** are actually commonly used in treating folie à deux, particularly for the **primary individual** who initially developed the delusion. - They can be an important component of treatment, often combined with separation and psychotherapy. *Cognitive behavioral therapy is a good first-line.* - **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** can be beneficial, particularly after separation, to help individuals challenge and reframe their delusional beliefs. - However, the **first-line intervention** for shared psychotic disorder is **separation of the involved individuals**, followed by individual therapy (which may include CBT) and medication as needed.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 3: A 43-year-old woman presents for a routine checkup. She says she has been uncontrollably grimacing and smacking her lips for the past 2 months, and these symptoms have been getting progressively worse. Past medical history is significant for schizophrenia, managed medically with haloperidol. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Trismus
• C. Tourette’s syndrome
• D. Torticollis
• E. Tardive dyskinesia (Correct Answer)

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Tardive dyskinesia*** - The symptoms of **uncontrollable grimacing** and **lip smacking** are classic presentations of **tardive dyskinesia**, an involuntary movement disorder. - This condition often develops after **chronic use of dopamine receptor-blocking agents**, such as typical antipsychotics like **haloperidol**. - Tardive dyskinesia typically emerges after months to years of antipsychotic therapy and is more commonly associated with first-generation (typical) antipsychotics. *Oculogyric crisis* - This is a form of **acute dystonia** characterized by **sustained upward deviation of the eyes**. - While it can be induced by antipsychotics, the present symptoms of grimacing and lip smacking are not characteristic of an oculogyric crisis. *Trismus* - Trismus refers to a **limited range of motion of the jaw** or a **sustained contraction of the jaw muscles**. - This condition primarily affects the jaw and would not explain the grimacing or lip-smacking movements. *Tourette's syndrome* - Tourette's syndrome is characterized by **multiple motor tics** and at least one **vocal tic** that persist for more than a year. - While some tics can involve facial movements, the sudden onset in adulthood after medication use points away from Tourette's, which typically presents in childhood. *Torticollis* - Torticollis, or **wry neck**, is a focal dystonia characterized by a sustained or intermittent **contraction of neck muscles**, leading to abnormal head posture. - This condition primarily affects the neck and head posture and does not explain the oral-facial dyskinesias described.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 4: A 20-year-old male is involuntarily admitted to the county psychiatric unit for psychotic behavior over the past three months. The patient's mother explained to the psychiatrist that her son had withdrawn from family and friends, appeared to have no emotions, and had delusions that he was working for the CIA. When he spoke, his sentences did not always seem to have any connection with each other. The mother finally decided to admit her son after he began stating that he "revealed too much information to her and was going to be eliminated by the CIA." Which of the following diagnoses best fits this patient's presentation?

• A. Schizophrenia
• B. Brief psychotic disorder
• C. Schizophreniform disorder (Correct Answer)
• D. Schizoid personality disorder
• E. Schizotypal personality disorder

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Schizophreniform disorder*** - The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **psychosis**, including delusions, disorganized speech, flat affect, and social withdrawal, which are characteristic of schizophrenia spectrum disorders. - The duration of symptoms (3 months) fits the criteria for **schizophreniform disorder**, which is when psychotic symptoms last between 1 month and 6 months. *Schizophrenia* - Schizophrenia requires symptoms to be present for at least **6 months**, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms. - While this patient's symptoms are consistent with psychotic disorder, the **duration criteria** for schizophrenia have not yet been met. *Brief psychotic disorder* - Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by symptoms lasting from **1 day to 1 month**, with eventual full return to premorbid functioning. - The patient's symptoms have persisted for **3 months**, exceeding the maximum duration for brief psychotic disorder. *Schizoid personality disorder* - This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression. - While the patient exhibits social withdrawal, the presence of **delusions, disorganized speech, and flat affect** indicates a psychotic disorder, not merely a personality disorder. *Schizotypal personality disorder* - Schizotypal personality disorder involves pervasive social and interpersonal deficits with **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentric behaviors. - While it can involve odd beliefs, it does not typically include the prominent, fixed, and systematized **delusions and disorganized speech** seen in this patient's presentation.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 5: A 34-year-old male presents to clinic today complaining that his medication has stopped working. He states despite being able to manage the side effects, a voice has returned again telling him to hurt his Mother. You prescribe him a drug which has shown improved efficacy in treating his disorder but requires frequent followup visits. One week later he returns with the following lab results: WBC : 2500 cells/mcL, Neutrophils : 55% and, Bands : 1%. What drug was this patient prescribed?

• A. Clozapine (Correct Answer)
• B. Lurasidone
• C. Olanzapine
• D. Chlorpromazine
• E. Haloperidol

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Clozapine*** - **Clozapine** is an atypical antipsychotic known for its superior efficacy in **treatment-resistant schizophrenia**, which fits the patient's presentation of a recurrence of symptoms despite prior medication. - The given lab results (WBC 2500 cells/mcL, Neutrophils 55%, Bands 1%) show signs of **neutropenia**, a severe side effect of clozapine that necessitates frequent monitoring of complete blood counts (CBCs). *Lurasidone* - **Lurasidone** is an atypical antipsychotic, but it is not typically considered a first-line treatment for treatment-resistant cases and does not carry the same risk of agranulocytosis requiring frequent CBC monitoring as clozapine. - It would not explain the **observed neutropenia** and the need for frequent follow-up for blood work. *Olanzapine* - While **olanzapine** is an effective atypical antipsychotic, it is not uniquely indicated for treatment-resistant cases in the same way clozapine is, nor does it typically require the intensive hematological monitoring. - Its main severe side effects are metabolic (e.g., weight gain, dyslipidemia), not **neutropenia** that would manifest in these lab results. *Chlorpromazine* - **Chlorpromazine** is a first-generation antipsychotic and, while effective, is not known for superior efficacy in treatment-resistant cases compared to clozapine and has a different side effect profile. - It can cause **agranulocytosis** but is not the drug of choice for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and its side effect profile does not align. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is a potent first-generation antipsychotic, effective for acute psychosis, but less effective for negative symptoms and carries a high risk of extrapyramidal side effects. - It is not typically chosen for treatment-resistant cases and does not cause the specific hematological issues seen in the lab results that would necessitate weekly follow-up for blood counts.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 6: A 22-year-old man is brought to the physician by his mother because of concerns about his recent behavior. Three months ago, the patient first reported hearing loud voices coming from the ceiling of his room. During this time, he has also become increasingly worried that visitors to the house were placing secret surveillance cameras. Mental status examination shows tangential speech with paranoid thoughts. Treatment for this patient's condition predominantly targets which of the following dopaminergic pathways?

• A. Mesocortical pathway
• B. Thalamocortical pathway
• C. Nigrostriatal pathway
• D. Corticostriatal pathway
• E. Mesolimbic pathway (Correct Answer)

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Mesolimbic pathway*** - The patient's symptoms of **auditory hallucinations** and **paranoid delusions** are **positive symptoms** of psychosis consistent with **schizophrenia**. - **Hyperactivity** of the **mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway** is strongly associated with the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, making it the primary target for antipsychotic treatment. *Mesocortical pathway* - The **mesocortical pathway** is primarily involved in **cognition, motivation, and executive functions**, originating from the ventral tegmental area and projecting to the prefrontal cortex. - **Hypoactivity** in this pathway is thought to contribute to the **negative and cognitive symptoms** of schizophrenia, not the positive symptoms described. *Thalamocortical pathway* - The **thalamocortical pathway** connects the **thalamus to the cerebral cortex** and is crucial for sensory processing, arousal, and consciousness. - While involved in neural circuits, it is not considered a primary dopaminergic pathway targeted for the treatment of positive psychotic symptoms. *Nigrostriatal pathway* - The **nigrostriatal pathway** projects from the **substantia nigra to the striatum** and is primarily involved in **motor control**. - Blocking dopamine receptors in this pathway by antipsychotic medications can cause **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)**, but it is not the main pathway responsible for positive psychotic symptoms or their treatment. *Corticostriatal pathway* - The **corticostriatal pathway** is **predominantly a glutamatergic pathway** connecting the **cerebral cortex to the striatum**, playing a role in motor control and habit formation. - This is not a primary dopaminergic pathway and is not directly implicated in the positive symptoms of schizophrenia or their pharmacological treatment.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 7: A 24-year-old woman is brought to the hospital by her mother because she has "not been herself" for the past 3 months. The patient says she hears voices in her head. The mother said that when she is talking to her daughter she can’t seem to make out what she is saying; it is as if her thoughts are disorganized. When talking with the patient, you notice a lack of energy and an apathetic affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

• A. Major depressive disorder
• B. Schizophrenia
• C. Brief psychotic disorder
• D. Schizotypal disorder
• E. Schizophreniform disorder (Correct Answer)

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Schizophreniform disorder*** - The patient exhibits core **psychotic symptoms** (hearing voices, disorganized thoughts) for a duration of **3 months**, which is characteristic of schizophreniform disorder (symptoms lasting **1 to 6 months**). - Her **lack of energy** and **apathetic affect** align with the negative symptoms commonly seen in psychotic disorders. *Major depressive disorder* - While **lack of energy** and **apathetic affect** can be present, the prominent **hallucinations** (hearing voices) and **disorganized thoughts** are not primary features of major depressive disorder. - A diagnosis of depression alone would not fully account for her psychotic symptoms. *Schizophrenia* - Schizophrenia requires symptoms to be present for **at least 6 months**, including at least one month of **active phase symptoms**. This patient's symptoms have only been present for 3 months. - While the symptoms are consistent with schizophrenia, the **duration criterion** has not yet been met. *Brief psychotic disorder* - Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by psychotic symptoms lasting **less than 1 month**. This patient's symptoms have been ongoing for 3 months. - The chronicity of symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely. *Schizotypal disorder* - Schizotypal disorder is a **personality disorder** characterized by peculiar thoughts and behaviors, but typically **without overt psychotic episodes** or pronounced disorganized speech/hallucinations as described. - While there may be odd beliefs or ideas of reference, the clear **auditory hallucinations** and **thought disorder** in this case point to a more severe psychotic condition.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 8: A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a homeless shelter because of bizarre behavior. He avoids contact with others and has complained to the supervising staff that he thinks people are reading his mind. Three days ago, he unplugged every electrical appliance on his floor of the shelter because he believed they were being used to transmit messages about him to others. The patient has schizophrenia and has been prescribed risperidone but has been unable to comply with his medications because of his unstable living situation. He is disheveled and malodorous. His thought process is disorganized and he does not make eye contact. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term pharmacotherapy?

• A. Intravenous propranolol
• B. Intramuscular benztropine
• C. Oral haloperidol
• D. Intramuscular risperidone (Correct Answer)
• E. Oral diazepam

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Intramuscular risperidone*** - Given the patient's **non-compliance** due to an unstable living situation, a **long-acting injectable antipsychotic** like intramuscular risperidone is the most appropriate choice for long-term management. This ensures consistent medication delivery regardless of daily adherence. - This medication directly addresses the **positive symptoms of schizophrenia** (paranoia, disorganized thought) that are evident in the patient's bizarre behavior and delusional beliefs. *Intravenous propranolol* - Propranolol is a **beta-blocker** used to treat anxiety, hypertension, and tremors, but it is **not an antipsychotic** and does not address the core symptoms of schizophrenia. - It could potentially be used for symptom control like akathisia if present, but not as primary long-term pharmacotherapy for psychosis. *Intramuscular benztropine* - Benztropine is an **anticholinergic medication** primarily used to treat **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)** induced by antipsychotics (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism). - It does not have antipsychotic effects and would not treat the patient's psychotic symptoms. *Oral haloperidol* - While haloperidol is an **effective antipsychotic**, it is an **oral formulation**. Given the patient's history of **non-compliance** with oral medication (risperidone), switching to another oral antipsychotic, even one as potent as haloperidol, is unlikely to solve the adherence issue, especially in an unstable living situation. - Long-term management requires a strategy that overcomes the compliance barrier. *Oral diazepam* - Diazepam is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. - It has **no antipsychotic properties** and would not treat the underlying psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia. It would only provide temporary sedation.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 9: A 25-year-old woman is brought to a psychiatrist's office by her husband who states that he is worried about her recent behavior, as it has become more violent. The patient's husband states that his family drove across the country to visit them and that his wife 'threatened his parents with a knife' at dinner last night. Police had to be called to calm her down. He states that she has been acting 'really crazy' for the last 9 months, and the initial behavior that caused him alarm was her admission that his deceased sister was talking to her through a decorative piece of ceramic art in the living room. Initially, he thought she was joking, but soon realized her complaints of 'hearing ghosts' talking to her throughout the house were persisting and 'getting worse'. Over the past 9 months, she has experienced multiple periods of profound sadness, with persistent insomnia and an unintentional weight loss of 12 pounds over several months. She has been complaining of feeling 'worthless' and has had markedly diminished interest in activities for much of this time period. Her general hygiene has also suffered from her recent lack of motivation and she insists that the 'ghosts' are asking her to kill as many people as she can so they won't be alone in the house. Her husband is extremely concerned that she may harm herself or someone else. He states that she currently does not take any medications or illicit drugs as far as he knows. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. The patient herself does not make eye contact or want to speak to the psychiatrist, allowing her husband to speak on her behalf. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

• A. Schizophreniform disorder
• B. Schizophrenia
• C. Delusional disorder
• D. Schizoaffective disorder (Correct Answer)
• E. Brief psychotic disorder

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Schizoaffective disorder*** - This patient exhibits symptoms of both a **major depressive disorder** (multiple periods of profound **sadness**, persistent **insomnia**, **weight loss** over several months, feelings of **worthlessness**, and markedly **diminished interest in activities**) and a **psychotic disorder** (auditory **hallucinations**, command hallucinations, **delusions**, violent behavior). - The total symptom duration is **9 months**, with **mood symptoms present for the majority of this period**, meeting the key DSM-5 criterion for schizoaffective disorder. - The patient also demonstrates **psychotic symptoms (hallucinations) that persist throughout**, including periods when mood symptoms may fluctuate, satisfying the requirement for delusions or hallucinations for ≥2 weeks in the absence of a major mood episode. - The combination of prominent mood episodes concurrent with schizophrenia-spectrum symptoms, with mood symptoms present for the majority of the illness duration, confirms schizoaffective disorder. *Schizophreniform disorder* - This disorder involves symptoms characteristic of **schizophrenia** lasting **between 1 and 6 months**. - The patient's symptoms have been present for **9 months**, exceeding the maximum duration for schizophreniform disorder. *Schizophrenia* - Schizophrenia requires persistent psychotic symptoms lasting **at least 6 months**, with at least one month of active-phase symptoms. - While this patient has psychotic symptoms for 9 months, the **prominent and prolonged depressive symptoms** that are present for the **majority of the illness duration** distinguish this from schizophrenia. - In schizophrenia, mood symptoms, if present, are **brief relative to the total duration** of the psychotic illness, which is not the case here. *Delusional disorder* - Delusional disorder is characterized by **non-bizarre delusions** for at least 1 month, without other prominent psychotic symptoms. - This patient experiences prominent **auditory hallucinations** ("hearing ghosts," "deceased sister talking to her") and **command hallucinations**, which are not features of delusional disorder. - The presence of hallucinations rules out this diagnosis. *Brief psychotic disorder* - This diagnosis involves sudden onset of psychotic symptoms lasting **more than 1 day but less than 1 month**, with eventual full recovery. - The patient's symptoms have persisted for **9 months**, far exceeding the duration criterion for brief psychotic disorder.

Schizophrenia US Medical PG Question 10: A 21-year-old man presents to an outpatient psychiatrist with chief complaints of fatigue and “hearing voices.” He describes multiple voices which sometimes call his name or say nonsensical things to him before he falls asleep at night. He occasionally awakes to see “strange people” in his room, which frighten him but then disappear. The patient is particularly worried by this because his uncle developed schizophrenia when he was in his 20s. The patient also thinks he had a seizure a few days ago, saying he suddenly fell to the ground without warning, though he remembers the episode and denied any abnormal movements during it. He is in his 3rd year of college and used to be a top student, but has been getting C and D grades over the last year, as he has had trouble concentrating and fallen asleep during exams numerous times. He denies changes in mood and has continued to sleep 8 hours per night and eat 3 meals per day recently. Which of the following medications will be most beneficial for this patient?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Valproic acid
• C. Risperidone
• D. Modafinil (Correct Answer)
• E. Levetiracetam

Schizophrenia Explanation: ***Modafinil*** - This patient presents with **narcolepsy**, characterized by the **classic tetrad**: excessive daytime sleepiness (falling asleep during exams), **cataplexy** (sudden fall without loss of consciousness or abnormal movements), **hypnagogic hallucinations** (hearing voices before sleep), and **hypnopompic hallucinations** (seeing people upon awakening). - The hallucinations are **not true psychotic symptoms** but rather dream-like phenomena occurring at sleep-wake transitions, which are common in narcolepsy. - **Modafinil** is a first-line **wakefulness-promoting agent** that treats the excessive daytime sleepiness and improves alertness, addressing the primary pathology. - The patient's family history of schizophrenia is a red herring; his symptoms are explained by narcolepsy, not a primary psychotic disorder. *Risperidone* - Risperidone is an **atypical antipsychotic** used for schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. - This patient does **not have a primary psychotic disorder**—the hallucinations are hypnagogic/hypnopompic phenomena associated with narcolepsy, not true psychotic hallucinations. - Using an antipsychotic would be inappropriate and could **worsen daytime sleepiness** due to sedating effects, exacerbating the patient's core problem. *Haloperidol* - Haloperidol is a **first-generation antipsychotic** with significant risk of **extrapyramidal side effects**. - Like risperidone, it would be inappropriate here as the patient does not have a psychotic disorder, and it would worsen sedation and daytime sleepiness. *Valproic acid* - Valproic acid is a **mood stabilizer and anticonvulsant** used for bipolar disorder and seizure disorders. - The described "seizure" event is actually **cataplexy** (preserved consciousness, no abnormal movements), not a true seizure, so an anticonvulsant is not indicated. - It would not address the narcolepsy symptoms and can cause sedation. *Levetiracetam* - Levetiracetam is an **anticonvulsant** medication. - The patient's description (remembering the episode, no abnormal movements) is inconsistent with a seizure and consistent with **cataplexy**, which is treated by addressing the underlying narcolepsy, not with anticonvulsants.

Schizophrenia Flashcard 1 of 10

Question: What group of drugs is the first line treatment for schizophrenia? _____

Answer: Atypical antipsychotics (e.g. risperidone)

Schizophrenia Flashcard 2 of 10

Question: Are typical antipsychotics effective at treating the positive or negative symptoms of schizophrenia? _____

Answer: Positive

Schizophrenia Flashcard 3 of 10

Question: Schizophrenia is associated with _____ dendritic branching

Answer: decreased

Schizophrenia Flashcard 4 of 10

Question: Which dopaminergic pathway is the primary target for the antipsychotic treatment of schizoprenia? _____

Answer: Mesolimbic pathway

Schizophrenia Flashcard 5 of 10

Question: Schizophrenia is associated with _____ dopaminergic activity

Answer: increased

Schizophrenia Flashcard 6 of 10

Question: Schizophrenia is characterized by _____ on CT

Answer: ventriculomegaly

Schizophrenia Flashcard 7 of 10

Question: schizophrenia

Answer:

Extra Information: increased: dopamine

Schizophrenia Flashcard 8 of 10

Question: Are typical antipsychotics effective at treating the positive or negative symptoms of schizophrenia? _____

Answer: Positive

Extra Information:   Sketchy Pharmacology: Neuro/Psych Watch First generation antipsychotics [https://dashboard.sketchy.com/study/medical/courses/medical-pharmacology/units/medical-pharmacology-neuro-psych/videos/medical-pharmacology-neuropsych-antipsychotics-and-parkinsons-first-generation-antipsychotics?utm_source=anki&utm_medium=partnership&utm_campaign=february_update&utm_content=medical]Watch associated Bootcamp video [https://app.bootcamp.com/med-school/psychiatry/videos/pharmacology?index=14] https://onlinemeded.org/spa/psychiatry?ref=anki 

Schizophrenia Flashcard 9 of 10

Question: Schizophrenia is associated with _____-creased serotonergic activity and decreased dendritic branching

Answer: in

Extra Information: Watch associated Bootcamp video [https://app.bootcamp.com/med-school/psychiatry/videos/psychotic-and-mood-disorders?index=10] https://onlinemeded.org/spa/psychiatry?ref=anki 

Schizophrenia Flashcard 10 of 10

Question: Is the prevalence of schizophrenia more common in a particular race? _____

Answer: No

Extra Information:  Watch associated Bootcamp video [https://app.bootcamp.com/med-school/psychiatry/videos/psychotic-and-mood-disorders?index=10] https://onlinemeded.org/spa/psychiatry/psychotic-disorders/acquire?ref=anki